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UPSC CBI APP & PP MOCK TEST-4
Time Duration - 2:00 Hour
Total Marks – 300
Negative Marking – ½
1. Which section of the DSPE Act deals with the extension of powers and jurisdiction of the DSPE to other areas?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 2
2. What was the argument presented by the petitioners against Section 6A of the DSPE Act in the Subramanian Swamy case?
a. It provided too much power to the Central Government.
b. It hampered the CBI's independence.
c. It created a privileged class, discriminating against lower-ranking officials.
d. All of the above.
3. The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, extends to:
a. The state of Delhi only
b. The Union Territories only
c. The whole of India
d. The Union Territories and specific states only
4. A habitual offender under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years but which may extend to:
a. Seven years.
b. Ten years.
c. Fourteen years.
d. Twenty years.
5. In which case, the Supreme Court ruled that a Special Judge cannot order the registration of an FIR under Section 156(3) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) for offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, without obtaining prior sanction from the competent authority under Section 19(1) of the Act.
a. State of Maharashtra v. Mahesh G. Jain, (2013)
b. Anil Kumar v. M.K. Aiyappa, (2013)
c. Subramanian Swamy v. Manmohan Singh, (2012)
d. none of the above
6. Which chapter of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with “ATTACHMENT AND FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY”?
a. CHAPTER VI
b. CHAPTER V
c. CHAPTER IV
d. CHAPTER IVA
7. For the purpose of appeal and revision, Section 27 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 treats the Court of the Special Judge as if it were a:
a. High Court
b. Magistrate's Court
c. Court of Session
d. Civil Court
8. If an accused person charged under the Act fails to give evidence, can this be used against them?
a. Yes, the prosecution can comment on their silence.
b. Yes, it gives rise to a presumption of guilt.
c. No, their failure to give evidence cannot be commented upon or used against them.
d. Only if they are a high-ranking official.
9. Under Section 8(1)(a) of the CVC Act, the Commission's power of superintendence over the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) is limited to investigations related to offenses under which Act?
a. The Indian Penal Code (IPC)
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
c. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. All of the above
10. A Vigilance Commissioner acquires a financial interest. For this to lead to removal by the President under Section 6(3)(e) of Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, what must be proven?
a. The financial interest is illegal.
b. The financial interest amounts to "proved misbehaviour."
c. The financial interest is likely to prejudicially affect his functions as a Vigilance Commissioner.
d. The financial interest is derived from a government contract.
11. The definition of "Lokpal" in Section 2(da) in the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 was added by an amendment. This term refers to the Lokpal established under which other Act?
a. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
d. Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988
12. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, is officially identified by which Act Number?
a. Act No. 25 of 2003
b. Act No. 45 of 2003
c. Act No. 55 of 2003
d. Act No. 64 of 2003
13. Which section of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Act, 2003, explicitly states that "The headquarters of the Commission shall be at New Delhi?"
a. Section 3(6)
b. Section 4(1)
c. Section 5(2)
d. Section 9
14. Section 2(k) of the Competition Act, 2002 defines "goods." Which of the following is specifically included in this definition?
a. Services provided by a consultant.
b. Shares and stocks of a company.
c. Real estate.
d. The goodwill of a business.
15. What is the quorum required for a meeting of the CCI to be valid under the Competition Act, 2002?
a. Two members.
b. Three members.
c. Five members.
d. Six members.
16. Under the Competition Act, 2002 who does the CCI direct to cause an investigation to be made if it finds a prima facie case?
a. The Central Government.
b. The Chairman of the CCI.
c. The Director General.
d. The Supreme Court of India.
17. If the Director General's report recommends that there is no contravention of the Competition Act, 2002, what must the CCI do?
a. Immediately close the matter without further action.
b. Invite objections or suggestions on the report from the parties concerned.
c. Order another investigation by a different Director General.
d. Take over the investigation itself.
18. Under Section 27 of the Competition Act, 2002, the CCI can impose a penalty on an enterprise. What is the maximum percentage of its average turnover from the last three financial years?
a. Not more than five percent.
b. Not more than ten percent.
c. Not more than twenty-five percent.
d. Not more than fifty percent.
19. Which of the following amounts are credited to the Environmental Protection Fund?
a. The amount of penalty imposed under the Air Act, 1981, and the EPA, 1986
b. Only the fines collected from private citizens
c. Foreign donations exclusively earmarked for environmental purposes
d. Only funds from the state governments
20. What term is used in Section 8 of the EPA, 1986 to define materials that require specific handling precautions?
a. Dangerous goods
b. Toxic chemicals
c. Hazardous substances
d. Industrial waste
21. Section 7 of the EPA, 1986 applies to which entities?
a. Industries
b. Operations
c. Processes
d. All of the above
22. Under Section 20 of the EPA, 1986, if the Central Government requires information, the person, officer, State Government, or other authority receiving the request is:
a. Encouraged to provide the information.
b. Bound to furnish the information.
c. Only required to provide information if they wish to.
d. Required to get approval from a High Court first.
23. Section 16A(1) of the EPA, 1986 requires the Central Government to prepare an annual statement of accounts in consultation with which authority?
a. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
b. The Ministry of Finance
c. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)
d. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
24. A person summoned by an officer under Section 50 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 is legally obligated to:
a. Attend in person or through an authorized agent.
b. State the truth upon any subject related to the investigation.
c. Produce documents as required.
d. All of the above.
25. What does the term "Contracting State" mean under PMLA?
a. Any country with which India has an agreement under PMLA
b. Any country that is a member of the United Nations
c. Any country that is a party to the FATF
d. Any country that is a member of the Commonwealth
26. The stringent bail conditions ("double condition") under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 require the Special Court to be satisfied that:
a. The accused is not guilty of the offense.
b. The accused is not likely to commit any offense while on bail.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. The accused has surrendered all their assets.
27. The term "Adjudicating Authority" refers to the authority appointed under which section of the PMLA?
a. Section 2(1)(a)
b. Section 6
c. Section 8
d. Section 11
28. The offense of money laundering under Section 3 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 is a standalone offense and does not require a prior conviction of the predicate offense. This interpretation was established by the Supreme Court in:
a. P. Chidambaram v. Directorate of Enforcement
b. Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India
c. Gautam Kundu v. Directorate of Enforcement
d. Anil Kumar v. U.P. State
29. A company must hold its first Board of Directors meeting within how many days of its incorporation?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
30. Who can file a written complaint to a court regarding an offense committed by a company or its officer under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The Registrar
b. A shareholder or member of the company
c. A person authorized by the Central Government
d. All of the above
31. When a company is dissolved under Section 248 of the Companies Act, 2013, it ceases to operate, and its Certificate of Incorporation is cancelled, except for which purpose?
a. Continuing its business
b. Realizing amounts due and discharging liabilities
c. Paying dividends to shareholders
d. Entering into new contracts
32. A company creates a charge on its assets. Within what period must the particulars of the charge, together with the instrument, be filed with the Registrar?
a. 30 days of the creation of the charge.
b. 60 days of the creation of the charge.
c. 90 days of the creation of the charge.
d. 120 days of the creation of the charge.
33. If the company fails to file the satisfaction of charge within the standard period (30 days), the Registrar may allow the filing within a further period of 300 days upon payment of additional fees. This extension is allowed based on:
a. A simple application.
b. A special resolution of the company.
c. Approval of the Central Government.
d. Approval of the NCLT.
34. Section 90 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:
a. Register of Directors
b. Register of Charges
c. Register of Significant Beneficial Owners
d. Annual General Meetings
35. Under the Companies Act, 2013 the Annual Return contains particulars as they stood on which date?
a. On the last day of the financial year.
b. On the date of the Annual General Meeting.
c. On the date of the first Board Meeting.
d. On the date of incorporation.
36. Within how many days of the conclusion of its Annual General Meeting must a company file its Annual Return with the Registrar under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
37. Where are the registers and records required by the Companies Act, 2013, primarily kept?
a. At the company's Head Office.
b. At the company's Registered Office.
c. At the Registrar of Companies (RoC) office.
d. At the office of the Company Secretary.
38. What is the maximum time gap allowed between two consecutive Annual General Meetings under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. 6 months
b. 9 months
c. 12 months
d. 15 months
39. Under the Companies Act, 2013, Does a company need to hold an AGM in the year of its incorporation if it holds its first AGM within 9 months of the close of the first financial year?
a. Yes, it is mandatory to hold one every calendar year.
b. No, the first AGM satisfies the requirement for the year of incorporation.
c. Yes, but only with NCLT approval.
d. No, only public companies are exempt from this.
40. Under the Companies Act, 2013, An AGM must be called during which hours?
a. Any time of day or night.
b. During business hours (9 a.m. to 6 p.m.).
c. Between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m.
d. The Act does not specify the time.
41. What is the minimum number of "clear days" notice required for calling a general meeting of a company under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 30 days
42. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the consent for a shorter notice must be given in writing or by which mode?
a. Verbally to the company secretary.
b. By a public announcement in a newspaper.
c. By electronic mode.
d. By a phone call to the director.
43. Section 150 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the selection and databank of which type of director?
a. Managing Director
b. Whole-Time Director
c. Independent Director
d. Nominee Director
44. Section 200 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the fixation of remuneration when a company has:
a. Very high profits.
b. Inadequate or no profits.
c. Declared a bonus issue.
d. Issued new debentures.
45. After a company is dissolved under Section 248 of the Companies Act, 2013, is the Certificate of Incorporation still valid?
a. Yes, indefinitely.
b. Yes, for legal proceedings only.
c. No, the Certificate of Incorporation is deemed to be cancelled.
d. The Section does not specify.
46. Section 107 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with abetment of suicide for specific vulnerable individuals. Which group is covered?
a. Under 18 years
b. Mentally ill
c. Delirious or intoxicated
d. All of the above
47. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with punishment of dowry death?
a. Section 79
b. Section 80(1)
c. Section 80(2)
d. None of the above
48. A falsely informs a public servant that Z has contraband salt in a secret place, knowing such information to be false, and knowing that it is likely that the consequence of the information will be a search of Z’s premises, attended with annoyance to Z. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 218
b. Section 215
c. Section 216
d. Section 217
49. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Sale of drug as a different drug or preparation”?
a. Section 151
b. Section 268
c. Section 278
d. Section 260
50. Who can be held liable for the offence of falsification of accounts under Section 344 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Only the managing director of a company
b. Any person who is a clerk, officer, or servant acting with fraudulent intent
c. Only the owner of the company
d. Any person, regardless of their employment status
51. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with the term “harbour”?
a. Section 2(13)
b. Section 2(14)
c. Section 2(15)
d. Section 2(11)
52. Under BNS Section 86, the definition of "cruelty" includes which of the following?
a. Any wilful conduct likely to drive a woman to commit suicide.
b. Causing grave injury or danger to the woman's life, limb, or mental health.
c. Harassment intended to coerce the woman or her family to meet unlawful demands.
d. All of the above.
53. In a dowry death case under BNS Section 80, the term "dowry" has the same meaning as defined in which of the following?
a. The Indian Contract Act, 1872
b. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
c. The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
d. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
54. A woman dies by suicide five years into her marriage. Evidence shows she was being harassed for dowry by her in-laws, but the last incident of harassment occurred eight months before her death. Will the presumption of dowry death apply under the BNS?
a. Yes, because the harassment occurred within seven years of marriage.
b. No, because the harassment was not "soon before" the death.
c. It depends on the nature of the harassment, but the time gap may weaken the presumption.
d. Yes, but the prosecution must prove that the harassment was a direct cause of the suicide.
55. Which of the following elements is absolutely essential to prove the offence of criminal breach of trust under Section 316 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. The property must be immovable.
b. The accused must be a public servant.
c. The accused was entrusted with the property.
d. The offence was committed for personal financial gain.
56. Under Section 310(3) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a murder is committed during a dacoity by any one of the dacoits, what is the maximum punishment that can be imposed on all members of the group?
a. Rigorous imprisonment for a term of ten years.
b. Imprisonment for life.
c. Death penalty.
d. Any of the above, along with a fine.
57. Section 324 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with the offence of:
a. Culpable homicide
b. Mischief
c. Theft
d. Cheating
58. In which of the following case, it was held that the death sentence should be given in the 'rarest of rare cases'?
a. R. v. Govinda
b. Hussain Ara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
c. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
d. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
59. As per Explanation 2 to Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, "consent" is defined as an unequivocal voluntary agreement. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding the nature of this consent?
a. Consent must be communicated through words or gestures.
b. Consent must be communicated through any form of verbal or non-verbal communication.
c. A woman's lack of physical resistance to the act of penetration can be regarded as consent.
d. The communication must convey a willingness to participate in the specific sexual act.
60. Under the BNS, a child under what age is granted absolute immunity from criminal liability, regardless of their understanding of the act?
a. Under seven years of age
b. Under ten years of age
c. Under twelve years of age
d. Under fourteen years of age
61. The term "child" under BNS 2023 is defined as a person below the age of:
a. 12 years
b. 16 years
c. 18 years
d. 21 years
62. A, a shopkeeper, locks a customer, B, inside his shop for refusing to pay for an item B had stolen. What offense has A committed under the BNS?
a. Wrongful restraint, as B was only prevented from moving in one direction.
b. Wrongful confinement, as B was prevented from leaving a circumscribed area.
c. Assault, as A used force to lock B in.
d. No offense, as A had a right to detain B for shoplifting.
63. Which of the following is NOT a category of person that an Investigating Officer (IO) can summon to the police station for examination under Section 180 read with Section 179?
a. A male person aged 25.
b. A male person above the age of 60 years.
c. A mentally or physically disabled person.
d. Any woman.
64. Which courts have the authority to direct a Magistrate to levy the amount due on a bond for appearance or attendance under Section 496 of the BNSS, 2023?
a. Any court in the Sessions division.
b. The High Court or Court of Session.
c. Only the High Court.
d. The Magistrate's court itself.
65. Under Section 420 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person can appeal to the Supreme Court if the High Court has reversed an acquittal and imposed a sentence of:
a. Life imprisonment
b. Imprisonment for a term of ten years or more.
c. The death penalty.
d. All of the above.
66. In a rape trial conducted in camera, can any person be allowed to remain in the courtroom?
a. No, no one is ever allowed inside.
b. Yes, if the presiding Judge thinks fit or upon an application by either party.
c. Yes, but only with the consent of both the victim and the accused.
d. Yes, if the person is a relative of the victim.
67. Under Section 239 of the BNSS, a court can alter or add to any charge. When can this power be exercised?
a. Only before the commencement of the trial.
b. At any time before the judgment is pronounced.
c. Only with the consent of the accused.
d. Within 30 days of the commencement of the trial.
68. What does Section 314 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, deal with?
a. The accused person's right to an advocate.
b. The interpretation of evidence to the accused or their advocate.
c. The process for tendering a pardon to an accomplice.
d. The powers of police to arrest without a warrant.
69. If an accused is charged with three offenses of the same kind that occurred within a 12-month period, can they be tried together in one trial under Section 242 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?
a. No, each offense must be tried separately.
b. Yes, provided the total number of offenses of the same kind does not exceed five.
c. Yes, provided the total number of offenses of the same kind does not exceed three.
d. Yes, regardless of the number of offenses.
70. Within what timeframe must a Magistrate or police officer forward a body for medical examination in a case under Section 196?
a. As soon as possible, but no specific timeframe.
b. Within twenty-four hours of the death.
c. Within forty-eight hours of the death.
d. Only after the inquiry is completed.
71. If a person states before a Magistrate that they are not willing to make a confession, what is the Magistrate's immediate course of action under Section 183?
a. The Magistrate can compel the person to make the confession.
b. The Magistrate must not authorize the detention of that person in police custody.
c. The Magistrate can only record the statement, not the confession.
d. The Magistrate must inform the investigating officer of the refusal.
72. If an 'ex parte' order is made under Section 145, how long does the affected person have to apply to set it aside (cancel it) for good cause?
a. 7 days
b. 1 month
c. 3 months
d. 1 year
73. According to Section 90 of BNSS, in which situations can a court issue an arrest warrant instead of or in addition to a summons?
a. If there is reason to believe the person has absconded.
b. If the person fails to appear after being summoned.
c. If the offense is punishable by more than 7 years imprisonment.
d. Both A and B.
74. Which section of the BNSS empowers a Court of Session or a Magistrate of the first class to require security for keeping the peace upon conviction for certain offences?
a. Section 125
b. Section 126
c. Section 128
d. Section 130
75. Section 80 of the BNSS, 2023 deals with which of the following?
a. Form of arrest warrant
b. Execution of warrant within local limits
c. Warrant forwarded for execution outside jurisdiction
d. Arrest without warrant by police
76. According to Section 1(2) of the BNSS, the provisions of the Sanhita (other than Chapters IX, XI, and XII) shall not apply to which of the following areas?
a. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
b. All metropolitan areas in India
c. The State of Nagaland and tribal areas
d. Only the tribal areas of Assam
77. A "warrant-case" under Section 2(1)(z) of the BNSS refers to a case concerning an offence punishable with:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
c. Death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding two years
d. Imprisonment for a term less than one year
78. Which section of the BNSS addresses the mode of conferring powers on officers of the court?
a. Section 26
b. Section 28
c. Section 29
d. Section 30
79. According to BNSS Section 35, a police officer may arrest any person without a warrant who, in the officer's presence, commits a _________ offence.
a. Bailable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Compoundable
d. Cognizable
80. As per Section 107 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proving any fact necessary to make other evidence admissible is on:
a. The opposing party
b. The police or investigating agency
c. The person who wishes to give such evidence
d. The Court
81. Which section deals with “Burden of proof as to ownership”?
a. Section 111
b. Section 114
c. Section 112
d. Section 113
82. The presumption under Section 118 applies when the question relates to which offence?
a. Murder of a woman
b. Abetment of suicide of a woman
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Dowry death of a woman
83. The presumption under Section 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 arises in a prosecution for rape under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 64(1)
b. Section 64(2)
c. Section 65
d. Section 66
84. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with “OF THE EXCLUSION OF ORAL EVIDENCE BY DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE”?
a. CHAPTER VII
b. CHAPTER VI
c. CHAPTER V
d. CHAPTER IV
85. If the attesting witness can be found, but denies or does not recall the execution of the document, which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam would be relevant?
a. Section 67
b. Section 68
c. Section 70
d. Section 71
86. According to Section 64 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when is secondary evidence of a document's contents generally inadmissible?
a. When a party has not given prior notice to produce the original document.
b. When the original is lost.
c. When the original has been destroyed.
d. When the document is a public document.
87. Which section deals with “Proof of documents by primary evidence”?
a. Section 61
b. Section 59
c. Section 50
d. Section 62
88. According to Section 4 of the BSA, facts that are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are:
a. Inadmissible
b. Always admissible
c. Admissible if they are relevant.
d. Irrelevant
89. In a representative suit (e.g., by a trustee), when are statements made by that party considered admissions under Section 16(2) of the BSA?
a. Always, regardless of the capacity in which they were made.
b. Only if they were made while the party held that representative character.
c. Only if they were made in a personal capacity.
d. Never, as representatives cannot make admissions.
90. Statements made by persons who have a proprietary or pecuniary interest in the subject-matter of the proceeding are admissions under Section 16(2)(ii)(a) if made during which time frame?
a. Before the interest commenced
b. After the interest ceased
c. During the continuance of the interest
d. At any time, provided they relate to the subject matter
91. In the landmark case of Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor, what principle was clarified regarding dying declarations?
a. Dying declarations can only be oral.
b. The declarant must be a police officer.
c. The statement must explain the transaction that resulted in death.
d. Dying declarations are inadmissible in criminal cases.
92. According to Section 3 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, evidence can be given for which of the following?
a. Only facts in issue.
b. Only relevant facts.
c. Both facts in issue and relevant facts.
d. Any fact, whether relevant or not.
93. According to Section 8 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is considered relevant in a legal proceeding?
a. Only the existence of a conspiracy
b. Only the overt acts of the conspirators
c. Only the common intention of the conspirators
d. Anything said or done by a conspirator
94. Section 117 of the BSA, 2023, creates a presumption regarding dowry death. This presumption states that if a married woman dies under suspicious circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and it is shown that she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or his relatives, the court:
a. Shall presume that the husband or relatives did not cause her death.
b. May presume that the husband or relatives caused her death.
c. Shall presume that the husband or relatives caused her death.
d. May call for additional evidence before making any presumption.
95. Which provision of BSA, 2023 deals with “Exclusion of evidence to explain or amend ambiguous document”?
a. Section 95
b. Section 96
c. Section 97
d. Section 94
96. What is "Primary Evidence" as defined in Section 57 of the BSA?
a. Copies of the original document.
b. The document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
c. Oral accounts of the document's contents.
d. Electronic records that are not the original.
97. "For making reservation in promotion in public employment under Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which of the following are the essential requirements?
1. Backwardness
2. Inadequate representation
3. Maintenance of efficiency in service.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:"
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
98. Which of the following statements about the right to education (Article 21A) is incorrect?
a. It was added by the 86th Amendment Act.
b. It provides for free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of six and fourteen years.
c. It is a fundamental right enforceable by the courts.
d. It obligates the government to provide early childhood care and education to all children until they complete the age of six years.
99. The S.R. Bommai judgment significantly impacted the interpretation of which constitutional provision?
a. Article 124 (Appointment of Supreme Court Judges)
b. Article 356 (President's Rule in states)
c. Article 368 (Constitutional Amendment procedure)
d. Article 155 (Appointment of Governors)
100. Which of the following constitutional articles grants the Supreme Court the power to review its own judgments or orders?
a. Article 136
b. Article 137
c. Article 141
d. Article 142
101. Under which provision can the Parliament pass a law on a subject mentioned in the State List for the purpose of implementing an international treaty or agreement?
a. Article 249
b. Article 252
c. Article 253
d. Article 312
102. The power of judicial review over the decisions of Tribunals established under Article 323A and 323B is vested with the High Courts and the Supreme Court. This was reaffirmed in which case?
a. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
b. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
c. R.K. Jain v. Union of India
d. Union of India v. R. Gandhi
103. Which amendment and subsequent case law combination correctly defines the status of the right to property?
a. 44th Amendment; Kesavananda Bharati case
b. 44th Amendment; Minerva Mills case
c. 44th Amendment; I.R. Coelho case
d. 24th Amendment; Golaknath case
104. Which constitutional article, originally intended for a transitional period, has been amended multiple times and now contains special provisions for several states?
a. Article 370
b. Article 371
c. Article 372
d. Article 374
105. With reference to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143, consider the following statements:
1. The President can refer any question of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
2. The Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
3. In a reference concerning disputes arising out of pre-Constitution treaties, the Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
106. Which of the following constitutional provisions was primarily instrumental in reinforcing the Supreme Court's power of judicial review in relation to laws placed under the Ninth Schedule?
a. Article 32
b. Article 142
c. Article 13
d. The Basic Structure Doctrine
107. Regarding the procedure for constitutional amendment under Article 368, consider the following statements:
1. A Bill for constitutional amendment can only be introduced by a minister in the Union Parliament.
2. The President can send back a Bill for constitutional amendment for reconsideration.
3. The provision of a joint sitting of Parliament is not available for a constitutional amendment Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
108. The Parliament's power to legislate on a matter in the State List under a Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 249) can last for a maximum duration of:
a. One year
b. Six months after the resolution ceases to be in force
c. Two years
d. none of the above
109. Consider the following statements about the Sarkaria Commission:
1. It was appointed in 1983 to examine the Centre-State relationship.
2. It recommended the abolition of the post of Governor.
3. It recommended the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
110. which part of the Constitution deals with the amendment to the Constitution and it’s procedure?
a. Part XlX
b. Part XX
c. Part XXl
d. Part XXll
111. Parliament cannot amend the provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in
a. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
b. Minerva Mills case (1980)
c. Golakhnath case (1967)
d. Champakam Dorairanjan case (1951)
112. There are some provisions in the Constitution that can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament and are outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Use of English language in Parliament.
3. Admission or establishment of new states.
Select the correct answer using the code below
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3 only
d. None of the above
113. One Hundred and First Amendment Act, 2016 is related with
a. Goods and services tax
b. Advancement of economically weaker sections of citizens.
c. National Judicial Appointments Commission
d. Gave a constitutional status to co-operative societies
114. What must the office of the Controller of Certifying Authorities maintain, as per Section 17(6)?
a. A database of all internet users in India.
b. A repository of all private keys.
c. A seal of the office.
d. A dedicated cyber police station.
115. Section 23 governs the renewal of a CA license. An application for renewal must be made a certain number of days before the license's expiry. What is this minimum period?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
116. Under Section 25, a Certifying Authority can suspend an Electronic Signature Certificate. What is the maximum duration for which a certificate can be suspended by a CA without giving the subscriber an opportunity of being heard?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. Indefinitely
117. According to Section 35(3), what document detailing the applicant's practices must accompany the application?
a. A non-disclosure agreement
b. A security audit report
c. A certification practice statement (or a statement with specified particulars)
d. A bank guarantee of Rs. 1 lakh
118. Section 43 creates civil liability for various unauthorized acts. Which specific clause in Section 43 refers to "stealing, concealing, destroying, or altering or causing any person to steal, conceal, destroy or alter any computer source code used for a computer resource with an intention to cause damage"?
a. Section 43(b)
b. Section 43(h)
c. Section 43(j)
d. Section 43(g)
119. If a body corporate fails to include a required privacy policy in its mobile application as mandated by specific rules under the IT Act, and there is no separate penalty provision for this exact failure, which section would likely be invoked?
a. Section 66A
b. Section 43A
c. Section 67
d. Section 45
120. Section 47 of the IT Act, 2000 mandates that while adjudging the quantum of compensation or penalty, the Adjudicating Officer must have "due regard" to which specific set of factors?
a. The age of the offender, their financial status, and prior criminal record.
b. The intent (mens rea) of the offender, the cost of the computer, and legal fees incurred.
c. The amount of gain of unfair advantage, the amount of loss caused to any person, and the repetitive nature of the default.
d. The speed of the computer, the type of virus used, and the location of the offense
