UPSC CBI APP & PP Mock Test -1 | English Medium

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UPSC CBI APP & PP MOCK TEST-1

Time Duration - 2:00 Hour

Total Marks – 300

Negative Marking – ½

1. Which section of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act empowers the Central Government to constitute the special police force?

a. Section 2

b. Section 3

c. Section 4

d. Section 5

2. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act was enacted in which year?

a. 1941

b. 1946

c. 1952

d. 1963

3. The committee for the appointment of the Director of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (or leader of the single largest opposition party), and:

a. The Home Minister

b. The Law Minister

c. The Chief Justice of India or A judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him

d. none of the above

4. Which section of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 addresses the issue of attempting to obtain or accept an undue advantage by a public servant?

a. Section 7

b. Section 8

c. Section 12

d. Section 15

5. Who is a "public servant" as defined under Section 2(c) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?

a. Any government employee

b. Any person in the pay or remuneration of the Government

c. Any person who performs a "public duty"

d. All of the above

6. What is the punishment for a public servant taking gratification under Section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, as amended in 2018?

a. Imprisonment for 3 to 7 years and fine

b. Imprisonment for 1 to 5 years

c. Imprisonment for 5 to 10 years

d. Fine only

7. A Special Judge can take cognizance of an offense under the Act without the accused being committed to them for trial. This power is outlined in which section of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?

a. Section 4

b. Section 5

c. Section 6

d. Section 7

8. Section 19(3) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 states that no finding, sentence, or order passed by a Special Judge shall be reversed or altered by a court of appeal on the ground of any error, omission, or irregularity in the sanction, unless:

a. The accused can prove the sanction was obtained fraudulently.

b. The court is satisfied that such error has occasioned a failure of justice.

c. The accused raises the issue at the first opportunity.

d. The prosecution fails to prove the guilt of the accused.

9. A Vigilance Commissioner (VC) can later be appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), but according to the proviso to Section 5(2) of the CVC Act, 2003, what is the maximum aggregate term for such an individual?

a. 6 years

b. 5 years

c. 4 years

d. Until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

10. Under Section 3(3) of the CVC Act, 2003, the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners are appointed from a pool of eligible persons. Which of the following conditions is a mandatory constraint on the composition of the Commission?

a. All Commissioners must be drawn from All-India Services.

b. Not more than two persons can be selected from the same professional category, such as All-India Service or finance.

c. At least one Vigilance Commissioner must have a background in police administration.

d. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners must be from different professional backgrounds.

11. Under Section 25(a) of the CVC Act, 2003, the Director of Enforcement is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of which committee?

a. A committee chaired by the Prime Minister

b. A committee chaired by the Minister of Finance

c. A committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner

d. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

12. When an inquiry report is prepared by an agency on a reference from the CVC, where must that report be sent under the CVC Act, 2003?

a. To the Prime Minister

b. To the Central Government

c. To the Central Vigilance Commission

d. To the President

13. Which of the following individuals are explicitly mentioned in Section 16 of the CVC Act, 2003 as being considered a public servant?

a. The Central Vigilance Commissioner only.

b. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Prime Minister.

c. The Central Vigilance Commissioner, every Vigilance Commissioner, and the staff of the Commission.

d. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Chief Justice of India.

14. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with:

a. Abuse of dominant position

b. Anti-competitive agreements

c. Regulation of combinations

d. Establishment of the Competition Commission

15. Under Section 2(l) of the Competition Act, 2002, which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the definition of "person"?

a. It includes a company, a firm, and a Hindu undivided family.

b. It includes a co-operative society and a local authority.

c. It includes every artificial juridical person not falling under any of the preceding categories.

d. It includes a statutory corporation established by a State Government for its industrial policy objective.

16. An enterprise can be considered to be in a "dominant position" under Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002 if it can:

i. Operate independently of competitive forces in the market.

ii. Significantly influence the relevant market in its favor.

iii. Eliminate competitors by offering predatory prices.

iv. Enter into exclusive distribution agreements with dealers.

Which of the following is the most accurate combination of these factors?

a. i and ii only.

b. i, ii, and iii only.

c. i, ii, and iv only.

d. i, ii, iii, and iv.

17. Section 6 of the Competition Act provides for a compulsory waiting period for a combination to take effect, subject to CCI approval. What is the maximum duration of this waiting period from the date of notifying the Commission?

a. 30 days

b. 150 days

c. 210 days

d. No specific waiting period is prescribed.

18. The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 introduced a limitation period for filing information or a reference under Section 19 of the Competition Act, 2002. What is this period, and what is a specific condition for its extension?

a. 1 year, and the CCI may extend it at its discretion.

b. 3 years, and the CCI must record in writing the reasons for condoning any delay.

c. 5 years, and the Central Government must approve any extension.

d. 2 years, with no provision for extension under any circumstances.

19. The definition of "hazardous substance" is found in which section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

a. Section 2(a)

b. Section 2(e)

c. Section 2(f)

d. Section 2(h)

20. The powers granted to the Central Government under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 are for the purpose of:

a. Protecting forests and wildlife only.

b. Preventing, controlling, and abating environmental pollution.

c. Regulating water usage in agriculture.

d. Managing national parks.

21. Which authority is empowered under Section 20 of the EPA, 1986, to require information, reports, or returns?

a. The Central Government

b. State Governments only

c. The Supreme Court

d. The National Green Tribunal (NGT)

22. A private citizen who wishes to file a complaint regarding an offence under the Act must give prior notice of how many days under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

a. Not less than 30 days

b. Not less than 60 days.

c. Not less than 90 days

d. No prior notice is required.

23. When was Section 5A, which allows for an appeal to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), inserted into the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

a. 1986, along with the original Act

b. 2002, with the Biodiversity Act

c. 2010, with the commencement of the National Green Tribunal Act

d. 2014, by a Supreme Court order

24. A provisional attachment order under Section 5 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 can be issued by an officer not below the rank of:

a. Director

b. Deputy Director

c. Assistant Director

d. Joint Director

25. The power of search and seizure under Section 17 of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 can be exercised by an officer if he has "reason to believe" that a person:

a. Is in possession of proceeds of crime.

b. Possesses records relating to money laundering.

c. Is likely to conceal or destroy records or proceeds of crime.

d. All of the above.

26. Under the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002, "proceeds of crime" refers to any property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of:

a. Tax evasion

b. An offense related to gambling

c. Criminal activity relating to a scheduled offense

d. Illegal trading in securities

27. The Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 came into force on:

a. July 1, 2005

b. January 1, 2002

c. April 1, 2009

d. October 2, 2005

28. For how long must a Reporting Entity maintain the records of a client's identity under of the Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002?

a. 3 years after the business relationship is ended

b. 5 years after the business relationship is ended

c. 7 years after the last transaction

d. 10 years after the last transaction

29. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the Nomination and Remuneration Committee must consist of:

a. Executive Directors.

b. At least one-half Independent Directors.

c. Only Non-Executive Directors.

d. Two-thirds Independent Directors.

30. A Special Court, for offenses punishable with imprisonment of two years or more under the Companies Act, shall consist of a single judge holding the office of a:

a. Metropolitan Magistrate

b. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

c. Session Judge or Additional Session Judge

d. High Court Judge

31. The Central Government has the power to appoint company prosecutors for the conduct of prosecutions arising out of the Companies Act. These prosecutors shall have all the powers and privileges conferred by the Code on:

a. District Magistrates

b. Public Prosecutors

c. Advocates

d. Company Secretaries

32. A person who makes a false statement or omits a material fact in any document required by the Companies Act is liable under which section?

a. Section 447

b. Section 448

c. Section 449

d. Section 450

33. Who has the power to establish Special Courts for the speedy trial of offenses under the Companies Act, 2013?

a. The Supreme Court

b. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

c. The Central Government

d. The High Court

34. Under the Companies Act, 2013, A person is qualified for appointment as a Judicial Member of the NCLT if they have been a judge of a High Court for a period of:

a. At least 3 years

b. At least 5 years

c. At least 7 years

d. At least 10 years

35. Under Section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Registrar can remove a company's name if it hasn't started business within how many years of incorporation?

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 3 years

d. 5 years

36. The Registrar of Companies (RoC) can present a winding-up petition for a fraudulent company under Section 271 of the Companies Act, 2013. However, this is subject to which of the following conditions?

a. The RoC must obtain prior sanction from the Central Government.

b. The company has not paid its debts.

c. It is "just and equitable" to wind up the company.

d. The company's liabilities exceed its assets.

37. Section 1(4) of the Companies Act, 2013 specifies certain entities to which the Companies Act, 2013 applies, even if they are governed by a special Act. In such cases, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the Companies Act?

a. The Companies Act will override the special Act on all matters.

b. The Companies Act applies only when the special Act is silent on a particular provision.

c. The Companies Act applies, but its provisions are deemed inconsistent and void where they conflict with the special Act.

d. The special Act applies, and any inconsistent provisions in the Companies Act are void.

38. A company limited by guarantee, but having a share capital, wants to include a provision in its Memorandum of Association (MoA) allowing its members to participate in the company's divisible profits, other than in their capacity as shareholders. Which of the following is correct regarding this provision?

a. It is valid, provided it is authorized by the Articles of Association (AoA).

b. It is valid, but only if approved by a special resolution.

c. It is void under Section 4(7) of the Companies Act, 2013.

d. It is valid, as long as it does not contravene the main objects of the company.

39. The legal principle established in the case of Salomon v Salomon & Co. Ltd. is most directly codified by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?

a. Section 5 (Articles of Association)

b. Section 9 (Effect of registration)

c. Section 8 (Charitable companies)

d. Section 10 (Effect of MoA and AoA)

40. What is the legal implication of a shareholder's failure to pay the full amount on shares as per the MoA and AoA, under Section 10(2) of the Companies Act, 2013?

a. The company can sue the shareholder for the amount due as a debt.

b. The shareholder forfeits their shares, but the company cannot sue them.

c. The liability of all other members is increased proportionately.

d. The company is dissolved if the debt is not recovered within six months.

41. Which statement is false regarding Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013?

a. The name of a Section 8 company must include the word "Limited".

b. A partnership firm can be a member of a Section 8 company.

c. A Section 8 company is exempt from having a minimum paid-up share capital.

d. The profits of a Section 8 company can only be used for promoting its objects.

42. A company wishes to shift its registered office from one location in Mumbai to another location in Pune (both within the State of Maharashtra, but under the jurisdiction of different Registrar of Companies (RoC) offices). What level of approval is required for this shift?

a. Only a Board Resolution.

b. A Special Resolution and approval of the Regional Director.

c. A Special Resolution and approval of the Registrar of Companies (RoC) in Pune.

d. A Special Resolution and approval of the Central Government.

43. Where an alteration is made in the Memorandum or Articles of a company, Section 15 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates that:

a. The altered document must be printed immediately and a copy sent to all existing members.

b. The company must file the altered documents with the Registrar within 15 days of the alteration.

c. Every copy of the MoA and AoA issued after the alteration must be in accordance with the alteration.

d. The alteration is void if not implemented within 30 days.

44. According to Section 20 of the Companies Act, 2013, a document may be served on a company by sending it to the registered office by post, registered post, or through courier. Which other method is recognized?

a. Delivery to any director in person.

b. Publication in a widely circulated newspaper.

c. Leaving it at its registered office.

d. Email, only if previously agreed upon by the company.

45. A company issues a shelf prospectus. Subsequently, before a second offer of securities is made within the validity period, what document must be filed with the Registrar?

a. An abridged prospectus

b. An information memorandum

c. A new prospectus

d. A red herring prospectus

46. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with “Criminal trespass and house-trespass”?

a. Section 329

b. Section 327

c. Section 325

d. Section 321

47. Under the BNS, if a driver causes death by rash and negligent driving and escapes without reporting the incident, what is the maximum punishment prescribed under Section 106(2)?

a. Imprisonment for up to 5 years and a fine.

b. Imprisonment for up to 7 years and a fine.

c. Imprisonment for up to 10 years and a fine.

d. Imprisonment for up to 14 years and a fine.

48. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the offence of 'Sedition' has been:

a. Retained with the same definition as in the IPC.

b. Completely removed from the criminal code.

c. Replaced with a new provision concerning acts that endanger the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.

d. Amended to include only violent acts against the state.

49. Which of the following is a newly introduced punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Death sentence

b. Imprisonment for life

c. Community service

d. Forfeiture of property

50. Under the BNS, how has the scope of "gender" been expanded in its definition?

a. It now includes only men and women.

b. It includes men, women, and intersex individuals.

c. It includes men, women, and transgender individuals.

d. The definition of gender remains unchanged from the IPC.

51. Can a deceased person be defamed under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. No

b. Yes, if it would harm their reputation if alive and is intended to hurt their family's feelings.

c. Only in civil cases.

d. Only if published in a newspaper.

52. If “A” suddenly grabs the mobile phone of “B” from his hand and runs away, the offence committed is:

a. Theft

b. Extortion

c. Snatching

d. Robbery

53. 'Counterfeit' under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is defined in:

a. Section 2(10)

b. Section 2(4)

c. Section 2(5)

d. Section 2(9)

54. Which of the following is not an element required to constitute the offence of "making a false document" under Section 335 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. The act must be done dishonestly or fraudulently.

b. The person making the document must not have lawful authority to do so.

c. The document must be physically created or altered, not electronically.

d. The act must be done with the intention that the document be believed to be made by a person who did not authorize it.

55. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with ‘Kidnapping or abducting child under ten years of age with intent to steal from its person’?

a. Section 99

b. Section 97

c. Section 96

d. Section 95

56. What legal doctrine is codified under Section 102 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Res ipsa loquitur

b. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

c. Transferred malice

d. Strict liability

57. Which clause of sec 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death?

a. Sec 101(a)

b. Sec 101(b)

c. Sec 101(c)

d. Sec 101(d)

58. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z would be only culpable homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z and intending to kill him, and not having been subject to the provocation, assists A in killing Z. Here, though A and B are both engaged in causing Z’s death

a. B is guilty of no offence, and A is guilty only of culpable homicide.

b. A is guilty of murder, and B is guilty only of culpable homicide.

c. A is guilty of no offence, and B is guilty only of culpable homicide.

d. B is guilty of murder, and A is guilty only of culpable homicide.

59. Under the BNS, a person commits an offense by abetting another to perform an act, but the person abetted performs the act with a different intention or knowledge than that of the abettor. Which of the following is the correct punishment for the abettor under Section 50 of the BNS?

a. The abettor is punished for the act as it was actually committed by the abetted person.

b. The abettor is punished for the act intended by them, regardless of the act actually committed.

c. The abettor is not liable for any punishment as there was no meeting of minds.

d. The abettor is liable for the lesser of the two punishments, either for the intended act or the actual act.

60. The BNS introduces the concept of "petty organized crime." Which of the following activities, when done by a group of two or more persons, would fall under this category, as opposed to regular organized crime?

a. Widespread drug trafficking across states.

b. A gang of three persons habitually committing theft from vehicles parked on city streets.

c. A network of individuals involved in large-scale human trafficking.

d. A group of four persons engaged in international counterfeit currency operations.

61. Opinion expressed in good faith about the merits of a decided case or conduct of parties/witnesses is protected under:

a. Exception 5 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Exception 6 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Exception 7 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Exception 9 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

62. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with ‘Sale, etc., of obscene objects to child’?

a. Section 290

b. Section 295

c. Section 291

d. Section 297

63. When did the BNSS come into effect in India?

a. January 1, 2024

b. July 1, 2024

c. December 25, 2023

d. August 11, 2023

64. A police officer arrests a person for an offense punishable with less than seven years of imprisonment. Under BNSS Section 35, which of the following is a mandatory requirement for the officer?

a. The officer must produce the accused before a Magistrate within 12 hours.

b. The officer must record reasons for the arrest in writing.

c. The officer must immediately grant bail to the accused without a court hearing.

d. The officer must use handcuffs if the offense is cognizable.

65. What new provision does the BNSS introduce regarding the use of technology in serving summonses?

a. Summonses may now be served by a police officer via text message or email.

b. Section 63 mandates the issuance of summonses in electronic form.

c. A summon can be served by courier service if the person is not available.

d. A summon can be served on any neighbour of the summoned person.

66. Under Section 185 of the BNSS, what procedure is mandated during a search and seizure conducted without a warrant?

a. The entire search and seizure must be recorded via audio-visual means.

b. The officer must obtain prior written permission from a Magistrate.

c. The officer must conduct the search only in the presence of two witnesses from the local area.

d. The officer must give the person whose property is being searched a duplicate copy of the seizure list.

67. The BNSS, 2023, while replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC), omits the term "Metropolitan Areas" and provisions relating to "Metropolitan Magistrates." What is the most significant consequence of this change?

a. It will lead to the abolition of all Magistrate courts in major cities.

b. It makes the jurisdiction and powers of magistrates uniform across the entire country, irrespective of city's population.

c. It increases the powers of Executive Magistrates in former metropolitan areas.

d. It requires all cases in former metropolitan areas to be tried exclusively by Sessions Courts.

68. A State Government, under BNSS, has the power to appoint a police officer as a Special Executive Magistrate. This power is subject to which condition?

a. The officer must have a minimum of 10 years of experience in criminal investigation.

b. The officer must also be a qualified legal practitioner.

c. The officer must be an officer of the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police or above.

d. The police officer can be appointed as a Special Executive Magistrate only for a specific period and specific purposes.

69. Under the BNSS, what is the maximum fine that can be imposed by a Judicial Magistrate of the first class?

a. Rs. 10,000

b. Rs. 50,000

c. Rs. 1,00,000

d. Rs. 20,000

70. Chapter X of the BNSS mainly deals with what subject?

a. Public Nuisance orders

b. Security for keeping the peace and good behaviour

c. Search and Seizure procedures

d. order for maintenance of wives, children and parents

71. Section 206 of BNSS grants the power to decide which district will hold an inquiry or trial in case of doubt to which body?

a. The Supreme Court.

b. The Central Government.

c. The District Magistrate.

d. The High Court under whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings first commenced.

72. According to Section 517 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what happens if the period of limitation for a court to take cognizance of an offense expires on a day when the court is closed?

a. The court can take cognizance on the very next day it reopens.

b. The period of limitation cannot be extended, and the court is barred from taking cognizance.

c. The case must be filed at the nearest police station instead.

d. The limitation period is considered to be null and void, and the offense can be reported at any time.

73. Under Section 31 of the BNSS, what specific duty is imposed on the public to aid police officers or magistrates?

a. The duty to assist in suppressing a breach of the peace.

b. The duty to assist in arresting a person authorized to be arrested.

c. The duty to prevent injury to public property.

d. All of the above.

74. Who grants the previous sanction for the prosecution of a member of the Armed Forces of the Union for an offense committed while discharging official duty, according to Section 218?

a. The State Government.

b. The President of India.

c. The Central Government.

d. The High Court.

75. When can the court question the accused during an inquiry or trial, according to Section 351 of the BNSS?

a. Only after the defence witnesses have been examined.

b. Only if the accused has requested to be examined.

c. At any stage, without previously warning the accused, and after the prosecution witnesses have been examined.

d. Only with the consent of the public prosecutor.

76. Who is empowered under Section 307 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, to determine the language of the courts within a State?

a. The High Court of that State

b. The Central Government

c. The State Government

d. The Supreme Court

77. Which section of the BNSS deals with the electronic filing of FIRs?

a. Section 50.

b. Section 107.

c. Section 173.

d. Section 258.

78. Which chapter of BNSS, 2023 deals with “TRIAL OF SUMMONS-CASES BY MAGISTRATES”?

a. CHAPTER XIX

b. CHAPTER XXII

c. CHAPTER XX

d. CHAPTER XXI

79. What constitutional principle is codified by Section 337 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?

a. Right to free legal aid

b. Right against double jeopardy

c. Right to a speedy trial

d. Right to remain silent

80. Under BSA, Section 138, an accomplice is considered:

a. A competent witness against an accused.

b. Incompetent to testify without the accused's permission.

c. Competent to testify only if they are the sole witness.

d. Incompetent to testify against an accused.

81. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with “Presumption as to powers of-attorney”?

a. Section 84

b. Section 86

c. Section 83

d. Section 82

82. Under Section 2(1)(d) of the BSA, 2023, the definition of "document" has been significantly expanded. Which of the following is explicitly included for the first time?

a. Any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks.

b. Any matter expressed or described by electronic means.

c. Any matter expressed or described by digital means, including electronic communication, server logs, and locational evidence.

d. Any matter expressed or described by a combination of physical and electronic means.

83. What is the primary condition for the admissibility of electronic records under the BSA, 2023?

a. The electronic record must be printed and signed by the person creating it.

b. The record must be notarized to prove its authenticity.

c. Its authenticity and integrity must be proven to the court's satisfaction.

d. Electronic records are always admissible, as they are considered inherently reliable.

84. According to the BSA, which of the following is the status of a confession made by an accused person to a police officer?

a. Admissible if made before a gazetted officer.

b. Admissible if recorded via audio-video electronic means.

c. Not admissible against the accused person.

d. Admissible if later confirmed by a magistrate.

85. Under Section 2(1)(b) of the BSA, 2023, what is the effect of "conclusive proof"?

a. A fact is presumed to be true, but evidence can be given to disprove it.

b. The court can either regard the fact as proved or can call for further evidence.

c. The court shall regard the fact as proved and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it.

d. A fact is proved beyond a reasonable doubt, and no further evidence is needed.

86. The BSA addresses the principle of a "dying declaration." What is a key change regarding its admissibility?

a. It is always admissible, regardless of whether the person was in expectation of death.

b. It is never admissible in court.

c. It is a relevant fact in the trial of the deceased's murder.

d. It can now be recorded by an audio-video electronic device in the presence of a magistrate.

87. What does Section 87 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, establish a presumption for?

a. Electronic records and messages

b. Electronic Signature Certificates

c. Digital signature of foreign judicial records

d. Electronic agreements

88. Section 101 is located in which chapter of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

a. Chapter I

b. Chapter VI

c. Chapter X

d. Chapter V

89. In a civil case, A desires a court to give judgment that he is entitled to a piece of land in the possession of B. Under Section 104, who has the burden of proving the facts asserting A's entitlement?

a. On B

b. The court

c. On A

d. The state

90. Which section deals with “Burden of proof as to ownership”?

a. Section 111

b. Section 114

c. Section 112

d. Section 113

91. Section 123 of BSA, 2023 deals with-

a. Estoppel of acceptor of bill of exchange, bailee or licensee.

b. Witness unable to communicate verbally.

c. Estoppel.

d. Estoppel of tenant and of licensee of person in possession.

92. As per the BSA, 2023, the definition of "evidence" includes which of the following?

a. Oral evidence, documentary evidence, and statements given electronically.

b. Oral evidence and documentary evidence.

c. Any information presented by a lawyer during arguments.

d. Only statements made in person in court.

93. The case of R. M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra is a landmark judgment relating to the admissibility of:

a. Dying declarations

b. Confessions

c. Electronic evidence

d. Tape-recorded conversations as corroborative evidence.

94. What is the Distinction between "May Presume" and "Shall Presume"?

a. "May presume" is discretionary, while "shall presume" is mandatory.

b. "May presume" is mandatory, while "shall presume" is discretionary.

c. Both terms have the same meaning.

d. "May presume" is used in civil cases, and "shall presume" in criminal cases.

95. What does the term "fact" include under the BSA, 2023?

a. Anything that can be perceived by the senses

b. Any mental condition of which a person is conscious

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

96. Which of the following is an example of a "document" under the BSA, 2023?

a. A caricature

b. A voice mail message

c. An inscription on a metal plate

d. All of the above

97. A resolution for the impeachment of the President must be passed by-

a. Majority of the total strength of the House and two-third of the present and voting members

b. Two-third of the present and voting members in the House

c. Two-third of the total membership of the House

d. Majority of the total membership of the House

98. In which one of the following cases is a civil servant, before dismissal, entitled to be heard?

a. If the President is satisfied that in the interest of security of the State it is not expedient to hold an enquiry into the misconduct of the civil servant

b. If the disciplinary authority records that it is not reasonably practicable to hold the enquiry

c. Where the civil servant has been convicted on a criminal charge and the basis of dismissal is the same conduct

d. When the disciplinary authority is satisfied that the civil servant has no defence

99. The case of I.R. Coelho (Dead) By Lrs vs State Of Tamil Nadu & Ors is related to:

a. Fundamental Rights

b. Directive Principles of State Policy

c. Article 31C of the Constitution of India

d. Ninth Schedule and Article 31B of the Constitution of India

100. The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of India is to:

a. Secure paramountcy to the fundamental rights

b. Limit the legislative power of the State

c. Define the word 'law'

d. Expand the powers of the courts

101. Which one of the following statements is correct? An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India if the high Court certifies under Article 134A that the case involves

a. A question of law

b. A question of law or fact

c. A substantial question of law or fact of public importance

d. A substantial question of law of general importance

102. Which one of the following is correct? The result of obtaining the assent of the President to a State law which is inconsistent with a Union law relating to a subject in the concurrent list would be that:

a. The State law would be valid and the Union law would not be operative in that State

b. The Union law would override the State law

c. Both laws would remain operative in the State

d. The Parliament can amend the State law with prior assent of the President

103. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, to the exclusion of any other Court, does NOT include any dispute:

a. Between Government of India and one or more States.

b. Between Government of India and any State or States on the one hand and one or more other States on the other.

c. In relation to election of President of India.

d. Between Government of India and civil servants as to constitutional validity of service rule.

104. Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala case is related to:

a. Protection of religious belief

b. Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A(e) of the Constitution of India

c. Performing Tandava dance

d. Observing religious practice at any location

105. Which one among the following statements is correct?

a. The powers of High Courts under Article 227 of the Constitution of India can be ousted

b. No one can be subjected to narco analysis test without his consent

c. All India Services can be created under Articles 312 and 320 of the Constitution of India

d. Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction in civil matters

106. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The Chief Election Commissioner may be removed on the ground of violation of the Constitution

b. The Election Commission of India conducts the election of local bodies

c. Other Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

d. Provision for the appointment of the Election Commissioner is given in Article 325 of the Constitution

107. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution Is related with the reservation in private educational institutions?

a. Ninety-first Amendment

b. Ninety-second Amendment

c. Ninety-third Amendment

d. None of the above

108. The leading case on Doctrine of Eclipse is

a. R.M.D.C. v. U.O.I.

b. Jagannath Prasad v. U.P.

c. Bhikaji v. M.P.

d. Kameshwar Prasad v. Bihar

109. Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution?

a. Articles 14,15 and 16

b. Articles 20,21 and 22

c. Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles

d. Articles 14,19 and 21

110. Part VI, chapter VI of the Indian Constitution dealing with subordinate courts are:

a. Articles 232-239

b. Articles 233-237

c. Articles 233-238

d. Articles 231-237

111. Who among the following is known as the guardian of public purse in India?

a. Comptroller and Auditor General

b. Parliament

c. Finance Commission

d. Finance Minister

112. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:

a. After six months of its promulgation

b. After six months of its publication in the official gazette

c. After six weeks from the date of assembly of the House(s) of the State legislature

d. Whenever the Council of States takes a decision

113. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?

a. Sovereign, Democratic

b. Socialist, Secular

c. Republic, Justice

d. Liberty, Equality

114. Under the IT Act, 2000, "electronic record" is defined in which section?

a. Section 2(1)(d)

b. Section 4

c. Section 2(1)(t)

d. Section 3

115. Which section provides for punishment for the offence of 'identity theft'?

a. Section 66D

b. Section 66B

c. Section 66C

d. Section 66A

116. In the context of Section 79 of the IT Act, the Supreme Court's ruling in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India significantly clarified the intermediary's liability by holding that they are obligated to remove unlawful content only upon being notified by:

a. A private complainant

b. The originator of the content

c. A court order or an appropriate government authority

d. Any person whose rights are affected

117. Which provision of the IT Act, 2000 specifically outlines the penalty for the breach of confidentiality and privacy by a person who has secured access to an electronic record in pursuance of any of the powers conferred by the Act?

a. Section 66

b. Section 66B

c. Section 72

d. Section 72A

118. Under the IT Act, 2000, Section 77B, an offense punishable with imprisonment for up to three years is considered a:

a. Non-bailable, non-cognizable offence

b. Non-bailable, cognizable offence

c. Bailable, cognizable offence

d. Bailable, non-cognizable offence

119. Where does an appeal lie against an order passed by the Cyber Appellate Tribunal under the IT Act, 2000?

a. The Supreme Court of India

b. The High Court

c. The District Court

d. The Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission

120. Which section of the IT Act, 2000 deals with the power of police officers and other officers to enter any public place and search and arrest without a warrant in certain circumstances?

a. Section 66

b. Section 69

c. Section 80

d. Section 67

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