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There are 9 sets of MCQs available for BNS, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. To which of the following is Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, not applicable?
a. A foreigner committing offence in India
b. Offence committed on Indian Aircraft flying over territory of Japan
c. A foreigner committing offence in territorial water of India
d. None of the above
2. Which of the following statements about Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applies to every person in any part of India for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Sanhita
b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India within and beyond India
c. Every such act committed outside India which if committed in India, would be punishable under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. All of the above
3. Which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, confers extra territorial operation
a. Sections 1(4) and (5)
b. Section 14
c. Section 11
d. Sections 3 & 4
4. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian Police Station Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder?
a. No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
b. Yes
c. He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
d. None of the above
5. 'A', a Spanish citizen, who was residing in Paris, instigated the commission of an offence which in consequence was committed in India. He-
a. Is liable as the offence was committed in India
b. Is liable since the BNS also extends to extra-territorial acts
c. Can be held liable because the offence was to be committed in India
d. Cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory
6. Admiralty jurisdiction does not extend over
a. Offences committed on Indian ships on the High seas
b. Offences committed on foreign merchant ships in Indian territorial water
c. Offences committed on foreign warships in Indian territorial water
d. Piracy
7. ‘A’ who is a citizen of India, commits a murder in England. He is found in Indore and arrested accordingly. Where can 'A' be tried?
a. At New Delhi, the capital of India
b. At Bhopal, the capital of M.P.
c. At Indore, where he was found
d. At any place in India
8. Under which of the following situations would the Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
1. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country
2. Crime committed by a foreigner in India
3. Crime committed by a person on a Indian ship
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 alone
d. 1, 2 and 3
9. 'A' a foreigner stabbed ‘B' another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the high seas. Both 'A' and ‘B' were brought to Bombay for treatment where 'B' died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay. Which one of die following propositions is correct in respect of applicability of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 to the trial of ‘A’?
a. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the occurrence of offence has taken place on the high seas, BNS is not applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot, he prosecuted in India
b. BNS is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence 'A' cannot be tried in India
c. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused 'A' is available in India. BNS is applicable and he should be tried at Bombay
d. As BNS is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners 'A' must be tried in India
10. 'A' who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He can be tried and convicted of murder—
a. Only in Uganda
b. Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen
c. In any one of the above
d. In Delhi
11. A citizen of India committing an offence outside India may be tried under BNS, 2023 (True or false)
a. True
b. False
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
12. Who are not exempted from intra-territorial Jurisdiction of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. The President of India and the Governor of States
b. Public
c. Foreign Sovereigns and Ambassadors
d. Alien Enemies
13. Who amongst the following is exempted from the application of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. President of India
b. Diplomats
c. Alien enemy
d. All of the above
14. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, came into enforcement on:
a. December 25, 2024
b. July 1, 2025
c. July 1, 2024
d. December 25, 2025
15. In BNS the pronoun 'he' and its derivatives are used for
a. Male
b. Female
c. Any person whether male or female
d. Such words are not used in the Sanhita
16. In BNS the word 'Woman' denotes to:
a. A female above the age of fifteen years
b. A female above the age of eighteen years
c. A female above the age of twenty one years
d. A female of any age including newly born female child
17. Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a person is defined as—
a. Including any company or body of persons whether incorporated or not
b. Meaning only individual human beings
c. Meaning only as men
d. None of the above
18. Homicide cannot be defined as killing of a person by a person in view of the nature of the definition of the word 'person' in
a. Section 2(29) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b. Section 2(26) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Section 2(25) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. Section 2(23) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
19. Who, according to Section 2(28) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is not a public servant:
a. A commissioned officer in Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force
b. An arbitrator to whom any cause has been referred for adjudication by the court of justice.
c. An officer, who, by virtue of his office, is empowered to place or keep any person in confinement.
d. An advocate, who practices law in a court of justice.
20. Who among the following is not a public servant?
a. Chief Minister of a State
b. Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
c. Surveyor of an Insurance Company
d. Employee of a 'Nationalized Bank'
21. It was held that a Chief Minister or a Minister is in the pay, of the Government and, therefore, public servant within the meaning of Section 2(28) of BNS in the case
a. Karumnidhi v. Union of India
b. Keshvanand v. State of Kerala
c. Kalyan Singh v. Union of India
d. Jayalalitha v. State of Tamil Nadu
22. Which of the following is not a "public servant" within the meaning of Section 2(28) of BNS:
a. Municipal Commissioner
b. Member of Parliament
c. MLA
d. Examiner of University
23. One of the following is not a public Servant:
a. Liquidator
b. A Civil Judge
c. Member of a Panchayat assisting a court of justice
d. Secretary of a Co-operative society
24. Who among the following is not a 'Public Servant within the meaning of Section 2(28) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Municipal Commissioner
b. Municipal Councilor
c. Manager of Nationalized Bank
d. Commissioned Officer in Military
25. 'Movable property' under BNS is defined in:
a. Section 2(20)
b. Section 2(21)
c. Section 2(23)
d. Section 2(24)
26. The definition of movable property under section 2(21) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, excludes………….
a. Land
b. Things attached to the earth
c. Things permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth
d. All of the above
27. Definition of 'wrongful gain' is as follows:
a. Gain by unlawful means of property to which person is not legally entitled
b. Gaining wrongfully and' losing wrongfully
c. Gaining dishonestly
d. Loss by unlawful means of property to which person is entitled
28. Which one of the following Sections of BNS defines 'Gaining Wrongfully and Losing Wrongfully'?
a. Section 2(37)
b. Section 2(38)
c. Section 2(39)
d. Section 2(31)
29. When a person gains something by unlawful means to which he is not legally entitled it is
a. Cheating
b. Wrongful gain
c. Fraud
d. Causing injury which is likely to cause death
30. A person acts dishonestly when he does anything:
a. With mens rea
b. With wrong motive
c. With intention to cause wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another
d. With intent to defraud
31. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been done with intention to
1. Cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to another person.
2. Cause injury to any person
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Neither 1 & 2
32. The term 'Dishonestly' as defined under Section 2(7) of the BNS implies
a. An act done with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another
b. Act done with intent to defraud
c. An act done mala fide
d. An act done with intent to cheat
33. Word 'Dishonestly' as defined in Section 2(7) of BNS means:
a. With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person
b. With the intention of causing wrongful loss to another person
c. With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person and with the intention of causing wrongful loss to another person
d. All of the above are true
34. Which one of the following does not amount to 'fraud'?
a. Active concealment of fact
b. A promise made without intention to perform it
c. Suggestion as to a fact which is not true by one who believes it to be true
d. A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
35. "Fraudulently" has been defined as "intent to defraud but not otherwise" in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in Section
a. 2(6)
b. 2(7)
c. 2(8)
d. 2(9)
36. A person does not have 'reason to believe' a thing if he does not have & any
a. Information
b. Sufficient cause to believe
c. Knowledge
d. Reasons
37. The term Dishonestly under BNS has been defined as doing something:
a. With intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another
b. With intent to defraud
c. Without due care and caution
d. Which is an illegal act or omission
38. A person causes one thing to resemble another thing to practice deception is said to commit
a. Deception
b. Fraud
c. Counterfeit
d. Tampering
39. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Counterfeit Section 2(4)
b. Valuable security Section 2(8)
c. Document Section 2(31)
d. Omission Section 2(34)
40. 'Electronic Record' under BNS is defined in:
a. Section 29
b. Section 2(8)
c. Section 2(5)
d. Section 2(7)
41. Valuable security is defined in:
a. BNSS
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. BSA
d. BNS
42. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
a. A postal receipt for an insured
b. A rent note
c. A promissory note
d. A deed of divorce
43. As per BNS a document whereby ‘any legal right is created, extended, restricted or released, is:
a. Conveyance deed
b. Gift deed
c. Will
d. Valuable security
44. Which of the following match is wrong?
a. Wrongful gain—Section 2(36) BNS
b. Dishonestly—Section 2(7) BNS
c. Fraudulently—Section 2(29) BNS
d. Valuable Security— Section(31) BNS
e. None of these
45. Which one of the following sections of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, defines the word 'Act'?
a. Section 2(2)
b. Section 2(1)
c. Section 2(23)
d. Section 2(25)
46. 'X' armed with a loaded pistol and ‘Y empty handed go to 'Z' shop in furtherance of their common intention to commit robbery, X enters the shop and on being resisted in carrying away property shoots Z with pistol. Z dies at once. For what acts of X, Y is liable:
a. Dacoity with murder
b. Extortion and culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Attempt to commit robbery when armed with deadly weapon
d. Robbery and murder through the principle of joint liability
47. Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Creates a substantive offence
b. Is the rule of evidence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
48. Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Factual
Situation: A, B, C and D who were unemployed, decided to loot the house of a rich businessman one night. When all of them were about to jump the compound wall, D decided to remain at the gate and warn them, in case of any problem. A, B and C entered the house and took cash and gold ornaments. While coming out of the house B tripped on a rubber hose pipe creating a sound. By this the watchman who had otherwise asleep woke up. B suddenly took the rubber hose and strangled the watchman's neck thus killing him. Later all A, B, C and D were arrested and prosecuted.
a. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the minder of the Watchman as murdering any one was not in their plan.
b. A, B and C are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the murder of the Watchman. D is innocent of both the crimes as he was only guarding at the gate and did not participate in the crimes.
c. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was done in order to carry out their common plan.
d. A, B and C are liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was in fulfillment of their common plan. D is innocent as he did not participate in any of the crimes.
49. What constitutes the gist of an offence under section 3(5), BNS?
a. Same intention
b. Similar intention
c. Common object
d. Common intention
50. Imputed Criminal Liability Principle is laid down in which of the following provision/provisions:
a. Section 3(5) of the BNS
b. Sections 3(5) and 190 of the BNS
c. Section 47 of the BNS
d. Section 60(1) of the BNS
51. Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, deals with
a. Common intention
b. Common object
c. Common knowledge
d. Criminal intention
52. Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, recognizes one out of the following principles of criminal jurisprudent
a. Principle of Absolute Liability
b. Principle of Joint Liability
c. Principle of Strict Liability
d. Principle of Vicarious Liability
53. When a criminal act is done by several persons, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same maimer as if it were done by him alone if it is done in furtherance of:
a. Common object
b. Common intention
c. Common motive
d. Common motive as well as common object.
54. Common intention under Section 3(5) implies
a. Similar intention
b. Pre-arranged planning
c. Presence of common knowledge
d. Common design for common object
55. In cases of common intention which of the following statements hold true?
a. The members of the mob are presumed to have common intention for the offences committed
b. In cases excluding gang rape cases it is necessary for the common intention to be there from the beginning
c. For establishing of common intention it is necessary to prove individual acts of the accused by direct evidence
d. In gang rape cases it is not necessary for the common intention to be from the beginning, it can be developed at the last minute before committing of the offence
56. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between 'common intention' and 'similar intention'?
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
b. Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor
c. Shrinivasmal Barolia v. Emperor
d. Bannu Mai v. Emperor
57. The principle of common intention applies only when
a. At least 5 persons involved
b. At least 2 persons involved
c. At least 1 persons involved
d. None of the above
58. Common intention means:
a. Similar intention
b. Same intention
c. Sharing of intention by all persons
d. Common plans
59. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Joint criminal liability based on common intention requires that
a. Criminal act is done by more than one person
b. There is a common intention among the accused persons
c. The accused has a participating presence in a commission of the crime
d. All the above
60. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression 'common intention' under section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons constituting the group
b. A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
c. The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
d. Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
61. The case of Mahmood Shah v. Emperor was decide by which one of the following Courts?
a. Federal Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Privy Council
d. House of Lords
62. Which of the following distinguishes section 3(5) of BNS from section 190 BNS?
1. Section 190 creates a substantive offence whereas section 3(5) does not create an offence.
2. Section 190 requires common object whereas section 3(5) requires common intention.
3. Section 190 requires five or more persons whereas section 3(5) requires two or more persons.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
63. 'A', 'B', 'C and 'D' are charged for murder of 'E'. But evidence proved that 'A', 'B', 'C and 'D' along with three others jointly committed the offence. The court acquits 'A', 'B' 'C, but convicts 'D'.
In the context of the above, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The conviction is legally valid
b. The conviction is bad in law as 'D' as a single person cannot be convicted with the aid of Section 3(5) of BNS
c. The conviction is bad in law as the other person charged with 'D' were acquitted
d. The conviction is bad in law as the unnamed person were not charged with 'D'
64. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion 'A' and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Assertion (A): 'X' and 'Y' had independently entertained the idea to kill 'Z' Accordingly each of them separately inflicted wounds on 'Z' who dies in consequence. 'X' and 'Y' are liable for murder with the aid of Section 3(5) BNS.
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act is done by him alone.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
65. Which one of the following statements regarding Sections 3(5) and 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is correct?
a. Common intention and common object are the same
b. Both are distinct offences in themselves
c. Section 3(5) enunciates a mere principle of liability and creates no offence while Section 190 creates a specific offence
d. Sections 3(5) and 190 are mutually helping Sections
66. Section 3(5) of BNS provides for liability based on common intention. Consider the following situations:
1. The weapon used in the offence was found in A's house
2. A has procured the weapon of offence voluntarily to aid the criminal gang
3. A was compelled under threat to his life to procure the weapon of offence
4. The weapon was supplied on receipt of value of the weapon (sale)
Which of the situation given above reflect(s) the correct ingredients with regard to Section 3(5)?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 4 only
67. Directions: For Assertion and Reason Type Question: Question consist of two statements one labelled the Assertion 'A' and the other labelled the Reason 'R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason 'R' are individually true it so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Select your answer to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.
Assertion (A): X and Y independently intending to kill Z strike him with iron rods on his head. Z dies as a result of the injuries. Both X and Y are guilty of murder under Section 103/3(5), Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several person in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them is liable as if it was done by him alone.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
68. Consider the following statements:
1. Section 3(5) of BNS requires two persons whereas Section 190 of BNS require five persons.
2. Section 3(5) of BNS requires common intention, whereas Section 190 of BNS requires common object
3. Section 3(5) of BNS and Section 190 of BNS both require presence of a prior consent
4. Section 3(5) of BNS and section 190 of BNS. Both create specific offence
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 4
69. Which one of the following brings out the distinction between Section 3(5) and 190 of the BNS?
a. Section 3(5) creates a specific offence whereas Section 190 does not
b. Section 3(5) as well as Section 190 create specific offences
c. Section 190 creates a specific offence whereas Section 3(5) does not
d. Section 3(5) as well as Section 190 do not create specific offences
70. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?
Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 3(5) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means:
1. Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act
2. Implication of a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group
3. A desire of several persons to commit an act without contemplating the consequences
Item B: Within the meaning of Section 190 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly's means:
1. In relation to common intention of the group
2. In order to attain the common object
3. In relation to a common object
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 and 2 of both items
b. 1 and 3 of both items
c. 2 alone of both items
d. 3 along of both items
71. ‘A' is found guilty of attempt to murder in furtherance of common intention. Under which one of the following situations can his offence be proved?
a. ‘A’ procured the weapon of offence voluntarily
b. The weapon of offence was taken away from 'A's house without his knowledge
c. ‘A’ was made to purchase the weapon of offence under the threat to his own life
d. When the weapon was snatched away from ‘A’ he did not report the same to police
72. Accused persons were charged under section 103 read with section 190, BNS. The existence of common intention amongst the accused persons was established from the surrounding circumstances and from their conduct on the spot. No charge had been framed under section 3(5), BNS. In such case:
a. It is not possible to convict the accused with the aid of section 3(5).
b. It is possible to convict the accused with the aid of section 3(5)
c. Cannot be determined.
d. None of these
73. The difference between section 3(5) and section 190 of BNS is that
a. Section 3(5) deals with group liability whereas section 190 deals with unlawful assembly
b. Section 3(5) requires five persons whereas section 190 requires minimum of two
c. Section 3(5) requires active participation whereas section 190 is attracted even on membership of the unlawful assembly
d. Section 3(5) is a substantive offence whereas section 190 is a rule of evidence only
74. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all each of them is liable
a. For individual act
b. As if it were done by each alone
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
75. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
b. Niharendu Dutta v. King Emperor
c. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor
d. Kedar Nath v. State of West Bengal
76. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Section 3(5), BNS creates a substantive offence.
b. Section 3(5), BNS introduces the principle of vicarious liability for an offence committed by the co¬ accused
c. Section 3(5), BNS recognizes that the co-participant in a crime must be made liable for his act in the commission of the crime by the accused.
d. Both (b) & (c) above
77. To establish Section 3(5) of BNS:
a. A common intention is to be proved but not overt act be proved
b. Common intention and overt act both have to be proved
c. Common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
d. All the above
78. In which one of the following cases Lord Summer said, "they also serve who stand and wait"?
a. Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
b. Inder Singh v. Emperor
c. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
d. None of the above
79. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. In a criminal act done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them will be held liable for that act.
b. In an act done by several persons, the act being criminal only by reason of its being done with criminal knowledge or intention, all persons joining in the act, irrespective of such knowledge or intention, will be held liable for that act.
c. In an offence done by means of several acts all the persons intentionally cooperating in that act by doing any of those acts, will be held liable for that offence
d. In a criminal act done by several persons, all may be held liable for different offences by means of that act
80. Which one of the following elements’ is not essential for the applications of Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Common intention
b. Commission of an offence
c. Number of offenders be five
d. Offence should be committed in furtherance of common intention
81. 'A' intentionally causes 'Z's death partly by illegally omitting to give 'Z' food and partly by beating 'Z', ‘A’ is liable for murder by virtue of which one of the following sections of the BNS?
a. Section 3(7)
b. Section 3(8)
c. Section 3(5)
d. Section 3(4)
82. To prosecute a person under Section 3(8) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the following requirement is essential
a. Common Intention
b. Common Object
c. Cooperation
d. Similar Intention.
83. The term 'offence' as defined in BNS means:
a. Any Act made punishable by the BNS
b. Any Act made punishable by the BNS or any special or local law in certain cases
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
84. "Offence" is defined under:
a. Section 2(23) of BNS
b. Section 2(24) of BNS
c. Section 2(25) of BNS
d. Section 2(26) of BNS
85. "Local Law" mentioned under Section 2(18) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, means a law applicable to
a. Whole of India
b. A particular part of India
c. Any part of India
d. None of the above
86. In BNS the word Illegal is applicable to which of the following?
a. which is an offence
b. Which is prohibited by law
c. Which furnishes ground for a civil action
d. To all the above
87. To which one of the following the word 'Illegal' used under Section 2(15) of BNS is not applicable?
a. Which is an offence
b. Which is prohibited by law
c. Which furnishes a ground for civil action
d. Which is immoral
88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Injury is any harm whatever illegally caused to any person in his
a. Body or mind only
b. Body, mind, reputation or property
c. Body or reputation only
d. Body or property only
89. Under Section 2(14) of BNS, the term 'Injury" means any harm
a. Illegally caused to a person in body and mind
b. Illegally caused to a person in body and property
c. Illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
d. Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation
90. Under section 2(17) of BNS, life denotes
a. Life of a human being
b. Life of an animal
c. Life of human being and of a animal both
d. Life of either human being or animal.
91. The word 'good faith' is defined in the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:
a. Section 2(14)
b. Section 2(23)
c. Section 2(11)
d. Section 2(23)
92. According to Section 2(11) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is said to be done or believed in good faith which is done or believed without
a. Due care or diligence
b. Due attention or bona fide
c. Due care & attention
d. Due diligence or bona fide
e. None of these
93. Under which of the following Sections of the BNS 'Harbour' has been defined?
a. Section 2(13)
b. Section 60
c. Section 212
d. All of the above
94. According to the BNS 2023, which one among the following is not an offence?
a. Preparation to wage a war against the State
b. Preparation to commit dacoity
c. Preparation to commit murder
d. Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
95. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Rigorous imprisonment
c. Transportation for life
d. Death
96. How many kinds of punishment are provided in Section 4 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Six
b. Four
c. Five
d. Seven
97. In which of the following case, it was held that the death sentence should be given in the 'rarest of rare cases'?
a. R. v. Govinda
b. Hussain Ara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
c. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
d. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
98. Which of the following is a kind of punishment under Section 4 of the BNS?
a. Whipping
b. Fine
c. Servitude
d. Transportation
99. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 4 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Fine
b. Transportation
c. Forfeiture of property
d. Death
100. A who was previously convicted under section 8(2), BNS and is again convicted under same section for life imprisonment. Here imprisonment for life means:
a. Remainder of A's natural life
b. 20 Years
c. 14 Years
d. 30 Years
101. Identify the punishment which is not prescribed under the category of punishments in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Death
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Simple imprisonment with hard labor
d. Forfeiture of property
102. In the case of sentence of death, power to suspend, remit or commute is conferred upon:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. State as well as Central Government
d. President
103. Under which of the following sections of BNS, 2023 the death sentence can be commuted without the consent of the offender:
a. Section 6
b. Section 5
c. Section 7
d. None of these
104. The "appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other sentence
a. Without the consent of the accused
b. With the consent of relatives of accused
c. With the consent of advocate of the accused
d. Without the consent of defendant
105. ln how many years a sentences of imprisonment for life can be commuted by the Government( as per sec 474 of BNSS)
a. Not less than 20 years
b. Not less than 18 years
c. Not less than seven years
d. Not less than12 years
106. Who may commute sentence?
a. Chief Justice of High Court
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Appropriate Government
d. Any Appellate Court
107. In calculating fractions of terms of Punishment, the imprisonment for life is reckoned as equivalent to:
a. Imprisonment for fourteen years
b. Imprisonment for twelve years
c. Imprisonment for twenty years
d. Imprisonment for seven years
108. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend there the amount of fine to which the offender may be liable will be:
a. Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand
b. Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand
c. Not exceeding rupees ten lakh
d. Unlimited but not excessive
109. Under Section 8(2) of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall:
a. Be concurrent of any other imprisonment
b. Be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced
c. Not be in excess of any other imprisonment
d. None of the above
110. When the offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, maximum term of imprisonment that can be awarded in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
a. One-half of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence
b. One-fourth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence
c. One-eighth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence
d. One-sixth of the maximum punishment fixed for the offence
111. The Chief Judicial Magistrate has punished the accused with imprisonment of five years and fine of ten thousand rupees under Section 57 of the BNS. The maximum imprisonment under the Section 57 is seven years. On non-payment of fine, the Magistrate can give him maximum imprisonment up to:
a. Fifteen months
b. Twenty one months
c. Twelve months
d. Thirty months
112. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non¬payment of fine………….
a. Has to be rigorous
b. Has to be simple
c. Can be rigorous or simple
d. Can be partly rigorous and partly simple
113. The maximum term of imprisonment that can be awarded in default of payment of fine, in case of offence punishable with fine Only, when the (person is sentence to a fine of rupees hundred:
a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 1 month
d. 2 months
114. Under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if the offence is punishable with fine only and accused has been awarded with five thousand rupees fine the period of imprisonment in default shall
a. Not exceeding one month
b. Not exceeding two month
c. Not exceeding three month
d. Not exceeding four month
115. The 'protection against double jeopardy' is contained in………….
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 3
116. Under BNS which one of the following sections makes provision of solitary confinement?
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
117. For how long, in a whole, a convicted person for a crime be kept in solitary confinement?
a. 6 months
b. Three months
c. Two months
d. One month
118. According to Sections 11 and 12 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a convict can be kept in solitary confinement for any portion or portions of imprisonment to which he is sentenced. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. For period not exceeding three months in the whole
b. For period not exceeding three months, if the term of the imprisonment exceeds six months and does not exceed one year
c. For period not exceeding three months if the term of imprisonment exceeds one year
d. The solitary confinement in no case shall exceed 14 days at a time
119. If an offender is sentenced to an imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. No limit
120. Which provisions of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with the 'Solitary confinement' and 'limits on solitary confinement'?
a. Section 12 and Section 13
b. Section 9 and Section 10
c. Section 11 and Section 12
d. Section 10 and Section 11
121. The maxim "Ignorantia facit excusat" relates to
a. Section 13 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b. Section 14 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Section 15 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. None of the above
122. Which Section of BNS deals with enhanced punishment for offences under Chapter XII or Chapter XVII after previous conviction?
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 11
d. Section 9
123. In calculating fraction of the term of life imprisonment under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is:
a. 14 years
b. 20 years
c. Whole of natural life
d. 10 years.
124. Ravi was suffering from delusion. One night he considered his own son as a leopard and attacked him with an axe, thinking by mistake of fact that he was justified in killing the son whom he did not regard to be a human being but a dangerous animal. Ravi is guilty of:
a. No offence as he has defence of mistake of fact in good faith
b. Murder
c. No offence as he has the defence of insanity
d. Culpable homicide
125. An act done under 'mistake of fact':
a. Is a complete defence in a criminal charge
b. Is a complete defence in a criminal charge if done in good faith
c. Is no defence at all
d. Is a partial defence in a criminal charge
126. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Where a police constable fires upon a mob under the orders of his superior officer and thereby kills a person
a. The constable is not liable because he had no intention to kill
b. The constable is not liable because he is permitted to fire and kill
c. The constable is not liable because he, in good faith believed himself to be bound by law to obey the orders of his superior officer
d. The constable is not liable because it was a mistake
127. In which section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' is incorporated?
a. Section 13
b. Section 14
c. Section 15
d. None of the above
128. For the defence of mistake of fact under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
a. Actual mistake is sufficient
b. The act must be reasonable
c. The act must be reasonable as well as committed in good faith
d. None of the above is correct
129. 'A' an officer of a Court, being ordered by the Court to arrest V, and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y, arrests Z. What mistake has been committed by A?
a. Mistake of fact
b. Mistake of law
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. None of these
130. X, an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest A, and after making due enquiry, believing B to be A, arrests B, What is the criminal liability of under the law?
a. Liable for the offence of wrongful confinement of B
b. Not liable for any offence as he acted in good faith under mistake of fact, which is, a defence under Section 14 of the BNS
c. Not entitled to the benefit of mistake of fact as he has not acted in good faith
d. Liable, because his act is a mistake of law and not mistake of fact
131. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Mistake of fact is excused under criminal law because:
a. It is in the interest of public
b. There is no mens rea
c. It is a mistake
d. It is in interest of court
132. Which one of the following acts is not a mistake of fact?
a. Where an accused mistook a human being in the jungle as a wild animal at night and killed him
b. Where an accused killed a person under the mistaken belief that the latter entered his house with the intention of killing him
c. Where an accused acting under a delusion killed his own son considering him to a tiger
d. Where a constable wanting to settle personal scores with A, mistakenly apprehended B and caused injury to B
133. 'X' sees 'Z' committing what appears to 'X' to be a murder. 'X', in exercise, to the best of his judgement, exerted in good faith, of the powers, which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes 'Z', in order to bring 'Z' before proper authorities. But it turns out that 'Z' was acting in exercise of his right of self defence. 'X' is guilty of:
a. No offence
b. Wrongful restraint
c. Wrongful confinement
d. Assault
134. Section 14 of BNS provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of
a. Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
b. Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
c. Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
d. All of the above
135. Section 14 and Section 17 of BNS provide the general exception of
a. Mistake of law
b. Mistake of fact
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
136. A, an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest V, and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y arrests Z. A is guilty of:
a. Wrongful confinement
b. No offence
c. Criminal negligence
d. Wrongful restraint
137. "A" a police officer without warrant apprehends "Z" who has committed murder. "A" has committed the offence of:
a. Wrongful confinement
b. Wrongful restraint
c. (a) and (b) both
d. No offence
138. Which one of the following sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 provides that 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a judge while acting judicially?
a. Section 13
b. Section 14
c. Section 15
d. Section 17
139. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A hangman who hangs the convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
a. Section 19 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b. Section 14 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c. Section 16 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. Section 13 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
140. An executioner who executes the death penalty is protected from criminal liability under which Section of BNS?
a. Section 21
b. Section 16
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
141. Act done in pursuance of order of court, if done in good faith is coverable under General Exception under which of the following sections of BNS
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16
d. Section 17
142. 'A' in good faith accuses 'Z' before a Magistrate:
a. 'A' has committed no offence
b. ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation
c. 'A' has committed the offence of defamation but he can take defence under section 31 of BNS
d. None of the above
143. Which one of the following is an exception to the offence of murder?
a. An act justified by law to kill a person
b. Killing a person having been intoxicated without one's consent
c. Aiding suicide with the consent of deceased adult
d. Killing a man in an accident caused by negligent driving
144. A male teacher during, examination, while conducting search, put his hands in the pocket of “the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the teacher, under the BNS,' has committed the offence under Section
a. 74
b. 115
c. 79
d. No offence
145. Under section 18, the exception of accident is available when an offence is committed while
a. Doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means.
b. Doing a lawful act in any manner by any means.
c. Doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means.
d. All of the above.
146. To include 'Accident' in exceptions of crime, which of the following element is essential?
a. It happened by accident or misfortune
b. It happened in doing a lawful act in a lawful manner
c. Proper care and caution has been taken
d. All of the above
147. 'A' is at work with a hatchet the head flies off and kills a man who is standing near by Here, there was no want of proper care and caution on the part of 'A', ‘A’ is guilty of which of the following?
a. Murder
b. Causing death by negligence
c. Culpable homicide not amount to murder
d. No offence
148. A is at work with a hatchet, the head flies off and kills a man who is standing near by. No want of proper caution on the part of A. His act is:
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not murder
c. His act is excusable, not an offence
d. Causing death by negligence
149. 'A' not knowing, whether it is loaded or not, pulls the trigger of a gun pointing at 'B', 'B' is shot dead. ‘A’ can:
a. Claim the protection of Section 18 of BNS
b. Not claim the protection of Section 18 of BNS
c. Claim the protection of Section 19 of BNS
d. Not claim the protection of Section 19 of BNS
150. Which Provision of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 says, "nothing is an offence which is done by accident"?
a. Section 17 of BNS
b. Section 16 of BNS
c. Section 18 of BNS
d. None of the above
151. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child who is:
a. Under 9 years of age.
b. Under 7 years of age
c. Under 12 years of age
d. Under 16 years of age
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