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Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 Paper-3
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Bihar Prohibition One Liner Notes
There are 7 Sets of MCQs available for Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, you are advised to explore all the sets:
1. The penalty for non-compliance with transit provisions under Section 14 may be decided by—
a. The Excise Commissioner
b. The State Government
c. The Collector
d. The Superintendent of Police
2. The State Government may frame detailed rules relating to movement of intoxicants under—
a. Section 14(4)
b. Section 14(3)
c. Section 14(2)
d. Section 14(1)
3. Section 15 of the Act deals with—
a. Licensing of transport vehicles
b. Restrictions on vehicles carrying intoxicants
c. Export of liquor
d. Recovery of excise revenue
4. Under Section 15, the authority empowered to impose restrictions on vehicles transporting excisable articles is—
a. The Excise Commissioner
b. The State Government
c. The Collector
d. The Superintendent of Police
5. The State Government may impose restrictions on vehicles transporting—
a. Only liquor
b. Only intoxicants
c. Excisable articles or final products
d. Only industrial alcohol
6. Under Section 15, transport vehicles carrying excisable articles may be required to adhere to—
a. No specifications
b. Certain specifications prescribed by the State Government
c. Only police instructions
d. Only customs regulations
7. The State Government may require vehicles transporting intoxicants to install—
a. Safety locks only
b. Certain devices specified by the Government
c. Fire extinguishers only
d. GPS devices only
8. Installation of such devices may be made a pre-condition for registration of vehicles under—
a. The Excise Act
b. The Motor Vehicles Act
c. The Customs Act
d. The Police Act
9. The State Government may issue directions regarding such vehicle specifications to—
a. The Excise Commissioner
b. The State Transport Authority
c. The District Magistrate
d. The Police Department
10. The restrictions imposed under Section 15 are intended primarily to—
a. Promote liquor trade
b. Regulate and monitor transport of excisable articles
c. Increase customs revenue
d. Replace excise officers
11. Section 16 of the Act deals with—
a. Licensing of warehouses
b. Power to regulate transport of intoxicants
c. Appointment of excise officers
d. Recovery of excise revenue
12. The authority empowered to regulate the movement, import, or export of intoxicants under Section 16 is—
a. The Excise Commissioner
b. The Collector
c. The State Government
d. The Board of Revenue
13. The State Government exercises its power under Section 16 by issuing—
a. A circular
b. A notification
c. A departmental order
d. A judicial direction
14. Section 16 begins with the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act or any Act for the time being in force,” which implies—
a. Section 16 overrides other provisions where applicable
b. Section 16 applies only after other Acts
c. Other Acts override Section 16
d. Section 16 applies only with court approval
15. The State Government may regulate which of the following under Section 16?
a. Movement of liquor or intoxicants
b. Import of liquor or intoxicants
c. Export of liquor or intoxicants
d. All of the above
16. Regulation under Section 16 may apply to—
a. The entire State of Bihar
b. A specified part or area of the State
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only municipal areas
17. The regulation of movement of intoxicants under Section 16 may include movement—
a. Into the State
b. From the State
c. Through the State
d. All of the above
18. The main objective of the power under Section 16 is to—
a. Promote liquor trade
b. Regulate and control the transport and movement of intoxicants
c. Increase customs revenue
d. Establish warehouses
19. Section 17 of the Act deals with—
a. Regulation of excise revenue
b. Renewal of licenses for distilleries, breweries, et(C)
c. Import of intoxicants
d. Appointment of excise officers
20. Under Section 17(1), the issuance of new licenses to which of the following establishments is prohibited?
a. Distilleries
b. Breweries
c. Bottling plants
d. All of the above
21. Which of the following establishments is specifically mentioned in Section 17 as not eligible for new licenses?
a. Manufactory
b. Molasses manufactory
c. Distillery
d. All of the above
22. Under the proviso to Section 17(1), the Collector may issue a license or permit only for—
a. Country liquor manufacturing units
b. Intoxicants declared by the State Government under Section 3
c. Imported foreign liquor
d. Beer manufacturing units
23. The authority empowered to issue such license or permit under the proviso to Section 17(1) is—
a. The State Government
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The Collector
d. The Superintendent of Police
24. Under Section 17(2), the Collector may renew licenses for—
a. Only government-owned distilleries
b. Only breweries
c. Existing licensees of manufactories, distilleries, molasses manufactories, breweries, and bottling plants
d. Only bottling plants
25. Renewal of licenses under Section 17(2) is subject to—
a. Approval of the police department
b. Provisions of this Act
c. Approval of the High Court
d. Municipal regulations
26. The power to make rules governing the licensing regime under Section 17 is vested in—
a. The Excise Commissioner
b. The Collector
c. The State Government
d. The Board of Revenue
27. The licensing authority may require a licensee to give security for—
a. Payment of customs duty
b. Observance of the terms and conditions of the license
c. Police verification
d. Payment of transport charges
28. The licensing authority may also require the licensee to—
a. Submit tax returns
b. Execute an agreement regarding the terms and conditions of the license
c. Register under the Companies Act
d. Obtain approval from the judiciary
29. According to the explanation to Section 17, the term “existing licensee” refers to—
a. Any person applying for a license after the Act
b. Persons or firms holding a valid license on the day the Act came into force
c. Only government companies
d. Only distillery operators
30. Section 18 of the Act deals with—
a. Renewal of licenses
b. Non-transferability of licenses and permits
c. Regulation of warehouses
d. Transport of intoxicants
31. Under Section 18, licenses renewed under this Act shall be—
a. Transferable with permission
b. Freely transferable
c. Non-transferable
d. Transferable only to family members
32. Permits issued under this Act are—
a. Transferable with approval of the Collector
b. Transferable with approval of the Excise Commissioner
c. Non-transferable
d. Transferable with permission of the State Government
33. The rule of non-transferability under Section 18 applies to—
a. Only licenses
b. Only permits
c. Both licenses and permits issued under the Act
d. Only manufacturing licenses
34. The purpose of making licenses and permits non-transferable under Section 18 is primarily to—
a. Simplify licensing procedures
b. Ensure accountability of the original license holder
c. Promote liquor trade
d. Increase revenue collection
35. Section 19 of the Act deals with—
a. Powers of the Collector
b. Powers of the Board
c. Licensing of distilleries
d. Regulation of warehouses
36. Under Section 19, the authority referred to as the “Board” is—
a. Board of Revenue
b. Excise Board
c. State Licensing Board
d. Finance Board
37. The Board of Revenue may exercise authority under the Act when such authority is—
a. Granted by the High Court
b. Delegated by the State Government
c. Approved by the Collector
d. Assigned by the Excise Commissioner
38. The powers of the Board of Revenue under Section 19 are derived from—
a. Direct statutory powers only
b. Delegation by the State Government
c. Orders of the District Magistrate
d. Judicial interpretation
39. The scope of powers of the Board under Section 19 depends upon—
a. Rules framed by the Collector
b. Delegation made by the State Government
c. Approval of the police department
d. Orders of the Excise Commissioner
40. Section 20 of the Act deals with—
a. Renewal of licenses
b. Qualifications for grant of license
c. Cancellation of licenses
d. Excise revenue collection
41. Under Section 20, the qualifications prescribed apply to applicants seeking—
a. Only new licenses
b. Only renewal of licenses
c. Renewal of license or issuance of permit
d. Import permits only
42. According to Section 20(a), an applicant for a license must be—
a. A citizen of any country
b. A citizen of India or a company registered in India
c. Only a resident of Bihar
d. A government employee
43. Under Section 20(b), the applicant should not be—
a. A government contractor
b. A defaulter or blacklisted or debarred from holding an excise license
c. A member of a company
d. A license holder in another state
44. An applicant is not eligible for a license if he is—
a. In arrears of any government dues
b. A citizen of India
c. A company registered in India
d. A taxpayer
45. Under Section 20(c), the applicant should possess—
a. High financial income
b. Solvency and good moral character
c. Only property ownership
d. Only business experience
46. A person convicted of an offence under this Act or any other Act—
a. Is eligible for license renewal
b. May be granted a license with permission
c. Is not qualified for grant of license
d. Can obtain a permit without restrictions
47. Under Section 20(d), the licensee should not employ persons who are—
a. Below twenty-one years of age
b. Having criminal background
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Government servants
48. The minimum age required for employment under a license holder according to Section 20 is—
a. 18 years
b. 20 years
c. 21 years
d. 25 years
49. The objective of prescribing qualifications under Section 20 is primarily to—
a. Promote liquor trade
b. Ensure responsible and lawful license holders
c. Increase excise taxation
d. Reduce administrative procedures
50. Section 21 of the Act deals with—
a. Licensing of distilleries
b. Use of holograms on excisable products
c. Transport of intoxicants
d. Recovery of excise revenue
51. Under Section 21(1), the authority empowered to require holograms on products is—
a. The Collector
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The State Government
d. The Board of Revenue
52. Holograms may be required to be placed on products of which of the following establishments?
a. Molasses manufactories
b. Distilleries and bottling plants
c. Distributors and sellers
d. All of the above
53. The specifications for holograms required under Section 21 shall be prescribed by—
a. The State Transport Authority
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The Collector
d. The Superintendent of Police
54. Which of the following persons may be required to place holograms on their products under Section 21?
a. Importers and exporters
b. License holders and distributors
c. Sellers of excisable products
d. All of the above
55. The purpose of requiring holograms under Section 21 is primarily to—
a. Decorate packaging of liquor
b. Ensure identification and authenticity of products under the Act
c. Increase the cost of production
d. Replace excise licenses
56. The State Government may make detailed rules regarding holograms under—
a. Section 21(1)
b. Section 21(2)
c. Section 21(3)
d. Section 21(4)
57. The rules regarding holograms may apply to establishments operating—
a. Under this Act
b. Only under the Motor Vehicles Act
c. Only under the Customs Act
d. Only under municipal regulations
58. Section 22 of the Act deals with—
a. Renewal of licenses
b. Power to suspend or cancel license and permit
c. Movement of intoxicants
d. Excise revenue recovery
59. The authority empowered to suspend or cancel a license or permit under Section 22 is—
a. The State Government only
b. The authority renewing the license or granting the permit
c. The Superintendent of Police
d. The High Court
60. Before suspending or cancelling a license or permit under Section 22, the authority must—
a. Obtain court approval
b. Conduct a police investigation
c. Give the holder a reasonable opportunity of being heard
d. Refer the matter to the Board of Revenue
61. A license or permit may be suspended or cancelled if it is—
a. Transferred or sublet without permission of the licensing authority
b. Renewed on time
c. Used only for personal consumption
d. Approved by the Collector
62. Non-payment of which of the following may lead to suspension or cancellation of a license?
a. Property tax
b. Excise revenue payable by the license holder
c. Municipal tax
d. Income tax
63. A license may be cancelled if the license holder, his servant or agent commits—
a. A breach of the terms and conditions of the license or permit
b. A breach of contract with suppliers
c. A breach of municipal rules
d. A breach of transport laws only
64. A license may be cancelled if the holder or his employee is convicted of—
a. Only civil offences
b. Any offence punishable under this Act or relevant excise-related law
c. Only traffic offences
d. Only administrative violations
65. Conviction of the license holder or his agent for which type of offence may also result in cancellation?
a. Non-cognizable offence
b. Cognizable and non-bailable offence under relevant law
c. Minor civil offence
d. Administrative offence
66. A license may be cancelled if—
a. The purpose for which it was granted ceases to exist
b. The holder changes residence
c. The license holder hires employees
d. The license holder files tax returns
67. A license or permit obtained through which of the following may be cancelled?
a. Proper documentation
b. Legal application
c. Misrepresentation or fraud
d. Timely payment of fees
68. A license may also be cancelled if—
a. The licensing authority is prima facie satisfied that it should be cancelled for any other reason
b. The license holder requests cancellation
c. The license is renewed regularly
d. The license holder pays additional tax
69. Under Section 22(2), if a license or permit is suspended or cancelled, the licensee is—
a. Entitled to full compensation
b. Entitled to refund of fees
c. Not eligible for any compensation or refund of fee or deposit
d. Entitled to partial refund
70. Section 23 of the Act deals with—
a. Grant of licenses
b. Bar to the right of renewal and to compensation
c. Suspension of licenses
d. Excise revenue collection
71. Under Section 23, a person holding a license or permit earlier—
a. Has an automatic right to renewal
b. May claim renewal as a legal entitlement
c. Is not entitled to claim renewal as a matter of right
d. Must be granted renewal by the Collector
72. Renewal of a license or permit under Section 23—
a. Is mandatory for the authority
b. Is discretionary and not a matter of right
c. Must be granted if fees are paid
d. Must be granted if requested
73. If renewal of a license or permit is refused after expiry of its validity period—
a. The holder can claim compensation
b. The holder can claim damages
c. No claim for damages or compensation shall lie
d. The holder must be granted a new license
74. Section 23 applies when the license or permit—
a. Is suspended
b. Is cancelled
c. Expires after its period of validity
d. Is transferred
75. Under Section 23, refusal to renew a license may occur—
a. Only with court approval
b. At the discretion of the authority without liability for damages
c. Only after public consultation
d. Only with police approval
76. The primary objective of Section 23 is to—
a. Guarantee renewal of licenses
b. Prevent legal claims against the Government for refusal of renewal
c. Increase excise revenue
d. Encourage private liquor trade
77. Section 24 of the Act deals with—
a. Suspension of licenses by the Collector
b. Power of the State Government to withdraw or not renew a license
c. Transport of intoxicants
d. Appointment of excise officers
78. Under Section 24(1), the authority empowered to withdraw or refuse renewal of a license is—
a. The Collector
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The State Government
d. The Board of Revenue
79. The State Government may withdraw or refuse renewal of licenses issued to—
a. Distilleries and breweries
b. Molasses manufactories and bottling plants
c. Manufactories
d. All of the above
80. The decision of the State Government to withdraw or refuse renewal of licenses may apply to—
a. Only a particular district
b. The entire State of Bihar or any part thereof
c. Only municipal areas
d. Only rural areas
81. The State Government may exercise the power under Section 24—
a. Only at the time of license renewal
b. Only after approval from the Board of Revenue
c. At any time
d. Only after court approval
82. If a license is withdrawn or not renewed under Section 24, the license holder is entitled to—
a. Full compensation
b. Damages for business loss
c. Nothing except refund of advance license fee or deposit after deductions
d. Automatic renewal of license
83. The refund payable under Section 24(2) is limited to—
a. All business losses incurred
b. Entire license fee paid earlier
c. License fee or deposit paid in advance after deducting recoverable dues
d. Compensation decided by the court
84. The deduction from the advance license fee or deposit under Section 24(2) may include—
a. Government recoverable dues
b. Income tax
c. Municipal charges
d. Customs duty
85. Section 25 of the Act deals with—
a. Suspension of licenses
b. Power of the Collector to take over the management
c. Grant of permits
d. Transport of intoxicants
86. The authority empowered to take over the management of an establishment under Section 25 is—
a. The State Government
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The Collector
d. The Superintendent of Police
87. The Collector may exercise the power under Section 25 if the license holder—
a. Contravenes provisions of the Act or rules made thereunder
b. Defaults in complying with conditions of the license
c. Refuses to follow reasonable directions issued by the Collector
d. All of the above
88. The Collector may take action under Section 25 when—
a. The license expires
b. The license is withdrawn
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only when ordered by the court
89. The Collector may take over management of the establishment—
a. Only after cancellation of license
b. Only before cancellation of license
c. With or without cancellation of license
d. Only after court approval
90. If the Collector takes over the management of the establishment, it shall be done—
a. At the expense of the Government
b. At the risk and loss of the owner of the establishment
c. At the expense of the Excise Department
d. At the expense of the licensee and the State Government equally
91. Under Section 25(b), the Collector may transfer the establishment—
a. Permanently to another person
b. For the unexpired period of the license or privilege
c. For ten years
d. Only for government management
92. When the establishment is transferred under Section 25, the transfer shall occur—
a. At the cost of the State Government
b. At the risk and loss of the owner
c. At the cost of the Collector
d. At the expense of the transferee only
93. The power of the Collector under Section 25 ensures—
a. Promotion of liquor trade
b. Effective enforcement of compliance with provisions of the Act and license conditions
c. Reduction of excise revenue
d. Transfer of judicial authority
94. Section 26 of the Act deals with—
a. Recovery of penalties
b. Nature and components of excise revenue
c. Licensing of distilleries
d. Transport of intoxicants
95. Excise revenue under Section 26 shall be levied and recovered under various heads including—
a. Duty
b. License fee
c. Label registration fee
d. All of the above
96. Which of the following forms part of excise revenue under Section 26?
a. Duty
b. License fee
c. Label registration fee
d. All of the above
97. Import, export, transportation or movement fee collected under the Act forms part of—
a. Customs revenue
b. Municipal revenue
c. Excise revenue
d. Income tax revenue
98. Which of the following may contribute to excise revenue under Section 26?
a. Privilege fee
b. Fines and penalties
c. Sundry receipts
d. All of the above
99. The State Government may impose additional revenue components such as duty, cess, fee, or surcharge by—
a. Government circular
b. Notification
c. Court order
d. Municipal resolution
100. Label registration fee collected under the Act is categorized under—
a. Customs duty
b. Excise revenue
c. Income tax
d. Municipal tax
101. The purpose of Section 26 is primarily to—
a. Define categories under which excise revenue is levied and recovered
b. Regulate export of liquor
c. Grant licenses to distilleries
d. Define powers of the Collector
102. Section 27 of the Act deals with—
a. Nature of excise revenue
b. Fees, terms, conditions, form and duration of licenses, permits and passes
c. Transport of intoxicants
d. Appointment of excise officers
103. Under Section 27(1), every license renewed or permit/pass granted under the Act shall be—
a. Granted without any fee
b. Granted only with court approval
c. Granted on payment of such fees as may be prescribed
d. Granted only by the Excise Commissioner
104. Licenses, permits, or passes granted under the Act shall be subject to—
a. No restrictions
b. Restrictions and conditions prescribed under the Act or rules
c. Only police conditions
d. Only municipal regulations
105. The form and particulars of licenses, permits, or passes shall be determined by—
a. The Collector
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The Rules made under the Act
d. The High Court
106. Under Section 27, licenses, permits, or passes must contain—
a. Particulars prescribed by rules
b. Only the name of the holder
c. Only the license number
d. Only the duration of validity
107. The duration of licenses, permits, or passes under the Act shall be—
a. Permanent
b. Determined by the Collector
c. Prescribed by rules made by the State Government
d. Fixed for five years
108. The authority empowered to prescribe the duration of licenses, permits or passes through rules is—
a. The State Government
b. The Board of Revenue
c. The Excise Commissioner
d. The District Magistrate
109. The purpose of Section 27 is to regulate—
a. The financial structure of excise revenue
b. The procedural framework for licenses, permits, and passes
c. The transport of intoxicants
d. The enforcement of prohibition
110. Section 28 of the Act deals with—
a. Grant of licenses
b. Payment of excise revenue despite pendency of legal proceedings
c. Transport of intoxicants
d. Appointment of excise officers
111. Under Section 28, excise revenue due to the State Government must be paid—
a. Only after final court decision
b. Irrespective of pendency of writ petition, suit or appeal
c. Only after approval of the Excise Commissioner
d. Only after administrative review
112. The obligation to pay excise revenue continues even when—
a. A writ petition has been filed
b. A suit or other proceeding has been instituted in court
c. An appeal has been filed before a Tribunal or the Excise Commissioner
d. All of the above
113. Excise revenue under Section 28 becomes payable as per—
a. Any demand or order made by an officer or authority empowered under the Act
b. Only orders of the High Court
c. Orders issued by municipal authorities
d. Orders of the police department
114. The requirement to pay excise revenue continues unless—
a. The license holder refuses to pay
b. The payment has been stayed by a competent authority or court
c. The Collector cancels the demand
d. The Excise Commissioner waives the fee
115. Which of the following authorities may grant a stay on payment under Section 28?
a. Competent authority under the Act
b. A Court
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. The police department
116. The purpose of Section 28 is primarily to—
a. Delay recovery of excise dues
b. Ensure timely recovery of excise revenue despite pending legal challenges
c. Promote litigation
d. Transfer recovery powers to courts
117. The demand for excise revenue may arise from—
a. An order made by an officer empowered under the Act
b. An order passed by an authority empowered under the Act
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only orders of the State Government
118. Section 29 of the Act deals with—
a. Recovery of excise revenue
b. Power to impose duty on import, export, transport and manufacture
c. Licensing of distilleries
d. Regulation of warehouses
119. The authority empowered to impose excise duty under Section 29 is—
a. The Collector
b. The Excise Commissioner
c. The State Government
d. The Board of Revenue
120. The State Government may impose which of the following under Section 29?
a. Excise duty
b. Countervailing duty
c. Any other duty or fee
d. All of the above
121. Duty under Section 29 may be imposed—
a. Only throughout the State
b. Only in selected districts
c. Either generally or for any specified local area
d. Only in urban areas
122. Under Section 29(1), duty may be imposed on which of the following?
a. Excisable articles imported
b. Excisable articles exported
c. Excisable articles transported
d. All of the above
123. Duty may also be imposed on excisable articles manufactured—
a. Under any license issued or renewed under the Act
b. Only in government distilleries
c. Only in private breweries
d. Only outside the State
124. Duty may also be imposed on excisable articles manufactured in—
a. Licensed distilleries
b. Licensed breweries
c. Distilleries or breweries established or authorized under the Act
d. All of the above
125. Duty under Section 29 may vary depending on—
a. The place where the article is to be removed for consumption
b. The strength and quality of the article
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only the quantity of the article
126. Under Section 29(2), the State Government may impose duty on—
a. Only excisable articles
b. Any intoxicant under the provisions of this Act
c. Only imported liquor
d. Only country liquor
127. The rates of duty imposed under Section 29 are determined by—
a. The Board of Revenue
b. The Collector
c. The State Government
d. The Excise Commissioner
128. Section 30 of the Act deals with—
a. Licensing of distilleries
b. Penalty for unlawful manufacture, import, export, transport, possession, sale, et(C) of intoxicants or liquor
c. Powers of the Collector
d. Regulation of warehouses
129. An offence under Section 30 is committed when a person acts in contravention of—
a. The provisions of the Act
b. Any rule, regulation, order or notification issued under the Act
c. Conditions of any license, permit or pass
d. All of the above
130. Which of the following acts without a valid license, permit or pass constitutes an offence under Section 30?
a. Manufacturing liquor
b. Possessing or selling liquor
c. Importing or transporting liquor
d. All of the above
131. Cultivation of which of the following in contravention of the Act is punishable under Section 30?
a. Poppy plant
b. Hemp plant
c. Tobacco plant
d. Coconut tree
132. Establishing or operating a manufactory, distillery, brewery or warehouse without authorization under the Act is—
a. Permitted with permission of the Collector
b. Punishable under Section 30
c. Regulated by municipal laws only
d. Allowed for industrial use
133. Using any material, utensil, implement or apparatus for manufacturing intoxicants without authorization is—
a. Permitted for personal use
b. Punishable under Section 30
c. Allowed with police permission
d. Not covered under the Act
134. Manufacturing wrappers, films, apparatus or machines for packing liquor or intoxicants without authorization—
a. Is permitted with registration
b. Is punishable under Section 30
c. Is allowed for packaging industries
d. Is regulated by municipal authorities only
135. Removing liquor or intoxicants from a distillery, brewery, warehouse or storage place without authorization is—
a. Allowed with police permission
b. Punishable under Section 30
c. Only a civil offence
d. Allowed for transport purposes
136. Manufacturing or dealing in preparations capable of serving as alcohol substitutes used for intoxication is—
a. Permitted for industrial use
b. Punishable under Section 30 if done in contravention of the Act
c. Allowed with municipal license
d. Not regulated under the Act
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