UPSC CBI APP & PP MOCK TEST-3
Time Duration - 2:00 Hour
Total Marks – 300
Negative Marking – ½
1. In what capacity does a member of the DSPE function when exercising powers and jurisdiction extended to an area in a State under Section 5?
a. As a representative of the Central Government with exclusive powers.
b. As a member of the police force of that State, with the same powers, duties, and liabilities.
c. As an independent investigator, not subject to the local police hierarchy.
d. none of the above
2. The DSPE Act, 1946, was extended to the whole of India by which later amendment?
a. The Repealing and Amending Act, 1950.
b. The Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Act, 2021.
c. The Adaptation of Laws Order, 1956.
d. The Repealing and Amending Act, 1952.
3. Section 4B of the DSPE Act deals with the terms and conditions of the service of the Director of the CBI. What is the fixed term of the Director of the CBI?
a. One year, extendable by one year at a time.
b. Two years, extendable up to a total of five years.
c. Two years, extendable by one year at a time, up to a total of five years.
d. Three years, with no provision for extension.
4. The term "undue advantage" is defined in which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(d)
c. Section 2(c)
d. Section 2(b)
5. Prior to the 2018 amendment, the term "criminal misconduct" in Section 13(1) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 included four categories of actions by a public servant. The 2018 amendment changed this. What is the key change made to Section 13(1)?
a. It removed the offense of dishonestly misappropriating property.
b. It introduced a new offense for public servants.
c. It omitted two of the four previous categories, specifically those relating to illegal gratification and valuable things.
d. It merged all the categories into a single, broader offense.
6. What is the effect of Section 27, which states that the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, any other law for the time being in force?
a. It overrides all other laws regarding corruption.
b. It allows for prosecution under both the Prevention of Corruption Act and other relevant laws.
c. It prevents prosecution under any other law if a case is filed under the Act.
d. It means the Act only applies to cases not covered by other laws.
7. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was enacted to:
a. Consolidate and amend the law relating to the prevention of corruption.
b. Create a new police force to investigate corruption.
c. Only deal with private sector corruption.
d. Provide a guideline for departmental inquiries.
8. Who has the power to appoint Special Judges for trying offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
a. The Central Government
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Central Government and the State Government
d. The High Court
9. The committee for appointing the Director of Enforcement under Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 includes which of the following members?
a. Central Vigilance Commissioner (as Chairperson), Home Secretary, Finance Secretary
b. Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, Finance Minister
c. Chief Justice of India, Finance Minister, Home Minister
d. Central Vigilance Commissioner (as Chairperson), Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary of Personnel, Secretary of Revenue
10. Who receives the advice from the Central Vigilance Commission regarding the course of action after an inquiry?
a. The Central Government and its controlled corporations and companies.
b. The Chief Justice of India.
c. The Minister of Home Affairs.
d. The general public.
11. Within what timeframe must the CVC present its annual report to the President?
a. Within one month of the close of the year.
b. Within three months of the close of the year.
c. Within six months of the close of the year.
d. At the end of each calendar year.
12. During an inquiry, the CVC has the power to require the discovery and production of what?
a. Only government-related documents
b. Any document
c. Only documents related to the accused official
d. Any document, as long as it is available in the city
13. A preliminary inquiry under Section 8A of Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 is limited to investigating allegations of corruption against which specific category of public servants?
a. Group 'A' and 'B' officials only
b. All public servants within the CVC's original jurisdiction
c. Group 'C' and 'D' officials of the Central Government
d. All officials referred to the CVC by the Lokpal, regardless of their grade
14. According to Section 12(1) of the Competition Act, 2002, a former Chairperson or Member of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is restricted from accepting employment with, or being connected with the management or administration of, certain enterprises for a specific period. What is the precise duration of this restriction?
a. One year.
b. Eighteen months.
c. Two years.
d. Three years.
15. Under The Competition Act, 2002, With whose prior approval can the CCI enter into an arrangement with a foreign agency for its duties and functions?
a. The Chairperson of the CCI.
b. The Central Government.
c. The Reserve Bank of India.
d. The Chief Justice of India.
16. Under Section 2(c) of the Competition Act, what is a "cartel"?
a. An association of enterprises that agree to fix prices.
b. An association of enterprises that agree to share market research.
c. A large enterprise with a dominant position in the market.
d. A government body that regulates prices.
17. The Competition Act, 2002, replaced which older law?
a. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
b. The Companies Act, 1956.
c. The Indian Contract Act, 1872.
d. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
18. When did The Competition Act, 2002 receive the assent of the President of India?
a. 13th January, 2003.
b. 31st March, 2003.
c. 1st September, 2009.
d. 1st April, 2002.
19. The power to issue directions under Section 5 of the EPA, 1986 includes which of the following measures?
a. The power to direct the closure, prohibition, or regulation of any industry or operation.
b. The power to direct the stoppage or regulation of supply of electricity or water or any other service.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. Only the power to impose monetary fines.
20. Under the amended Section 14A(1) of the EPA, 1986, a person contravening Section 7 or Section 8 is liable to pay a penalty that shall not be less than:
a. Ten thousand rupees
b. Fifty thousand rupees
c. One lakh rupees
d. Five lakh rupees
21. The appeal to the NGT under Section 15D of the EPA, 1986 can be entertained only if the aggrieved person has deposited a certain percentage of the penalty imposed. What is that percentage?
a. Five per cent
b. Ten per cent
c. Twenty per cent
d. Fifty per cent
22. What is the primary purpose of the Environmental Protection Fund established under Section 16 of the EPA, 1986?
a. To fund the salaries of government officials
b. To finance international environmental conferences
c. To promote environmental awareness, education, and research
d. To cover the operational costs of polluting industries
23. What condition must a person meet to be appointed or recognized as a Government Analyst under Section 13 of the EPA, 1986?
a. They must be a legal professional.
b. They must have the prescribed qualifications.
c. They must be a high-ranking government official already.
d. They must have at least 10 years of experience in the police force.
24. A provisional attachment order issued under Section 5 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 is valid for a maximum period of:
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 180 days
d. 365 days
25. In a case involving two or more inter-connected transactions where one is proven to be money laundering, Section 23 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 creates a presumption that:
a. The remaining transactions are also a part of the money laundering.
b. The remaining transactions are legitimate unless proven otherwise.
c. The entire case must be dismissed.
d. The burden of proof shifts to the prosecution.
26. If the Chairperson refers a case with divided opinions among Bench Members to a larger Bench under Section 38 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002, what is the role of the larger Bench?
a. The larger Bench must decide by a majority.
b. The larger Bench must reconsider the entire case.
c. The larger Bench must give its opinion on the specific points of difference.
d. The larger Bench is bound by the previous Bench's opinion.
27. Which section of the PMLA, 2002, designates the Chairperson, Members, and officers of the Appellate Tribunal and the Adjudicating Authority as public servants?
a. Section 35
b. Section 38
c. Section 39
d. Section 40
28. Which of the following is an exception to the strict bail conditions under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002?
a. The accused is a woman.
b. The accused is a minor.
c. The accused is sick or infirm.
d. All of the above.
29. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the quorum for a Board meeting is:
a. One-third of the total strength of the Board or two directors, whichever is higher.
b. Half of the total strength of the Board.
c. One-third of the total strength of the Board.
d. Any two directors.
30. Which body has the power of appeal and revision against the orders of a Special Court under the Companies Act, 2013, similar to its powers under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
31. Who is the Adjudicating Officer under the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The Registrar of Companies (RoC)
b. The Regional Director
c. The Central Government
d. The Company Law Board
32. According to Section 249 of the Companies Act, 2013, a voluntary strike-off application is restricted if, in the previous three months, the company has done which of the following?
a. Changed its name
b. Disposed of property for gain
c. Engaged in activity other than preparing for strike-off
d. All of the above
33. Within what period from the dissolution notice can a company, member, creditor, or workman apply to the Tribunal for restoration?
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 20 years
34. Section 22 of the Companies Act, 2013 relates to the execution of which of the following instruments on behalf of a company?
a. Cheques
b. Bills of exchange, hundis, and promissory notes
c. Demand drafts
d. Share certificates
35. Section 202 of the Companies Act, 2013 allows for compensation for the loss of office. To whom can this compensation be paid?
a. Any director
b. A managing or whole-time director or manager
c. A company secretary
d. Any officer of the company
36. Section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the appointment of:
a. Managing director
b. Independent director
c. Key Managerial Personnel (KMP)
d. Small shareholders' director
37. Which entity has the power to order an investigation into the affairs of a company under Section 210 of the Companies Act, 2013?
a. The Board of Directors
b. The Registrar of Companies (RoC)
c. The Central Government
d. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
38. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 formerly allowed the Tribunal to declare the dissolution of a company void within a specific timeframe?
a. Section 350
b. Section 356
c. Section 375
d. Section 380
39. Section 2(46) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines a "holding company" in relation to one or more other companies. The company that is controlled is called the:
a. Associate company
b. Subsidiary company
c. Joint venture
d. Related party
40. Section 5 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:
a. Memorandum of Association
b. Articles of Association
c. Issue of Prospectus
d. Board Meetings
41. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with companies formed for what purpose?
a. Earning high profits.
b. Charitable objects, such as promoting art, science, or commerce.
c. Conducting business overseas.
d. Winding up and dissolution.
42. Section 13 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the alteration of which document?
a. Articles of Association (AoA)
b. Annual Return (MGT-7)
c. Memorandum of Association (MoA)
d. Financial Statements (AOC-4)
43. Section 16 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with:
a. Incorporation of a company
b. Alteration of Memorandum
c. Rectification of the name of a company
d. Registered office of a company
44. Section 18 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the:
a. Incorporation of new companies.
b. Conversion of existing companies from one class to another.
c. Winding up of companies.
d. Appointment of directors.
45. Section 34 of the Companies Act, 2013 imposes criminal liability for mis-statements in a:
a. Annual Return.
b. Financial Statement.
c. Prospectus.
d. Director's Report.
46. What is the fundamental principle stated in Section 34 of the BNS regarding acts done in private defence?
a. Such acts are offenses but carry lesser punishment.
b. Such acts are completely exempt from criminal liability (not an offense).
c. Such acts are only justified if performed by a public servant.
d. Such acts require the explicit prior permission of a court.
47. What is the offence under Section 228 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Threatening a witness
b. Giving false evidence verbally
c. Creating a false entry in a record to be used as evidence
d. Obstructing a public servant
48. As per Section 197 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, publishing imputations that certain groups cannot be loyal to the Constitution is considered prejudicial to:
a. Public order
b. National integration
c. Religious sentiments
d. Individual liberty
49. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 “Fraudulently intention" has been defined as "doing anything with the intention to defraud but not otherwise"?
a. Section 2(4)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(8)
d. Section 2(9)
50. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with Cohabitation caused by man deceitfully inducing belief of lawful marriage?
a. Section 80
b. Section 82
c. Section 81
d. Section 84
51. A enters a passenger train, which qualifies as a transport vehicle under the BNS. A finds an unattended bag and dishonestly moves it with the intention of taking it. What offense has A committed?
a. Simple theft under Section 303.
b. Theft in a dwelling house, transport vehicle, or place of worship under Section 305.
c. Criminal trespass with the intent to commit theft.
d. Petty organized crime if it is part of a series of similar acts.
52. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal conspiracy is defined in which section?
a. Section 45
b. Section 50
c. Section 61
d. Section 106
53. A agrees with B to recover A's debt from C by illegally confining C. A and B then lock C inside his house for a day. In this case, what is required to prove criminal conspiracy under the BNS?
a. Only the agreement between A and B is sufficient.
b. The agreement plus the overt act of confining C are both necessary.
c. Only the illegal confinement of C is sufficient.
d. Only a verbal agreement is required
54. What is the legal provision for wrongful restraint under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023?
a. Section 127
b. Section 126
c. Section 61
d. Section 303
55. What is the maximum punishment prescribed under BNS for simple wrongful restraint?
a. Imprisonment for up to one year and a fine up to ₹1,000.
b. Imprisonment for up to six months or a fine up to ₹5,000.
c. Simple imprisonment for up to one month or a fine up to ₹5,000, or both.
d. Imprisonment for up to three months or a fine up to ₹1,000
56. Abduction under the BNS is defined as compelling or inducing a person to go from any place by which means?
a. Force
b. Deceitful means
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Threatening with a fine
57. In BNS 2023, the term "document" has been explicitly expanded to include:
a. Handwritten notes only
b. Printed material only
c. Electronic and digital records
d. Verbal testimonies only
58. Which of the following terms, used but not explicitly defined in the BNS, will be understood according to the definitions given in another specific Act?
a. "Terrorism"
b. "Transgender"
c. "Organized crime"
d. "Court"
59. Under the BNS, who can be defamed besides a living person?
a. Only a deceased person
b. A company, association, or deceased person
c. A deceased person or a family member
d. Only a public official
60. A is the manager of a warehouse and is entrusted with the care of goods. A dishonestly takes a few items from the warehouse for his personal use. Under which BNS section would A be charged?
a. Theft under Section 303.
b. Theft by a clerk or servant under Section 306.
c. Criminal breach of trust under Section 316.
d. Dishonest misappropriation under Section 314
61. Dowry death is defined under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 80
b. Section 82
c. Section 84
d. Section 86
62. Z is thrown from his horse, and is insensible. A, a surgeon, finds that Z requires to Consent known to be given under fear or misconception. Exclusion of acts which are offences independently of harm caused. A, not intending Z’s death, but in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging for himself. A has committed?
a. Offence under BNS
b. No offence
c. A or b
d. None of the above
63. Under the BNSS, the maximum duration for which an investigation for an offence punishable with less than 10 years of imprisonment must be completed is:
a. 30 days, extendable by a magistrate to 60 days.
b. 60 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
c. 90 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
d. 180 days, after which the accused may be entitled to default bail.
64. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Power to postpone or adjourn proceedings”?
a. Section 342
b. Section 346
c. Section 344
d. Section 345
65. Which court can hear an appeal from a person convicted by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge under Section 415(2) of the BNSS?
a. The Supreme Court
b. The High Court
c. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. The District Magistrate
66. As per Section 301 of BNSS, for the purposes of Chapter XXIV, what does the term "prison" include?
a. Only Central jails.
b. Any reformatory, Borstal institution, or other similar institution.
c. Only jails designated by the Central Government.
d. Only high-security prisons.
67. When the person summoned cannot, by the exercise of due diligence, be found, which section of the BNSS allows for service by leaving the duplicate summons with an adult male or female member of their family residing with them?
a. Section 61
b. Section 64
c. Section 66
d. Section 70
68. Chapter V of the BNSS primarily deals with which aspect of the criminal procedure?
a. Filing appeals in the High Court
b. Arrest of persons
c. Transfer of criminal cases
d. Recording of confessions by magistrates
69. What does Section 530 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 primarily authorize?
a. The introduction of plea bargaining in criminal cases.
b. The mandatory physical attendance of the accused in all court proceedings.
c. The conducting of trials and proceedings through electronic means, like video conferencing.
d. The granting of special powers to police officers for making arrests without a warrant.
70. Which clause of Section 2 of BNSS defines the term "bailable offence"?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(c)
c. Section 2(d)
d. Section 2(g)
71. Under BNSS Section 23, what is the maximum term of imprisonment a Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) may pass in a sentence?
a. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.
b. Imprisonment for life.
c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years.
d. The death penalty.
72. Under BNSS Section 119, the affected person served with a forfeiture notice is given a period to show cause why their property should not be declared proceeds of crime. What is the standard time period provided in the notice?
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
73. According to the BNSS, every warrant of arrest issued by a Court shall remain in force for how long?
a. For a period of 30 days from the date of issue.
b. Until it is executed or cancelled by the Court which issued it.
c. Until the person is caught or the case is closed.
d. For one year from the date of issue.
74. Which section of BNSS allows a court to publish a proclamation for the appearance of a person who has absconded after a warrant has been issued?
a. Section 80
b. Section 82
c. Section 84
d. Section 88
75. Which section of BNSS deals with “Police to prevent cognizable offences”?
a. Section 170
b. Section 167
c. Section 168
d. Section 165
76. A police officer seizes a lost bicycle. After six months, no one has come forward to claim it, and the person found with it cannot prove they bought it legally. According to Section 504 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what can the Magistrate do?
a. The Magistrate can personally keep the bicycle.
b. The Magistrate can order the bicycle to be donated to a local charity.
c. The Magistrate can order the bicycle to be given to the State Government to be sold.
d. The Magistrate must order the bicycle to be returned to the person from whom it was seized.
77. Under Section 2(1)(a) of the BNSS, "audio-video electronic means" is defined. Which statement correctly describes the intended scope of this definition?
a. It exclusively refers to mobile phone recordings by police officers.
b. It includes virtual reality technology and holographic projections for court appearances.
c. It includes various communication modes like video conferencing, television links, and other electronic communication methods.
d. The definition is restricted only to body cameras worn by police during arrests.
78. Under Section 43(5) of the BNSS, what is the specific restriction regarding the time of arrest for a woman?
a. A woman can only be arrested during daylight hours (sunrise to sunset).
b. A woman cannot be arrested between sunset and sunrise, except under exceptional circumstances with the prior permission of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
c. A woman police officer must always be present during the arrest of any woman, at any time.
d. A woman cannot be arrested at her residence under any circumstances.
79. What is the format requirement for the diary under Section 192(3) of the BNSS?
a. It must be a spiral-bound notebook.
b. It must be a soft-cover journal.
c. It must be a volume and duly paginated.
d. It can be in any format, including loose papers
80. Section 39 of the BSA, 2023, deals with "Opinions of experts". In which situation is the opinion of an expert a relevant fact?
a. On a point of domestic law.
b. On points of foreign law, science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions.
c. On the character of the accused.
d. On the credibility of a witness.
81. Section 36 of the BSA addresses the relevancy and effect of judgments, orders, or decrees other than those mentioned in Section 35. What is the general rule regarding their relevancy?
a. They are never relevant in subsequent proceedings.
b. They are relevant if they relate to matters of a public nature relevant to the inquiry.
c. They are only relevant if all parties in the new suit were also parties in the original suit.
d. They are conclusive proof of the facts stated therein.
82. A judgment in probate jurisdiction that confers a legal character on a person is relevant. What is the effect of such a judgment under Section 35(2) of the BSA?
a. It is suggestive evidence, but not binding.
b. It is not admissible in other courts.
c. It is conclusive proof of that legal character.
d. It is relevant only in the probate court.
83. Section 43 of the BSA makes the opinions of persons relevant on which specific matter?
a. Foreign law and science only.
b. Usages, tenets, or artistic matters.
c. Character of the accused person.
d. Financial solvency of a person.
84. What is the subject matter of Section 50 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Opinions of experts
b. Relevancy of good character in criminal cases
c. Character as affecting damages in civil cases
d. Previous bad character not relevant, except in reply
85. An identification parade conducted by a Judicial Magistrate to identify a person whom a witness saw during a crime is an example of establishing identity under which section of the BSA?
a. Section 7
b. Section 6
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
86. Under Section 12 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, facts are considered relevant if they show the existence of a state of mind. Which of the following is an example of a "state of mind" under this section?
a. Intention
b. Knowledge
c. Goodwill
d. All of the above
87. According to Section 139 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, regarding the number of witnesses, which of the following statements is correct?
a. A minimum of two witnesses is required to prove a fact.
b. The number of witnesses required depends on the gravity of the offence.
c. A particular number of witnesses is not required for the proof of any fact.
d. The court can decide the number of witnesses required on a case-by-case basis.
88. As per Section 2(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, if a term used in the Act is undefined, it must be interpreted using the definitions provided in:
a. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, and the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
b. The Information Technology Act, 2000, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
c. Precedent-setting judgments of the Supreme Court of India.
d. Its common, ordinary meaning, as is standard practice.
89. Under Section 26 of the BSA, 2023, a dying declaration is relevant even if the person making it was not expecting death. This is a significant change from the earlier law. Which of the following statements about this provision is correct?
a. It makes all statements by a deceased person admissible, regardless of context.
b. It expands the scope of dying declarations to include statements made without the fear of immediate death, as long as they concern the cause or circumstances of death.
c. It means the statement is now considered conclusive proof.
d. The statement is only relevant in proceedings where the cause of death is the main fact in issue.
90. What is the correct sequence of witness examination as outlined by Section 142 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Re-examination, cross-examination, examination-in-chief
b. Cross-examination, examination-in-chief, re-examination
c. Examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination
d. Examination-in-chief, re-examination, cross-examination
91. What is the legal classification of evidence given by a non-verbal witness through writing or signs in open court?
a. Documentary evidence.
b. Oral evidence.
c. Hearsay evidence.
d. Physical evidence.
92. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with “OF EXAMINATION OF WITNESSES”?
a. CHAPTER X
b. CHAPTER XI
c. CHAPTER IX
d. CHAPTER XII
93. Under the BSA, 2023, a confession made by an accused person while in the custody of a police officer is generally inadmissible. However, an exception is provided under the proviso to Section 22, which states that:
a. If the confession is made in the presence of a magistrate, it is admissible.
b. If any fact is discovered in consequence of information received from the accused, only that part of the information that relates distinctly to the discovery may be proved.
c. The entire confession can be proved if the accused willingly produced the evidence.
d. The confession becomes admissible if a witness corroborates it.
94. Section 128 of the BSA, 2023 deals with the privilege of:
a. Lawyers and clients.
b. Police officers regarding their duties.
c. Spouses regarding communications during marriage.
d. Doctors and patients.
95. According to Section 78 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the court shall presume the genuineness of a certified copy if it is certified by an officer of:
a. Only the Central Government
b. The Central Government or a State Government
c. Only the State Government
d. Any government officer
96. Under Section 92 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is the minimum age a document must be for a court to potentially presume its authenticity?
a. 10 years old
b. 20 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 50 years old
97. The Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within from the date of issue.
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
98. Which one of the following statements is correct? An ordinary bill introduced in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha becomes law
a. When it is passed by both the Houses and assent of the President is received
b. As soon as it is passed by both the House
c. "As soon as it is passed by the House in which it is originated"
d. None of the above
99. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Privacy is a part of Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
a. K.S. Puttaswamy case
b. M.P. Sharma case
c. Binoy Viswam case
d. Karak Singh case
100. In case of John Vallamattom v. Union of India, AIR 2003 SC, the Supreme Court held that Section 118 of the Indian Succession Act is violative of the Article
a. 25 and 26 of the Constitution
b. 21 and 32 of the Constitution
c. 32 and 226 of the Constitution
d. 136 and 141 of the Constitution
101. The scope of expression "procedure established by law" occurring in Article 21 was expanded in the case—
a. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
b. Charanjit Lai Chowdhury v. Union of India
c. K.A. Abbas v. Union of India
d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
102. “Autre Fois Acquit" principle is related to:
a. Retrospective-operators
b. Double Jeopardy
c. Ex Post Facto Law
d. Self-incrimination
103. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India is bound by its own judgments.
Reason (R): The highest courts bind all subordinate courts by its own judgements.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
104. Which one of the following is not included in Union List?
a. Postal service
b. Defence
c. Audit and Accounts
d. Public Health
105. The "Right to Constitutional Remedies" is available under which Article?
a. Article 19
b. Article 32
c. Article 14
d. Article 21
106. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed which right from the list of Fundamental Rights?
a. Right to freedom of speech
b. Right to property
c. Right to constitutional remedies
d. Right to life and personal liberty
107. The "balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)" was established as a component of the basic structure in which landmark case?
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
c. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
108. The residuary powers of legislation, which are not listed in any of the three lists (Union, State, or Concurrent), are vested with:
a. The Parliament of India
b. The State Legislatures
c. The President of India
d. The Supreme Court of India
109. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Vice-President of India:
I. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
II. The Vice-President can act as President for a maximum period of one year.
III. The Vice-President can be removed by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha and a simple majority in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements above are correct?
a. I and II only
b. I only
c. I and III only
d. II and III only
110. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament?
a. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
b. The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
c. It can be referred to a joint sitting of both Houses if there is a disagreement.
d. The Rajya Sabha can only delay a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days.
111. A State Legislature can authorize Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List through a resolution. This is possible under which of the following Articles?
a. Article 249
b. Article 252
c. Article 253
d. Article 256
112. Which one among the following is not a duty of the Prime Minister of India?
a. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union
b. To communicate to the President the proposals for legislation
c. To advise the President about disqualification of a Member of Parliament
d. To furnish information as the President may call for regarding administration of the affairs of the Union
113. "A" and "B" were the candidates for the post of Professor in a University. "B" is selected. "A" challenges the selection and appointment. What writ he should pray for?
a. Mandamus
b. Certiorari
c. Prohibition
d. Quo warranto
114. Section 2(1)(i) defines "computer" with a specific technical requirement. It must perform logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulations of:
a. Electrical, mechanical, or magnetic impulses
b. Electronic, magnetic, or optical impulses
c. Digital, analog, or quantum impulses
d. Only electronic impulses
115. Which section 2 definition was introduced by the 2008 Amendment Act to provide a technology-neutral authentication standard, moving beyond the strict PKI requirement?
a. "Digital Signature"
b. "Key pair" [Section 2(1)(x)]
c. "Electronic Signature" [Section 2(1)(ta)]
d. "Secure system" [Section 2(1)(ze)]
116. Section 3(4) of the Act refers to the "functioning key pair" used for electronic signatures. What are the two components of this pair, and what is the relationship between them?
a. A secure key for encryption and a public key for decryption.
b. A private key unique to the subscriber and a corresponding public key.
c. A subscriber key and a server key used for authentication.
d. An encryption key and a decryption key held by the Certifying Authority.
117. Section 8 allows for the publication of rules, regulations, and notifications in an Electronic Gazette. What is the legal implication of this publication compared to publication in the Official Gazette?
a. Publication in the Official Gazette is mandatory, while the Electronic Gazette is optional.
b. Publication in the Electronic Gazette is legally recognized as being equivalent to publication in the Official Gazette.
c. The Electronic Gazette is only for informational purposes and has no legal standing.
d. Publication must occur in both gazettes for legal validity.
118. Section 15 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with a "Secure electronic signature". For an electronic signature to be considered secure, whose exclusive control must the signature creation data be under at the time of signing?
a. The Certifying Authority (CA)
b. The Central Government
c. The signatory
d. Any intermediary involved
119. As per Section 14 of the IT Act, when is an electronic record deemed to be a "secure electronic record"?
a. When it is encrypted with a symmetric key.
b. When it is stored on a government server.
c. When a specific security procedure has been applied to it at a specific point in time.
d. When it is verified by a High Court judge
120. Section 17 of the IT Act deals with the appointment of the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA). Who is responsible for appointing the CCA?
a. The President of India
b. The State Government
c. The Central Government
d. The Supreme Court of India
