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MP Excise Act MCQs Set-6
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1. Under Section 62(2)(d), the State Government may regulate:
a. Import, export, transport and manufacture of intoxicants
b. Civil marriages only
c. Forest conservation exclusively
d. Election procedures
2. Section 62(2)(d) also includes regulation of:
a. Cultivation of hemp plant
b. Cotton cultivation
c. Wheat procurement
d. Mining leases
3. Under Section 62(2)(d)(i), rules may regulate tapping of:
a. Rubber trees
b. Tari-producing trees
c. Sandalwood trees
d. Bamboo plants
4. Section 62(2)(d)(i) also permits rules regarding:
a. Drawing and marking of tari
b. Registration of vehicles
c. Export duty on petrol
d. Municipal records
5. Under Section 62(2)(d)(ii), rules may declare:
a. Method of trial
b. Process by which spirit shall be denatured
c. Procedure for arrest
d. Method of taxation
6. Denaturisation of spirit under Section 62(2)(d)(ii) refers to:
a. Fermentation process only
b. Process of rendering spirit unfit for drinking
c. Import licensing
d. Chemical taxation
7. Under Section 62(2)(d)(iii), spirit may be denatured:
a. Only by private contractors
b. Through agency or supervision of government officers
c. Only by courts
d. Exclusively by Gram Sabha
8. Which of the following correctly reflects the nature of Section 62 powers?
a. Judicial powers
b. Rule-making or delegated legislative powers
c. Constitutional powers
d. Emergency powers
9. The rules framed under Section 62 are intended to:
a. Supplement and implement the Act
b. Replace the Constitution
c. Abolish excise administration
d. Override judicial decisions
10. Which of the following subjects is specifically covered under Section 62?
a. Appointment of Governors
b. Maintenance of marks on tari-producing trees
c. Conduct of elections
d. Criminal appeals before Supreme Court
11. Section 62(2)(f) empowers the State Government to prescribe:
a. Procedure for constitutional amendment
b. Procedure before grant of licence for vend
c. Criminal trial procedure only
d. Election process
12. Under Section 62(2)(f), rules may prescribe matters to be ascertained before:
a. Arrest of accused
b. Grant of licence for vend in any locality
c. Registration of FIR
d. Imposition of sentence
13. The term “vend” in excise law generally relates to:
a. Transportation of goods
b. Sale of intoxicants
c. Judicial proceedings
d. Cultivation of crops
14. Under Section 62(2)(g), the State Government may regulate:
a. Appointment of judges
b. Amount, time, place and manner of payment of duty, fee, tax or penalty
c. Parliamentary sessions
d. Municipal elections
15. Which of the following is specifically included under Section 62(2)(g)?
a. Court procedure
b. Customs tariff only
c. Manner of payment of duty or fee
d. Constitutional remedies
16. Section 62(2)(h) relates to rules regarding:
a. Criminal appeals
b. Licences, permits and passes
c. Panchayat elections
d. Judicial review
17. Under Section 62(2)(h), rules may prescribe:
a. Authority by which licence, permit or pass shall be granted
b. Salary of Excise Officers
c. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
d. Procedure for constitutional amendment
18. Rules under Section 62(2)(h) may prescribe:
a. Form and conditions of licences, permits and passes
b. Procedure for impeachment
c. Police uniforms
d. Land acquisition procedure
19. Under Section 62(2)(h)(i), rules may fix:
a. Territorial jurisdiction of courts
b. Period for which licence, permit or pass shall continue in force
c. Retirement age of officers
d. Duration of legislative assembly
20. Section 62(2)(h)(ii) authorizes rules regarding:
a. Criminal punishment only
b. Scale or manner of fixing fees payable for licence, permit or pass
c. Civil court jurisdiction
d. Election expenditure
21. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iii), rules may prescribe:
a. Bail amount only
b. Amount of security to be deposited by licence holders
c. Fine under IPC
d. Compensation under tort law
22. The security deposit under Section 62(2)(h)(iii) is intended for:
a. Election purposes
b. Performance of conditions of licence, permit or pass
c. Constitutional litigation
d. Judicial appointments
23. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iv), rules may prescribe:
a. Accounts to be maintained and returns to be submitted by licence holders
b. Criminal appeals procedure
c. Municipal taxation
d. Recruitment rules for judiciary
24. The returns referred to in Section 62(2)(h)(iv) are to be submitted by:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Licence holders
c. High Court
d. Parliament
25. Section 62(2)(h)(v) empowers the State Government to:
a. Abolish licences completely
b. Prohibit or regulate partnership in licences
c. Transfer judicial powers
d. Suspend constitutional rights
26. Under Section 62(2)(h)(v), rules may regulate:
a. Transfer of licences
b. Criminal investigations
c. Election petitions
d. Civil decrees
27. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 62(2)(h)?
a. Security deposit
b. Accounts and returns
c. Partnership in licences
d. Appointment of Magistrates
28. The powers under Section 62(2)(f) to (h) are examples of:
a. Judicial powers
b. Delegated legislation
c. Constitutional amendments
d. Emergency powers
29. Section 62 enables the State Government to make detailed rules for:
a. Effective administration of excise regulation
b. Abolishing excise duties
c. Criminal law codification
d. Amendment of Constitution
30. Which of the following subjects is covered under Section 62(2)(h)?
a. Period of validity of licence
b. Conduct of elections
c. Criminal revision before High Court
d. Appointment of Governor
31. Section 62(2)(i) of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act relates to:
a. Criminal appeals
b. Local public opinion regarding intoxicant shops
c. Appointment of Excise Officers
d. Bail procedure
32. Under Section 62(2)(i), rules may prescribe measures for:
a. Recovery of excise duty
b. Ascertaining local public opinion
c. Conducting elections
d. Arrest without warrant
33. The local public opinion referred to in Section 62(2)(i) concerns:
a. Forest produce
b. Criminal trials
c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops
d. Panchayat taxation
34. The District Planning Committee referred to in Section 62(2)(i) is constituted under:
a. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993
b. Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam, 1995
c. CrPC, 1973
d. Indian Evidence Act
35. The Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam mentioned in Section 62(2)(i) is:
a. Act No. 1 of 1994
b. Act No. 19 of 1995
c. Act No. 2 of 1974
d. Act No. 5 of 1961
36. Under Section 62(2)(i), the District Planning Committee advises regarding:
a. Appointment of judges
b. Excise prosecution
c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops
d. Confiscation proceedings
37. Section 62(2)(j) empowers the State Government to make rules regarding:
a. Destruction or disposal of intoxicants unfit for use
b. Criminal sentencing
c. Judicial review
d. Police recruitment
38. Intoxicants deemed unfit for use under Section 62(2)(j) may be:
a. Distributed freely
b. Destroyed or otherwise disposed of
c. Exported compulsorily
d. Converted into denatured spirit only
39. Section 62(2)(k) relates to:
a. Bail of offenders
b. Disposal of confiscated articles
c. Search warrants
d. Constitution of Gram Sabha
40. The articles referred to in Section 62(2)(k) are:
a. Agricultural produce
b. Confiscated articles
c. Court records
d. Election documents
41. Under Section 62(2)(l), rules may regulate grant of expenses to:
a. Police officers only
b. Witnesses
c. Judges
d. Excise contractors only
42. Section 62(2)(l) also provides for compensation to persons:
a. Convicted under the Act
b. Charged with offences and subsequently released, discharged or acquitted
c. Detained preventively only
d. Holding excise licences
43. Compensation under Section 62(2)(l) may be granted when the accused is:
a. Convicted
b. Released, discharged or acquitted
c. Sentenced to imprisonment
d. Declared absconder
44. Section 62(2)(m) empowers rules regulating:
a. Excise taxation
b. Power of Excise Officers to summon witnesses from a distance
c. Judicial transfer
d. Licensing appeals
45. The power to summon witnesses under Section 62(2)(m) belongs to:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Excise Officers
c. High Court exclusively
d. District Panchayat
46. Which clause specifically concerns confiscated property?
a. Clause (i)
b. Clause (j)
c. Clause (k)
d. Clause (m)
47. Which clause specifically concerns witnesses?
a. Clause (j)
b. Clause (k)
c. Clause (l)
d. Clause (m)
48. Section 62(2)(i) reflects:
a. Community participation in excise administration
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Parliamentary sovereignty
d. Police autonomy
49. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Clause (j) — Disposal of confiscated articles
b. Clause (k) — Destruction of unfit intoxicants
c. Clause (l) — Compensation to acquitted persons
d. Clause (m) — Public opinion survey
50. Clauses (i) to (m) of Section 62 mainly deal with:
a. Administrative and regulatory matters under excise law
b. Constitutional remedies
c. Civil procedure
d. Electoral reforms
51. Section 63 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:
a. Recovery of dues
b. Publication of rules and notifications
c. Bail provisions
d. Confiscation proceedings
52. Under Section 63, all rules made under the Act shall be published in:
a. Local newspaper
b. Official Gazette
c. Police diary
d. Court notice board
53. Notifications issued under the Act take effect:
a. Immediately upon drafting
b. From the date of publication or such other specified date
c. Only after court approval
d. After one year
54. Section 63 applies to:
a. Judicial decrees only
b. Rules and notifications under the Act
c. Private agreements only
d. Excise licences exclusively
55. Publication in the Official Gazette under Section 63 gives:
a. Private effect only
b. Legal enforceability to rules and notifications
c. Temporary operation only
d. Judicial immunity
56. Section 64 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Recovery of Government dues
c. Search warrants
d. Grant of pardon
57. Under Section 64(1)(a), which of the following may be recovered?
a. Civil damages only
b. Excise revenue
c. Election expenses
d. Court fees only
58. Section 64(1)(b) covers losses accruing when:
a. Criminal appeal is dismissed
b. Grant has been taken under management or resold due to default
c. Licence is renewed
d. Bail is cancelled
59. Under Section 64(1)(c), amounts due to Government may arise from:
a. Constitutional litigation
b. Contracts relating to excise revenue
c. Matrimonial disputes
d. Service matters only
60. Section 64(1)(c) specifically overrides:
a. Section 9 CPC
b. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
c. Section 154 CrPC
d. Article 14 of the Constitution
61. The Contract Act referred to in Section 64(1)(c) is:
a. Act No. 2 of 1974
b. Act No. 9 of 1872
c. Act No. 1 of 1994
d. Act No. 19 of 1995
62. Amounts payable on breach of conditions of a bond under Section 64(1)(c):
a. Cannot be recovered
b. May be recovered as Government dues
c. Require civil suit only
d. Are automatically waived
63. Recovery under Section 64(1) may be made from:
a. Person primarily liable or his surety
b. High Court only
c. Gram Sabha only
d. Witnesses to contract
64. One mode of recovery under Section 64(1) is:
a. Constitutional amendment
b. Distress and sale of movable property
c. Impeachment proceedings
d. Habeas corpus petition
65. Section 64(1) also permits recovery through:
a. Process for recovery of land revenue
b. Criminal appeal only
c. Writ proceedings exclusively
d. Arbitration only
66. The process for recovery under Section 64 treats Government dues similarly to:
a. Compensation claims
b. Land revenue dues
c. Election liabilities
d. Criminal fines only
67. Under Section 64(2), when a grant is taken under management or resold, the Collector may recover:
a. Judicial costs only
b. Money due to the defaulter by any lessee
c. Pension arrears
d. Tax refunds only
68. Which authority is empowered under Section 64(2)?
a. Sessions Court
b. Collector
c. Gram Sabha
d. Excise Commissioner exclusively
69. Section 64 primarily provides:
a. Criminal procedure
b. Mechanism for realization of Government excise dues
c. Constitutional safeguards
d. Bail conditions
70. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Section 63 — Recovery of excise revenue
b. Section 64 — Publication of rules
c. Section 63 — Official Gazette publication of rules and notifications
d. Section 64 — Grant of pardon to approver
71. Section 62(2)(f) empowers the State Government to prescribe:
a. Procedure for constitutional amendment
b. Procedure before grant of licence for vend
c. Criminal trial procedure only
d. Election process
72. Under Section 62(2)(f), rules may prescribe matters to be ascertained before:
a. Arrest of accused
b. Grant of licence for vend in any locality
c. Registration of FIR
d. Imposition of sentence
73. The term “vend” in excise law generally relates to:
a. Transportation of goods
b. Sale of intoxicants
c. Judicial proceedings
d. Cultivation of crops
74. Under Section 62(2)(g), the State Government may regulate:
a. Appointment of judges
b. Amount, time, place and manner of payment of duty, fee, tax or penalty
c. Parliamentary sessions
d. Municipal elections
75. Which of the following is specifically included under Section 62(2)(g)?
a. Court procedure
b. Customs tariff only
c. Manner of payment of duty or fee
d. Constitutional remedies
76. Section 62(2)(h) relates to rules regarding:
a. Criminal appeals
b. Licences, permits and passes
c. Panchayat elections
d. Judicial review
77. Under Section 62(2)(h), rules may prescribe:
a. Authority by which licence, permit or pass shall be granted
b. Salary of Excise Officers
c. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
d. Procedure for constitutional amendment
78. Rules under Section 62(2)(h) may prescribe:
a. Form and conditions of licences, permits and passes
b. Procedure for impeachment
c. Police uniforms
d. Land acquisition procedure
79. Under Section 62(2)(h)(i), rules may fix:
a. Territorial jurisdiction of courts
b. Period for which licence, permit or pass shall continue in force
c. Retirement age of officers
d. Duration of legislative assembly
80. Section 62(2)(h)(ii) authorizes rules regarding:
a. Criminal punishment only
b. Scale or manner of fixing fees payable for licence, permit or pass
c. Civil court jurisdiction
d. Election expenditure
81. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iii), rules may prescribe:
a. Bail amount only
b. Amount of security to be deposited by licence holders
c. Fine under IPC
d. Compensation under tort law
82. The security deposit under Section 62(2)(h)(iii) is intended for:
a. Election purposes
b. Performance of conditions of licence, permit or pass
c. Constitutional litigation
d. Judicial appointments
83. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iv), rules may prescribe:
a. Accounts to be maintained and returns to be submitted by licence holders
b. Criminal appeals procedure
c. Municipal taxation
d. Recruitment rules for judiciary
84. The returns referred to in Section 62(2)(h)(iv) are to be submitted by:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Licence holders
c. High Court
d. Parliament
85. Section 62(2)(h)(v) empowers the State Government to:
a. Abolish licences completely
b. Prohibit or regulate partnership in licences
c. Transfer judicial powers
d. Suspend constitutional rights
86. Under Section 62(2)(h)(v), rules may regulate:
a. Transfer of licences
b. Criminal investigations
c. Election petitions
d. Civil decrees
87. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 62(2)(h)?
a. Security deposit
b. Accounts and returns
c. Partnership in licences
d. Appointment of Magistrates
88. The powers under Section 62(2)(f) to (h) are examples of:
a. Judicial powers
b. Delegated legislation
c. Constitutional amendments
d. Emergency powers
89. Section 62 enables the State Government to make detailed rules for:
a. Effective administration of excise regulation
b. Abolishing excise duties
c. Criminal law codification
d. Amendment of Constitution
90. Which of the following subjects is covered under Section 62(2)(h)?
a. Period of validity of licence
b. Conduct of elections
c. Criminal revision before High Court
d. Appointment of Governor
91. Section 62(2)(i) of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act relates to:
a. Criminal appeals
b. Local public opinion regarding intoxicant shops
c. Appointment of Excise Officers
d. Bail procedure
92. Under Section 62(2)(i), rules may prescribe measures for:
a. Recovery of excise duty
b. Ascertaining local public opinion
c. Conducting elections
d. Arrest without warrant
93. The local public opinion referred to in Section 62(2)(i) concerns:
a. Forest produce
b. Criminal trials
c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops
d. Panchayat taxation
94. The District Planning Committee referred to in Section 62(2)(i) is constituted under:
a. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993
b. Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam, 1995
c. CrPC, 1973
d. Indian Evidence Act
95. The Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam mentioned in Section 62(2)(i) is:
a. Act No. 1 of 1994
b. Act No. 19 of 1995
c. Act No. 2 of 1974
d. Act No. 5 of 1961
96. Under Section 62(2)(i), the District Planning Committee advises regarding:
a. Appointment of judges
b. Excise prosecution
c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops
d. Confiscation proceedings
97. Section 62(2)(j) empowers the State Government to make rules regarding:
a. Destruction or disposal of intoxicants unfit for use
b. Criminal sentencing
c. Judicial review
d. Police recruitment
98. Intoxicants deemed unfit for use under Section 62(2)(j) may be:
a. Distributed freely
b. Destroyed or otherwise disposed of
c. Exported compulsorily
d. Converted into denatured spirit only
99. Section 62(2)(k) relates to:
a. Bail of offenders
b. Disposal of confiscated articles
c. Search warrants
d. Constitution of Gram Sabha
100. The articles referred to in Section 62(2)(k) are:
a. Agricultural produce
b. Confiscated articles
c. Court records
d. Election documents
101. Under Section 62(2)(l), rules may regulate grant of expenses to:
a. Police officers only
b. Witnesses
c. Judges
d. Excise contractors only
102. Section 62(2)(l) also provides for compensation to persons:
a. Convicted under the Act
b. Charged with offences and subsequently released, discharged or acquitted
c. Detained preventively only
d. Holding excise licences
103. Compensation under Section 62(2)(l) may be granted when the accused is:
a. Convicted
b. Released, discharged or acquitted
c. Sentenced to imprisonment
d. Declared absconder
104. Section 62(2)(m) empowers rules regulating:
a. Excise taxation
b. Power of Excise Officers to summon witnesses from a distance
c. Judicial transfer
d. Licensing appeals
105. The power to summon witnesses under Section 62(2)(m) belongs to:
a. Gram Sabha
b. Excise Officers
c. High Court exclusively
d. District Panchayat
106. Section 63 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:
a. Recovery of dues
b. Publication of rules and notifications
c. Bail provisions
d. Confiscation proceedings
107. Under Section 63, all rules made under the Act shall be published in:
a. Local newspaper
b. Official Gazette
c. Police diary
d. Court notice board
108. Notifications issued under the Act take effect:
a. Immediately upon drafting
b. From the date of publication or such other specified date
c. Only after court approval
d. After one year
109. Section 63 applies to:
a. Judicial decrees only
b. Rules and notifications under the Act
c. Private agreements only
d. Excise licences exclusively
110. Publication in the Official Gazette under Section 63 gives:
a. Private effect only
b. Legal enforceability to rules and notifications
c. Temporary operation only
d. Judicial immunity
111. Section 64 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Recovery of Government dues
c. Search warrants
d. Grant of pardon
112. Under Section 64(1)(a), which of the following may be recovered?
a. Civil damages only
b. Excise revenue
c. Election expenses
d. Court fees only
113. Section 64(1)(b) covers losses accruing when:
a. Criminal appeal is dismissed
b. Grant has been taken under management or resold due to default
c. Licence is renewed
d. Bail is cancelled
114. Under Section 64(1)(c), amounts due to Government may arise from:
a. Constitutional litigation
b. Contracts relating to excise revenue
c. Matrimonial disputes
d. Service matters only
115. Section 64(1)(c) specifically overrides:
a. Section 9 CPC
b. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
c. Section 154 CrPC
d. Article 14 of the Constitution
116. The Contract Act referred to in Section 64(1)(c) is:
a. Act No. 2 of 1974
b. Act No. 9 of 1872
c. Act No. 1 of 1994
d. Act No. 19 of 1995
117. Amounts payable on breach of conditions of a bond under Section 64(1)(c):
a. Cannot be recovered
b. May be recovered as Government dues
c. Require civil suit only
d. Are automatically waived
118. Recovery under Section 64(1) may be made from:
a. Person primarily liable or his surety
b. High Court only
c. Gram Sabha only
d. Witnesses to contract
119. One mode of recovery under Section 64(1) is:
a. Constitutional amendment
b. Distress and sale of movable property
c. Impeachment proceedings
d. Habeas corpus petition
120. Section 64(1) also permits recovery through:
a. Process for recovery of land revenue
b. Criminal appeal only
c. Writ proceedings exclusively
d. Arbitration only
121. The process for recovery under Section 64 treats Government dues similarly to:
a. Compensation claims
b. Land revenue dues
c. Election liabilities
d. Criminal fines only
122. Under Section 64(2), when a grant is taken under management or resold, the Collector may recover:
a. Judicial costs only
b. Money due to the defaulter by any lessee
c. Pension arrears
d. Tax refunds only
123. Which authority is empowered under Section 64(2)?
a. Sessions Court
b. Collector
c. Gram Sabha
d. Excise Commissioner exclusively
124. Section 64 primarily provides:
a. Criminal procedure
b. Mechanism for realization of Government excise dues
c. Constitutional safeguards
d. Bail conditions
125. Section 65 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:
a. Bail provisions
b. Government lien on property of defaulters
c. Publication of rules
d. Appeals
126. Section 65 becomes applicable in the event of:
a. Acquittal of accused
b. Default by a person licensed or holding a lease under the Act
c. Constitutional amendment
d. Election dispute
127. Under Section 65, the person in default may be:
a. Any citizen only
b. Person licensed or holding a lease under the Act
c. Judicial officer only
d. Gram Sabha member only
128. Which of the following properties may be attached under Section 65?
a. Distillery, brewery or warehouse
b. Shop buildings and fittings
c. Stocks of intoxicants or manufacturing materials
d. All of the above
129. Under Section 65, attachment may be made for satisfaction of:
a. Election expenses
b. Claims for excise revenue or losses incurred by Government
c. Civil court decrees only
d. Compensation under tort law
130. Section 69 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:
a. Recovery of Government dues
b. Repeal of enactments
c. Bail provisions
d. Excise licences
131. Under Section 69, the enactments mentioned in the Schedule are:
a. Amended
b. Repealed
c. Consolidated
d. Suspended temporarily
132. The extent of repeal under Section 69 is specified in:
a. First column of the Schedule
b. Second column of the Schedule
c. Third column of the Schedule
d. Fourth column of the Schedule
133. Section 69 refers specifically to:
a. Rules framed under the Act
b. Enactments mentioned in the Schedule
c. Constitutional provisions only
d. Judicial precedents
134. The repeal under Section 69 operates:
a. Automatically beyond the Schedule
b. Only to the extent specified in the Schedule
c. Only after court approval
d. For one year only
135. Section 69 is an example of:
a. Procedural provision
b. Repealing provision
c. Penal provision
d. Evidentiary provision
136. The Schedule referred to in Section 69 forms:
a. No part of the Act
b. An integral part of the Act
c. A judicial appendix only
d. A temporary notification
137. Section 69 primarily serves the purpose of:
a. Imposing penalties
b. Removing earlier inconsistent enactments
c. Granting bail
d. Regulating appeals
138. Repeal of enactments under Section 69 indicates:
a. Continuation of old law unchanged
b. Abrogation of earlier specified laws
c. Delegation to courts
d. Suspension of Constitution
139. The main object of Section 69 is:
a. Grant of exemptions
b. Identification and repeal of prior enactments covered by the new legislation
c. Regulation of intoxicants
d. Recovery of land revenue
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