d. Bringing or attempting to bring the or by signs or by visible representation or electronic communication or by use of financial means excite or attempts to excite, secession or armed rebellion or endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of a nation.

3. Which one of the following conditions if present would constitute the offence of sec 152?

a. A film depicting corruption among politicians with a view to bringing into hatred and contempt and exciting dissatisfaction towards politicians

b. An article in the most vociferous language expressing disapprobation of the measures adopted by the Government of India in relation to liberalization of economy and thereby exciting dissatisfaction towards government policy

c. An audio cassette containing a speech expression dissatisfaction towards the government's policy of reservation and exciting caste feelings among different sections of society and thereby bringing the government into disrepute

d. A speech made by dissident member of a national political party with a view to exciting disaffection towards nation’s unity, sovereignty and integrity.

4. The essence of sec 152 is:

a. Intention

b. Benefits or gains of the accused

c. Result

d. Both intention and result

5. Sec 152 is committed by:

a. Exhortation to the people not to pay governmental revenues

b. Exhortation to join a particular party

c. Expressing disapprobation of the administrative action of the government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred

d. Reciting seditious poem in a public meeting

6. Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sec 152?

a. Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the Government with a view obtain a change in policies by lawful means

b. Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings

c. Comments expressing disapproval of the administrate action even though do not excite hatred or disloyalty

d. Exciting disaffection towards the sovereignty, unity and integrity in nation.

7. Which section of BNS define offence against sovereignty, unity and integrity of nation?

a. Section 151

b. Section 152

c. Section 122

d. Section 123

8. Which offence is defined in Section 152 of the BNS?

a. Waging war against the State

b. Conspiracy to wage such war

c. Armed rebellion

d. bringing or attempting to bring the or by signs or by visible representation or electronic communication or by use of financial means excite or attempts to excite, secession or armed rebellion or endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of a nation.

9. Which one of the following is a case decided by Federal Court on Section 152 of BNS?

a. Kedar Nath v. State

b. Niharendu Dutt v. Emperor

c. Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

d. Emperor v. Sadashivanarayan

10. Under which of the following sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 a conspiracy to commit offence u/s 147 is punishable?

a. 60

b. 161(2)

c. 148

d. 147

11. Principle: Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 makes preparation to wage war against the Government punishable.

Factual Situation: X, the chairman of a political party during an election campaign alleged that the ruling party was responsible for inflation, increase in crimes and all other evils that prevailed in the country and hence, exalted his party members to overthrow the present government.

a. X is guilty as he was provoking his party men to overthrow the Government.

b. X is not liable as his act does not amount to preparation for waging war against the Government.

c. X is not liable as what he was saying was true.

d. X is liable as he was making an irresponsible statement.

12. Which Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force?

a. Sections 169 to 177

b. Sections 124 to 129

c. Sections 159 to 168

d. Sections 165 to 171

13. Which of the following is not specified to be the common object of an assembly to make it unlawful, under Section 189(1) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Overawing the Government or its officers

b. Resistance to the legal process

c. Forcible possession or dispossession of property

d. None of the above

14. Which of the following is not an essential element of unlawful assembly?

a. Five or more persons

b. Common object

c. Common intention

d. To resist the execution of any law or of any legal process

15. 'Unlawful Assembly' has been defined in Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 under:

a. Section 189(1)

b. Section 189(3)

c. Section 189(5)

d. Section 189(6)

16. Which one of the following correctly brings out the main distinction between Common Intention and Common Object?

a. Common intention creates specific offence whereas common object does not

b. Common intention as well as common object create specific offences

c. Common object creates specific offence whereas common intention does not

d. Both common objects as well as common intention do not create specific offence

17. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term unlawful assembly?

a. An assembly of five or more persons

b. An assembly of five more persons armed with lethal weapons

c. An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime

d. An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act

18. For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object of the kind specified in:

a. Section 189 of BNS

b. Section 189(1) of BNS

c. Section 189(2) of BNS

d. Section 189(4) of BNS

19. Five persons went to the house of Z armed with clubs to beat Z. Among these, one A was carrying a pistol concealing it underneath his clothes. During beating, A fired a shot resulting in Z's death.

a. Only A will be liable for causing death.

b. All of them will be liable for beating Z.

c. All of them being the members of unlawful assembly will be liable for causing death.

d. None of these

20. Five persons went to A's house armed with bats to beat A. One (X) amongst the five persons was carrying a pistol concealed underneath his shirt. During the incident of beating, X fired a shot resulting in A's death:

a. All being members of unlawful assembly are liable for causing death

b. All will be liable only for beating A

c. Only X will be liable for causing death

d. None of the above

21. Unlawful assembly means

a. An assembly of five or more persons having designed a common object

b. An assembly of five or more persons having common object to commit offence

c. An assembly of three or more persons having common object to commit mischief

d. None of the above

22. Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 any assembly of five or more persons is not an unlawful assembly if there common object is:

a. To compel any person to do what he is legally bound to do

b. To commit mischief

c. To commit criminal trespass

d. To obtain property forcefully

e. None of these

23. Punishment for being a member of unlawful assembly under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, has been provided under

a. Section 189(1)

b. Section 189(2)

c. Section 189(2)

d. Section 191

24. Joining unlawful assembly armed with deadly weapons has been dealt with under of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

a. Section 189(1)

b. Section 189(2)

c. Section 189(3)

d. Section 189(4)

25. In cases of 'rioting', which one of the following is not essential?

a. An unlawful assembly

b. Use of violence by all members indulging in rioting

c. Use of violence by any member among the persons indulging in rioting

d. Use of violence or force in prosecution of the common object

26. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute:

a. Affray

b. Assault

c. Rioting

d. Unlawful assembly

27. Rioting means use of force or violence by an assembly of five or more persons, or by a member thereof, in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, as per:

a. Section 189(1) of BNS

b. Section 189(2) of BNS

c. Section 191 of BNS

d. Section 194 of BNS

28. Which of the following is not essential for the offence of the Riot?

a. Disturbing public peace at a public place

b. Unlawful assembly of five or more persons

c. Unlawful assembly having common object as mentioned in section 189(1) BNS

d. Accused being a member of such unlawful assembly

29. Whenever force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by member of such assembly is guilty of:

a. Affray

b. Rioting

c. Unlawful assembly only

d. No offence

30. For rioting, which of the following is correct:

a. Mere show of force is sufficient

b. Mere possession of deadly weapon is sufficient

c. Actual force or violence must be used

d. All of the above

31. Which ingredient is not essential for rioting?

a. Unlawful assembly of five or more persons

b. Common object of the unlawful assembly as specified under Section 189(1)

c. Accused joined or continued in such unlawful assembly

d. There must be definite disturbance of the public peace on public place

32. Which of the following statement is not a correct one?

a. An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled, may subsequently become an unlawful assembly

b. Kidnapping shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to seven years

c. It is not defamation to make an imputation on the character of another person provided that the imputation be made in good faith

d. A riot involves minimum of five persons

e. None of the above.

33. In BNS, punishment for rioting is provided under

a. Section 189(6)

b. Section 189(5)

c. Section 191

d. Section 190

34. Rioting while armed with deadly weapons is punishable under BNS in:

a. Section 159

b. Section 146

c. Section 190

d. Section 191

35. Imputed Criminal Liability Principle is laid down in which of the following provision/provisions:

a. Section 3(5) of the BNS

b. Sections 3(5) and 190 of the BNS

c. Section 90 of the BNS

d. Section 160 of the BNS

36. For a prosecution under section 190 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 you require a minimum number of:

a. Two or more persons

b. Many persons

c. Five or more persons

d. Any number of persons.

37. "Group liability" means—

a. Where all members of the group are liable for the offences committed by them individually in a group

b. Offence committed by members of a family

c. Offence committed by common friends

d. Where other members of the group are vicariously held liable for the resultant offence committed by them or one of the members of the group on fulfillment of essential conditions of the given group liability

38. For application of Section 190 of BNS:

a. The offender must be a member of unlawful assembly

b. The offence must have been committed in prosecution of the common object

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Either (a) or (b)

39. The ingredients of Section 190 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 are:

1. Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence

2. Common intention

3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 190 of the BNS

4. Active participation in commission of crime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes:

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2 and 4

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

40. Five person attempted to take away the wife of one of them from her brother's home. In scuffle with his brother- in-law, the husband shot him dead. Which one of the following is correct?

a. All are liable for murder because they had common intention

b. All are not liable because they had no common intention

c. All are liable because they had common object

d. All are not liable as they had no common object

41. What is the basic difference between Section 3(5) and Section 190 of BNS?

a. Section 3(5) creates a principle of joint liability and does not create a specific offence. Section 190 creates a specific offence

b. Section 190 does not create a specific offence but Section 3(5) creates a specific offence

c. Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 3(5)

d. Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 190

42. Which of the following distinguishes section 3(5) of BNS from section 190 BNS?

1. Section 190 creates a substantive offence whereas section 3(5) does not create an offence.

2. Section 190 requires common object whereas section 3(5) requires common intention.

3. Section 190 requires five or more persons whereas section 3(5) requires two or more persons.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 2

43. Which one of the following statements regarding Sections 3(5) and 190 of the BNS is correct?

a. Common intention and common object are the same

b. Both are distinct offences in themselves

c. Section 3(5) enunciates a mere principle of liability and creates no offence while Section 190 creates a specific offence

d. Sections 3(5) and 190 are mutually helping Sections

44. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 3(5) of the BNS means:

1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act

2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group

3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences

Item B: Within the meaning of section 190 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly's means:

1. In relation to common intention of the group

2. In order to attain the common object

3. In relation to a common object Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1 and 2 of both items

b. 1 and 3 of both items

c. 2 alone of both items

d. 3 along of both items

45. The ingredients of Section 190 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 are—

1. Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence

2. Common intention

3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 189(1) of the BNS

4. Active participation in commission of crime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2 and 4

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

46. 10 persons were charged for offence under section 103/190 BNS, out of which six persons were acquitted, the remaining four

a. Cannot be convicted for offence under section 103/190 of BNS

b. Cannot be convicted for offence under section 103 of BNS

c. Cannot be convicted for offence under section 190 of BNS

d. All the above

47. Section 190 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is

a. A declaratory provision

b. Creates a distinct offence

c. A rule of evidence

d. All the above

48. 'B' happened to be a member of unlawful assembly. A factional fight ensued during which 'B' was injured and retired to the side. Later on, a man was killed. Now:

a. 'B' is guilty of murder being member of unlawful assembly

b. 'B' is not guilty of murder as he ceased to be a member of unlawful assembly at the time when the murder was committed

c. 'B' is not guilty of murder though he continued to be a member of unlawful assembly

d. None of the above

49. Which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 uses the word 'wantonly’ is:

a. Section 272

b. Section 172

c. Section 192

d. Section 253

50. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion is punished under which Section of the BNS?

a. Section 151

b. Section 192

c. Section 196

d. Section 197

51. Under which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony has been dealt with?

a. Section 191

b. Section 196

c. Section 153

d. Section 197

52. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national integration have been, provided under which of the following, Section of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Section 195

b. Section 196

c. Section 197

d. None of the above

53. Which one of the following Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with vicarious liability?

a. Section 190

b. Section 192

c. Section 193(1)

d. Section 194(1)

54. Which one of the following sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is an extension of the principle of 'respondent superior' to criminal law?

a. Section 156

b. Section 194(1)

c. Section 167

d. Section 193(1)

55. Minimum of five persons are not required to:

a. Constitute an unlawful assembly

b. Commit dacoity

c. Commit affray

d. None of the above is correct

56. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Rioting and affray have been defined in sections 191 and 194(1) of BNS respectively

b. Rioting must be committed in public place, affray may be committed in any place

c. Rioting is punishable with imprisonment extending to two years, affray is punishable with imprisonment extending to one month

d. Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and affray is committed by 2 or more persons

57. To Constitute the crime of 'affray', what is necessary among the following?

a. Fighting at least five persons

b. Fighting in public place

c. Fighting in a market

d. Use of weapons

58. Which one of the following offences cannot be committed at a private place?

a. Murder

b. Riot

c. Assault

d. Affray

59. Minimum number of persons required for affray under Section 194(1) of BNS is:

a. Five

b. Two

c. Four

d. Seven

60. Two brothers were abusing each other a public road without actual fight. A large crowd gathered and there was a traffic jam. The two brothers are guilty of:

1. Affray

2. Riot

3. Mischief

4. None of the above

Find out the correct answer by using the code given below:

Code:

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1

d. 4

61. Six persons assembled on the platform of Mumbai Railway Station and started fighting with each other. The passengers present at the Railway Station got annoyed and felt disturbed. The public reported the matter to the police. These six persons are guilty of:

a. Unlawful assembly

b. Rioting

c. Affray

d. Assault

62. 'A' and 'B' beat each other up and exchange blows in a cinema hall in the middle of a movie. They are guilty of:

a. Riot

b. Assault

c. Affray

d. Use of Criminal Force

63. Maximum sentence of imprisonment that can be awarded for the offence of affray:

a. Three months

b. Two months

c. One month

d. Six months

64. Fight under Section 194(1) of BNS signifies:

a. Two opposite parties actively involved

b. Two parties one of which is passive

c. Two parties both of which are passive

d. None of the above

65. Which One of the following cases is not related to principle of joint liability based on common intention?

a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor

b. Mahboob Shah v. Emperor

c. J.M. Desai v. State of Bombay

d. Reg v. Govinda

66. A principle relating to 'joint liability'- 'That also serve who only stand and wait', was laid down in case of:

a. Mahbood Shah v. Emperor

b. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor

c. Manindra Chandra Ghosh v. K.E.

d. Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab

67. 'A' being an officer directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in Z's favour by a Court of Justice, knowingly disobeys that direction of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to 'Z'. 'A' has committed the offence defined in:

a. Section 190 of BNS

b. Section 198 of BNS

c. Section 194 of BNS

d. Section 195 of BNS

68. Failure to record FIR in case of offences affecting the modesty and dignity of woman are punishable under

a. Section 73 of the BNS

b. Section 73 of the BNS

c. Section 199 of the BNS

d. Section 198 of the BNS

69. Personating a public servant is an offence in Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, under

a. Section 201

b. Section 202

c. Section 203

d. Section 204

70. "Bribery" is defined in:

a. Section 169 of BNS

b. Section 170 of BNS

c. Section 170(2) of BNS

d. Section 170(5) of BNS

71. A, being legally bound to appear before a District Judge, as a witness, in obedience to a summons issued by that District Judge intentionally omits to appear. A has committed the offence defined in which Section in Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Section 201

b. Section 207

c. Section 208

d. Section 210

72. Penalty for non-appearance in a case where a declaration has been made under Section 84(4) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, pronouncing a person as a proclaimed offender is provided under

a. Section 208 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Section 209 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Section 201 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Section 170 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

73. 'A' refuse to answer a question which is relevant to the subject concerning which the public servant is authorized to inquire. ‘A’ is liable to be punished:

a. Under Section 214 of BNS

b. Under Section 215 of BNS

c. Under Section 216 of BNS

d. Under Section 187 of BNS

74. In which case, the Supreme Court held that non-compliance with the directions of the court given in any matter beyond its jurisdiction does not amount to contempt of court?

a. People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003)

b. Bharat Kumar v. State of Kerala (1997)

c. Asif Hameed v. State of J&K (1989)

d. Union of India v. Prakash P. Hinduja

75. Chapter XIII of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with

a. Offences Against Public Tranquility

b. Offences Relating to Elections

c. Offences Relating to the Contempt of the lawful authority of Public Servants

d. Offences Relating to Public Servants.

76. Consider the following statements:

1. Having been bound by law to state the truth, a person makes a false statement in a proceeding before a public servant.

2. Having been legally bound by an oath to state the truth a person makes a false statement before a court of justice.

Which of the above will amount to giving false evidence?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

77. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

For giving false evidence, a person must

a. Be legally bound to state the truth

b. Make a false statement

c. Know that the statement is likely to cause injury to some person

d. Believe that the statement is false

78. A person is said to give 'false evidence', if he:

a. Being legally bound by an oath, or by an express provision of law to state the truth.

b. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject makes any statement which is false.

c. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject which he either knows or believes to be false, or does not believe to be true.

d. All of the above.

79. Section 228 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with:

a. Giving False Evidence

b. Fabricating false Evidence

c. Threatening any person to give false evidence

d. Punishment for False Evidence.

80. 'A' puts jewels into a box belonging to 'B', with the intention that this circumstance may cause 'B' to be convicted of the offence of theft. Here, 'A' is liable to be punished for:

a. Giving false evidence only

b. Giving or fabricating false evidence

c. Fabricating false evidence with intent to cause conviction with imprisonment

d. Fabricating false evidence only

81. ‘A' makes a false entry in his electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in the trial court. 'A' has:

a. Fabricated false evidence

b. Not fabricated false evidence

c. Committed forgery

d. None of the above

82. A, puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of theft. A has committed an offence of:

a. Cheating

b. False representation

c. Theft

d. Fabricating false evidence

83. Punishment for giving false evidence in court is provided under:

a. Section 219 BNS

b. Section 229 BNS

c. Section 234 BNS

d. Section 240 BNS

84. How much punishment may be given to a person accused of giving false evidence in a judicial proceeding?

a. Seven years of imprisonment

b. Seven years of imprisonment and fine

c. Seven years of imprisonment or fine

d. Five years of imprisonment and fine

85. Section 232, BNS is related to:

a. Protection of witness

b. Protection for victim

c. Threat to give false evidence

d. None of these

86. Consider the following statements:

1. A person intentionally omitted to give information which he is legally bound to give.

2. A person gives information relating to a crime which he knows to be false.

3. A person causes disappearance of evidence in order to save the accused from the accusation of crime.

Which of the above amount/amounts to an offence for screening the offender from criminal liability punishable under Section 238 BNS?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

87. A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to hide the body with the intention of screening B from punishment. A is liable to:

a. Imprisonment of either description for seven years and to fine also

b. Imprisonment for life

c. Death sentence

d. Fine only

88. Offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent its production as evidence is punishable under BNS in:

a. Section 230

b. Section 239

c. Section 240

d. Section 241

89. Harboring or concealing an offender with intention of screening him from legal punishment is an offence under Section of the BNS.

a. 249

b. 250

c. 251

d. 255

90. The term "Harbour" defined under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, does not include

a. Supplying a person with shelter

b. Supplying a person means of conveyance

c. Assisting a person to evade apprehension

d. Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission thereof

91. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under which section of BNS?

a. Section 65

b. Section 72

c. Section 101

d. Section 245

92. A obtains a decree against B for a sum not due. It may be an offence under BNS if 'A' has done so

a. Negligently

b. Fraudulently

c. In good faith

d. None of the above

93. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

a. Section 198

b. Section 145

c. Section 72

d. Section 74

94. 'A' knowing that her husband 'B' has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to screen him from legal punishment, "A" is liable for:

a. Murder by reason of having common intention

b. Harboring

c. Abetment by aid

d. "A" has committed no offence

95. Which of the following is not correctly matched under BNS?

a. Furnishing false information — Section 212

b. Giving false evidence—Section 227

c. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence—Section 242

d. Counterfeiting coin: —Section 178

96. According to Section 178 of BNS "Indian Coin" includes:

a. Coins

b. Govt. stamps

c. Currency notes

d. All these

97. Whoever imports into India, or exports therefrom, any counterfeit coin which he knows to be a counterfeit of Indian coin, is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

b. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years

c. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine

d. Fine only

98. Chapter X of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals: —

a. With false evidence and offences against public justice

b. With offences relating to elections

c. With offences relating to coin and government stamps

d. With offences relating to weight and measures

99. Principle: Whoever tenders to any other person counterfeit coins or currency which he knows to be counterfeit, commits an offence.

Factual Situation: A was an employee in a private company. One day while depositing some money at the bank, handed over to him by the company's cashier, the bank's cashier identified a 100 rupee note as counterfeit and returned it to A. Then A went to a hotel, ordered lunch and handed over the counterfeit 100 rupee note at the hotel so as to get rid of it. The hotel manager identified the note as counterfeit and informed the police.

a. A is not liable as he did; not do anything to procure the counterfeit note. .

b. A is not liable as he was only trying to get rid of a fake currency note.

c. A is not liable as there was no criminal intention to cheat'any one.

d. A is guilty as he tried to pass on a counterfeit note knowing; it to be fake.

100. Public nuisance:

a. Materially affects the reasonable comfort and convenience of life of a class of subjects who come with in the sphere or neighborhood of its operation

b. Affects life of a class of subjects who come within the sphere or neighborhood of its operation

c. Affects a person who come within the neighborhood of its operation

d. Is described as unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it

101. Which of the following is not an offence against the State, under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Reading obscene books

b. aging war against the Government ... of India

c. Act endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of a nation

d. Assaulting Governor of a State with ' intent to compel to exercise of any lawful power

102. Adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is punishable under

a. Section 223

b. Section 274

c. Section 276

d. Section 277

103. Which Provision of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, makes water pollution punishable

a. Section 279

b. Section 278

c. Section 281

d. Section 280

104. A hotel situated at the bank of a water reservoir, despite objection, discharges its polluted water in the reservoir, causing fouls to reservoir water. For which offence under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Manager of the Hotel can be charged?

a. Section 279

b. Section 276

c. Section 278

d. Section 282

105. A drove the car rashly or negligently on the public way and damaged the property of B. Thereby he committed offence under what section/sections?

a. 281

b. 281 and 425

c. 425

d. 281 and 337

106. What ingredient is not necessary for the offence punishable under Section 281 BNS (Rash driving on public way):

a. Driving of Vehicle

b. On a public way

c. Such driving must be so rash or negligent as to endanger human life

d. Persons were on road

107. Under which one of the following Sections of BNS rash and negligent driving of vehicle on a public way is an offence?

a. Section 278

b. Section 281

c. Section 273

d. Section 280

108. If your pet dog bites someone so as to cause grievous hurt to such person, you would be held liable under:

a. Section 337 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Section 291 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Civil law only as dog bite is a petty offence for which only monetary compensation is to be paid

d. Section 319 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

109. The punishment for general form of Public Nuisance is provided in

a. Section 268 of BNS

b. Section 269 of BNS

c. Section 292 of BNS

d. Section 291 of BNS

110. A magazine published a semi-nude photograph of a woman, in a campaign against breast cancer. The tag-line of the photograph was to encourage women to get regular medical tests done to ensure early detection of the disease. A respected lawyer in Delhi felt that the photograph was obscene and would result in young minds being corrupted. Hence, he filed a complaint against the editor of the magazine invoking Section 294 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. In light of recent Supreme Court jurisprudence on Section 294, which of the following is not a standard that should be used to judge whether the photograph is absence?

a. If the picture has the effect of depraving or debauching the minds of the persons who may see the picture, it would be obscene.

b. In judging whether a picture is obscene, contemporary mores and national standards should be considered, and not the standards of a group of susceptible and sensitive people.

c. The picture has to be viewed in the background in which it is shown and the message that it seeks to convey to the public and the world at large.

d. None of the above.

111. Section 294, BNS makes the selling, hiring, distributing, publically- exhibiting, importing exporting etc., of obscene books an offence. A was prosecuted for selling a book by the name of 'Lady Chatterley's Lover', written by D.H. Lawrence which was found to be an obscene book. The accused pleaded that he did not know the contents of the book. The accused is guilty of

a. No offence, as mistake of fact is a valid defence

b. Selling an obscene book because he was negligent in not reading the contents of the book

c. Selling an obscene book because he knew the contents impliedly

d. Selling an obscene book because under section 294 liability is independent of mens rea.

112. Section 294, BNS makes the selling, hiring distributing, publicly exhibiting, importing etc. Of obscene books, pamphlets, writing, drawing etc. an offence. Which one of the following is correct?

Mens rea is:

a. Required only for selling and hiring books

b. Required only for exhibiting

c. Required only for importing and exporting

d. Not required at all for offences under Section 294

113. To which one of the following section of BNS Hicklin rule is related to?

a. Section 294

b. Section 291

c. Section 290

d. Section 295

114. The sale of obscene objects to young persons below ____________is an offence under BNS:

a. 10 years

b. 15 years

c. 18 years

d. 20 years

115. Uttering obscene words near a public place

a. Is not an offence

b. Is an offence under Section 296 BNS

c. Is an offence under Section 290 BNS

d. Is an offence under Section 292(2)(b) BNS

116. If a person, with a knowledge that the feelings of group of people is likely to be wounded, trespasses a place set, apart for the performance of funeral rights, he commits a crime described under Section:

a. Section 298, BNS

b. Section 301, BNS

c. Section 295, BNS

d. Section 296, BNS

117. Which of the following is correct: —

a. Offence is necessarily an immoral act

b. Offence is an illegal act

c. Offence is necessarily an act against society.

d. Offence is necessarily an act against religion.

118. X knows Z to be behind a bush. Y does not know about it. X, intending to cause or knowing it to be likely to cause Z's death, induces Y to fire at the bush. Y fires and Kills Z. What is the guilt of X and Y?

a. Both X and Y are guilty of having committed culpable of homicide

b. Both X and Y are guilty of having committed murder

c. X is guilty of having committed culpable homicide but Y is not guilty of having committed any offence, whatsoever

d. X is guilty of having committed murder, but Y is not guilty of having committed any offence.

119. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is laboring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of that other, shall be deemed to have caused his death, by virtue of:

a. Explanation I to Section 100

b. Explanation I to Section 101

c. Explanation II to Section 100

d. Explanation III to Section 100

120. ‘A' a 75-year-old terminally ill patient, pleads with his wife to give him poison so as to put an end to his painful sufferings. The wife does as she is asked to do by her husband. The wife is liable for:

a. Murder

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c. Abetment of suicide

d. No offence

121. Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, commits the offence of culpable homicide. However, a person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death.

Factual Situation: Saurab, had a serious argument with his wife. The woman uttered some filthy words at Saurab, which further irritated him. He moved towards the woman with a wooden piece to beat her. Suddenly, their daughter who was sleeping in the room woke up and ran towards her mother. Saurab's blow fell on the child's head and she fell down unconscious. The couple believed that their daughter died due to the blow. Saurab immediately took out a rope and hung her by the neck on to the ceiling fan to give the impression that the girl committed suicide as she failed in the Class X examination. When the rope got tightened the child cried, but died immediately due to asphyxiation.

a. Saurab is guilty of murder of his daughter as he hung her by the neck which resulted in her death.

b. Saurab and his wife are both guilty of the murder of their daughter.

c. Saurab is guilty of culpable homicide as he thought that his daughter had already died and he believed that he was only hanging a dead body.

d. Saurab is guilty of grievous hurt as the lathi blow was the basic reason of the child's death.

122. The accused, a shopkeeper, in sudden quarrel hit his wife on head with an iron weight of 200 gm which resulted in her death. The accused is liable for which one of the following?

a. Grievous hurt

b. Attempt to murder

c. Simple hurt

d. Culpable homicide

123. The mens rea required under Section 100 of the BNS is:—

a. Intention or knowledge

b. Intention or negligence

c. Intention or recklessness

d. Negligence or malice

124. The distinction between Section 100 and Section 101 of BNS, was first elaborately discussed in the following case:—

a. Vasudev v. Uttar Pradesh

b. Dau Dayal v. State

c. Om Prakash v. State of Punjab,

d. R. v. Govinda

125. 'A' with intention to facilitate robbery put a residential house to fire- in the night & causes death of a person due to this fire. 'A' has committed the offence of:—

a. Only for putting fiber in a house

b. Culpable homicide

c. Intentionally causing death

d. Causing death by accident

126. The distinction between culpable homicide and murder as defined in BNS was pointed out in the decision of

a. R v. Beard

b. R v. Tolson

c. R v. Govinda

d. R v. Prince

127. Acts which come in the category of 'culpable homicide not amounting to murder' are mentioned in which section of BNS?

a. Section 101

b. Section 100

c. Section 100 and 101

d. Section 102

128. A dig a pit and leaves four deadly and poisonous snakes into it with the intention of causing death to others. B falls in the pit and is bitten by a snake and dies. A is guilty, if any, of:

a. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 100

b. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 118

c. Murder under Section 101

d. No offence as B fell in the pit by accident. Hence, A will get the benefit of Section 18 of the BNS

129. W, who had her small baby tied on her back, was proceeding towards her parental place who lived nearby. Since, her husband H, did not like her visits to her parental place prevented her from proceeding further and directed her to return her home and threatened her with dire consequences if she ventured to do so again. She felt very depressed and decided to jump into a well nearby. Unmindful of the presence of her child on her back, she jumped into the well. She survived but the child died. W is guilty of

a. Murder

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as she cannot be attributed with intention to cause death or intention to cause bodily injury

c. Causing death by rash or negligent act

d. No offence as it is a case of accident or misfortune

130. X inflicted as many as 19 injuries on the arms and legs of Y with a gandasa, resulting in multiple fractures on arms and legs and also profuse bleedings. The injuries cumulatively caused the death of Y. X is tried for the offence of murder under section 103 of the BNS. Determine the criminal liability of X from the alternatives given below:

a. Since X inflicted injuries only on non-vital parts of the body, hence he could not be attributed with intention to kill and therefore, cannot be held guilty of the offence of murder but only of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

b. Even though the accused did not have the intention to cause death but, nonetheless, he had intention to cause the injuries on the body of Y and the injuries so caused were thereby cumulatively sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and so his case falls under Section 101

c. Since injuries were only on non-vital parts of the body, and there was no intention to cause death, the accused is liable only to be punished for the offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon

d. The liability of X can at best be causing death by rash act not amounting to culpable homicide

131. A is dead drunk and yet decides to go for a joy ride along with his friends. He drives his newly imported car with high speed and is not able to control his vehicle when he passes through a busy shopping market causing instant death of three pedestrians. He is found to be highly intoxicated state at the time of the accident and the speed of car is found to be above 70 kms. For which one of the following offences can he be prosecuted?

a. Homicide caused by rash and negligent act

b. Murder

c. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

d. Causing grievous hurt by an act endangering life

132. 'X', a person above the age of 18 years, asks 'Y' to shoot him to death as 'X' is suffering from incurable disease. 'Y' is the domestic servant of 'X'. As a loyal servant, 'Y' shoots 'X' to death. In the context of the above, which one of the following statements is correct?

a. 'Y' has committed no offence

b. 'Y' can take up the defence of good faith

c. 'Y' can take up the defence of consent

d. 'Y's act is culpable homicide not amounting to murder

133. Causing death of a child in mother's womb:

a. Is always homicide

b. With intent to cause miscarriage is homicide.

c. Is culpable homicide

d. Is culpable homicide if any part of such child has been brought forth, though the child may not have breathed or been completely born

134. 'X' while in the state of voluntary intoxication kills 'Z'. Prosecution fails to establish that 'X' could form an intention of a sober man, 'X' is guilty of:

a. Murder

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c. Death by rash or negligent act

d. No offence

135. 'X' with the intention of causing 'Z's death gave him a severe blow on his head. 'Z' became unconscious. 'X' believing 'Z' to be dead and with a view to fabricate the evidence throws him (Z) into a pond. It was found that 'Z' died because of drowning. 'X' is guilty of—

a. Attempt to commit murder

b. Committing murder

c. Committing culpable homicide not amounting to murder

d. No offence.

136. A lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention of causing death or with the knowledge that death is likely to be thereby caused. Z believing the ground to be firm treads on it, falls and is killed. A is guilty of

a. Murder

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

c. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt

d. No offence as Z fell in the pit by accident

137. BNS—In which of the following leading cases. Justice Vivian Bose distinguished culpable homicide and murder?

a. Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1958 SC 465

b. Shivaji Sahabrao Bobade v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1973 SC 2622

c. Rudul Shah v. State of Bihar, AIR 1983 SC 1086

d. None of the above

138. Which of the following provisions of the BNS defines culpable homicide?

a. Section 102

b. Section 104

c. Section 101

d. Section 100

139. A priest, beats a boy for curing him from evil spirit. The boy dies is—

a. Not liable for any offence

b. Liable for culpable homicide

c. Entitled to the defence of good faith

d. Liable for attempt to murder

140. A instigates B to instigate C to murder Z. B accordingly instigates C to murder Z and C commits that offence in consequence of B's instigation. A is liable:

a. For no offence

b. For abetment and punishment under Section 100 of BNS

c. To be punished with the punishment for murder

d. Under Section 125 of BNS

141. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following Sections of BNS?

a. Section 356

b. Sections 100 and 101

c. Section 106 and 80

d. Sections 107 and 108

142. 'A' fires a bullet into a bush, where unknown to him ‘Y is doing some work and bullet kills 'Y 'A' is not guilty of murder of 'Y because 'A' had not fired intentionally at ‘Y.

a. True

b. Partly true

c. False

d. None of the above

143. A was attempting to kill a deer in a sanctuary. While doing so, the gunshot hit a man who died instantly. A is guilty of

a. Culpable Homicide

b. Murder

c. Grievous hurt

d. None of the above

144. Culpable homicide is causing death:

a. With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death

b. With the knowledge that by such act death is likely to be caused

c. With the intention of causing death

d. All of the above

145. Culpable homicide means

a. Attempt to cause death

b. Causing death intentionally

c. Causing grievous injury

d. Causing injury which is likely to cause death

146. Under which one of the following provisions of the BNS, causing death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide?

a. Explanation I of Section 100

b. Explanation II of Section 100

c. Explanation 111 of Section 100

d. Explanation IV of Section 101

147. Causing of the death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide as provided under

a. Explanation V to Section 100

b. Explanation I to Section 100

c. Explanation II to Section 100

d. Explanation III to Section 100

148. 'A' strikes 'B'. 'B' is by this provocation excited to violent rage. 'C', a bystander intending to take advantage of 'B's rage, and to cause him to kill 'A', puts a knife into 'B's hand for that purpose. 'B' kills 'A' with the knife. Here

a. 'B' has committed culpable homicide but 'C is guilty of murder

b. 'B' is guilty of murder but 'C has committed only culpable homicide

c. Both 'C' and 'B' are guilty of murder

d. Both 'C' and 'B' are guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

149. 'A', under the influence of passion excited by a provocation given by 'Z', intentionally kills ’Y', who is child of 'Z'. The offence committed by 'A' is:

a. Infanticide

b. Manslaughter

c. Murder

d. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

150. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 101 Exception (1) of the BNS is a

a. Question of law

b. Question of fact

c. Mixed question of law and fact

d. Presumption under law

151. The distinction between Sections 100 and 101 BNS was made clear by

a. Marshall, J in P v. Govinda

b. Melvill, J in Govinda v. R

c. Melvill, J in R v. Govinda

d. Marshall, J in Govinda v. R

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