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UP APO Mock Test-9
28 min read
UP APO MOCK TEST-9
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Who was the first Muslim President of INC?
a. Abul Kalam Azad
b. Badruddin Tyabji
c. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
d. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
2. Who was the Viceroy during the foundation of INC?
a. Lord Dufferin
b. Lord Mayo
c. Lord Lytton
d. Lord Ripon
3. The 'Drain of Wealth' theory was proposed by:
a. M.G. Ranade
b. Dadabhai Naoroji
c. R.C. Dutt
d. Pherozeshah Mehta
4. Who led the revolt in Lucknow?
a. Begum Hazrat Mahal
b. Kunwar Singh
c. Tantia Tope
d. Rani Lakshmi Bai
5. Which Governor-General introduced the 'Doctrine of Lapse'?
a. Lord Canning
b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Wellesley
d. Lord Bentinck
6. The Sepoy Mutiny broke out primarily due to the use of:
a. Enfield Rifles
b. Brown Bess Muskets
c. AK-47s
d. Heavy Cannons
7. Who was the British Commander-in-Chief during the 1857 revolt?
a. Colin Campbell
b. Henry Lawrence
c. John Nicholson
d. Hugh Rose
8. The Queen’s Proclamation of 1858 ended the rule of:
a. The British Crown
b. The East India Company
c. The Marathas
d. The Mughals
9. What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 25
d. 30
10. Which body is considered the 'Guardian of the Constitution'?
a. Parliament
b. President
c. Supreme Court
d. Lokpal
11. The 73rd Amendment Act 1992 is related to:
a. Municipalities
b. Panchayati Raj
c. Land Reforms
d. Language
12. Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
a. Part II
b. Part III
c. Part IV
d. Part V
13. The 'Planning Commission' was a:
a. Constitutional body
b. Non-statutory body
c. Statutory body
d. None
14. What is the current FDI limit in Defense (automatic route)?
a. 49%
b. 74%
c. 100%
d. 26%
15. 'Make in India' was launched in:
a. 2012
b. 2014
c. 2015
d. 2016
16. Devaluation of currency usually leads to:
a. Expansion of exports
b. Expansion of imports
c. Inflation
d. No change
17. Which vitamin is synthesized in the human body by bacteria?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
18. Which tissue connects muscle to bone?
a. Ligament
b. Tendon
c. Adipose
d. Cartilage
19. "Minamata Disease" is caused by poisoning of:
a. Lead
b. Cadmium
c. Mercury
d. Arsenic
20. The image formed on a human retina is:
a. Virtual and upright
b. Real and inverted
c. Real and upright
d. Virtual and inverted
21. The working of a "Rocket" is based on which law?
a. Kepler’s Law
b. Newton’s 3rd Law
c. Pascal’s Law
d. Boyle’s Law
22. Which metal is extracted from "Cinnabar"?
a. Lead
b. Mercury
c. Copper
d. Zinc
23. The percentage of Carbon is highest in:
a. Anthracite
b. Bituminous
c. Lignite
d. Peat
24. "Heavy Water" (D2O) was discovered by:
a. Harold Urey
b. Madame Curie
c. Joseph Priestley
d. Lavoisier
25. What is the name of the international agreement signed by 20+ countries at COP28 to triple nuclear energy capacity by 2050?
a. The Nuclear Pledge
b. Net Zero Nuclear Declaration
c. Dubai Nuclear Accord
d. Atom for Peace 2.0
26. The term 'Bletchley Declaration', recently in the news, is associated with:
a. Climate Change
b. Artificial Intelligence (AI) Safety
c. Maritime Security
d. Cybersecurity
27. Which Indian state recently launched the "Asha Kirana" scheme for free eye check-ups across the state?
a. Telangana
b. Karnataka
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Rajasthan
28. The "Cyber Surakshit Bharat" initiative is an effort by which Ministry?
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY)
c. Ministry of Defense
d. Ministry of Finance
29. What is the primary objective of the "E-Sakshi" mobile application launched by the Ministry of Statistics?
a. Criminal witness tracking
b. MP Local Area Development (MPLADS) monitoring
c. Digital Census data collection
d. Voter ID verification
30. Which Indian state has the highest number of Ramsar Sites as of 2024?
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Punjab
d. West Bengal
31. Who is the first person to reach a net worth of $300 billion (according to Bloomberg Billionaires Index)?
a. Jeff Bezos
b. Bernard Arnault
c. Elon Musk
d. Mark Zuckerberg
32. The "Port of Haifa," which was recently privatized and handed over to the Adani Group, is located in which country?
a. Greece
b. Israel
c. UAE
d. Sri Lanka
33. What is the name of the world's largest cruise ship that began its maiden voyage in 2024?
a. Wonder of the Seas
b. Icon of the Seas
c. Titanic II
d. Queen Mary 2
34. Which country recently passed the "Safety of Rwanda" Bill?
a. France
b. United Kingdom
c. Germany
d. Belgium
35. What was the port city of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a. Kalibangan
b. Lothal
c. Banawali
d. Surkotada
36. Hattigumpha inscription gives information about:
a. Kharavela
b. Rudradaman
c. Ashoka
d. Samudragupta
37. The 'Vikram Samvat' era started in:
a. 78 AD
b. 57 BC
c. 320 AD
d. 606 AD
38. The 'Jizya' tax was abolished by which Mughal Emperor?
a. Babur
b. Humayun
c. Akbar
d. Aurangzeb
39. Who translated the Bhagavad Gita into Persian?
a. Dara Shikoh
b. Abul Fazl
c. Akbar
d. Faiz
40. The poet known as the 'Parrot of India' (Tuti-e-Hind) was:
a. Amir Khusrau
b. Mirza Ghalib
c. Faizi
d. Rahim
41. Who was the first woman ruler of medieval India?
a. Chand Bibi
b. Razia Sultan
c. Rani Durgavati
d. Nur Jahan
42. The 'Doctrine of Lapse' was introduced by:
a. Lord Wellesley
b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Lytton
d. Lord Curzon
43. The Equator does NOT pass through which of these continents?
a. Africa
b. South America
c. Asia
d. Europe
44. Which type of rainfall occurs when warm air is forced to rise over a mountain?
a. Convectional
b. Cyclonic
c. Orographic
d. Frontal
45. What is the primary composition of the Earth's core?
a. Silica & Aluminum
b. Iron & Nickel
c. Magnesium & Silica
d. Iron & Oxygen
46. "Roaring Forties" refers to which of the following?
a. Ocean Currents
b. Westerly Winds
c. Cyclones
d. Tides
47. Which is the largest cold desert in the world?
a. Gobi
b. Sahara
c. Antarctica
d. Atacama
48. The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
a. Mississippi
b. Colorado
c. Nile
d. Amazon
49. What is the point on the surface directly above the focus of an earthquake?
a. Hypocenter
b. Epicenter
c. Seismic Zone
d. Fault line
50. Which instrument is used to measure humidity?
a. Barometer
b. Anemometer
c. Hygrometer
d. hermometer
51. Section 101 is located in which chapter of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Chapter I
b. Chapter VI
c. Chapter X
d. Chapter V
52. In a deed, A sells to B "my house in Kolkata." A has no house in Kolkata but has a house at Howrah, of which B has been in possession. Can evidence be given to show the deed relates to the Howrah house?
a. Yes, under Section 98, as the language is plain but unmeaning in reference to existing facts.
b. No, because the document is unambiguous on its face.
c. No, because the deed is for a house in Kolkata.
d. Yes, but only with B's consent.
53. According to Section 96 of the BSA, 2023, what is the rule regarding a document with language that is "on its face, ambiguous or defective"?
a. Oral evidence can be given to explain the document's meaning.
b. Evidence can be given to supply the defects in the document.
c. Evidence cannot be given of facts that would show its meaning or supply its defects.
d. The court must interpret the document based on surrounding circumstances.
54. Under Section 25 of the BSA 2023, which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the legal status of an admission?
a. Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted.
b. Admissions have no legal value unless supported by a witness.
c. Admissions are not conclusive proof, but they may operate as estoppels.
d. Admissions are always binding on the party making them in criminal cases.
55. In a joint trial where the principal accused has absconded and is declared a "Proclaimed Offender," the confession of the co-accused:
a. Cannot be used at all.
b. Can be taken into consideration under Section 24 of BSA 2023.
c. Requires the physical presence of the absconder to be relevant.
d. Is admissible only if the absconder is caught within 90 days.
56. In a trial for rape, the evidence of "Character" of the victim regarding her "previous sexual experience" is:
a. Relevant to show consent.
b. Irrelevant for the issue of consent or quality of consent.
c. Relevant only if the victim is a minor.
d. Relevant if the accused is a first-time offender.
57. Which section of BSA 2023 explicitly states that "No particular number of witnesses" is required to prove a fact?
a. Section 133
b. Section 134
c. Section 138
d. Section 139
58. A witness may "Refresh his Memory" by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction. This is permitted under:
a. Section 159
b. Section 162
c. Section 165
d. Section 160
59. If a witness is asked a question which is irrelevant to the matter except as to his credit, the Court:
a. Must allow the question.
b. Has the discretion to decide if the witness should be compelled to answer.
c. Must report the lawyer to the Bar Council.
d. Must stop the trial immediately.
60. In the landmark case of Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, the SC clarified the necessity of a certificate. How has the BSA 2023 codified this in Section 63?
a. It has made the certificate optional for all government officials.
b. It has introduced a mandatory "Schedule" containing a specific two-part certificate format.
c. It has exempted WhatsApp and Telegram messages from certification.
d. It has replaced the certificate with an oral oath by the IT expert.
61. What does Section 87 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, establish a presumption for?
a. Electronic records and messages
b. Electronic Signature Certificates
c. Digital signature of foreign judicial records
d. Electronic agreements
62. Which section of BSA, 2023 deals with “Presumption as to powers of-attorney”?
a. Section 84
b. Section 86
c. Section 83
d. Section 82
63. Under BSA, Section 138, an accomplice is considered:
a. A competent witness against an accused.
b. Incompetent to testify without the accused's permission.
c. Competent to testify only if they are the sole witness.
d. Incompetent to testify against an accused.
64. Under what circumstance may a person be compelled to disclose confidential communications with their legal adviser under Section 134?
a. When the communication was made in furtherance of an illegal purpose.
b. When the legal adviser is called as a witness by the opposing party.
c. When the court orders the disclosure for any reason.
d. When the person offers themself as a witness.
65. According to Section 130 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, who is protected from being compelled to disclose official communications?
a. Any individual
b. A public officer
c. A witness
d. A private citizen
66. To prove a deceased person's statement under Section 26 of the BSA, Section 141 requires the party offering the evidence to first prove which fact?
a. That the statement was made under oath
b. The fact that the person is dead.
c. The relevance of the statement.
d. The authenticity of the statement.
67. In a lawsuit between A and B, A gives B notice to produce a certain agreement. B refuses. If A then gives secondary evidence of its contents, can B produce the original document later to contradict A's evidence?
a. Yes, if B produces it to show that the agreement is unstamped.
b. No, unless A consents or the Court orders it.
c. Yes, as the original is always the best evidence.
d. Yes, if B can show a valid reason for the initial refusal.
68. Under Section 56 of the BSA 2023, the contents of a document may be proved by:
a. Primary evidence only.
b. Secondary evidence only.
c. Either primary or secondary evidence.
d. Oral evidence of the person who read it, in all cases.
69. Under Section 57, Explanation 5, an electronic record is treated as "Primary Evidence" if it is produced from proper custody, UNLESS:
a. It is a copy of a copy.
b. Its contents are disputed.
c. It is not signed by a Magistrate.
d. It is older than 5 years.
70. A claims that B committed a theft. A also knows that B was in another city (Alibi) at the time of the crime. Who has the burden to prove B's presence at the crime scene?
a. The Burden is on B to prove he was in another city under Section 9.
b. The Burden is on A to prove B’s guilt, but B must prove his Alibi specifically.
c. The Court will presume B is guilty until he proves the Alibi.
d. The Police must prove both facts.
71. A wife is NOT entitled to maintenance from her husband under Section 144 if:
a. She is living in adultery
b. She refuses to live with her husband without sufficient reason
c. They are living separately by mutual consent
d. All of the above
72. Which Magistrate is empowered to pass an order for maintenance under the BNSS?
a. Executive Magistrate
b. Magistrate of the second class
c. Magistrate of the first class
d. Only a Sessions Judge
73. When the Central Government receives a letter of request from a foreign country for the examination of a person or production of a document in India, it may forward it to:
a. Only the High Court of the concerned State
b. The Chief Judicial Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate appointed in this behalf
c. The Ministry of External Affairs only
d. The Supreme Court of India
74. Under Section 109 of the BNSS, which authority has the power to impound a document or thing produced before it?
a. Only a Judicial Magistrate
b. Only a Police Officer in charge of a station
c. Any Court, if it thinks fit
d. Only the District Magistrate
75. Under Section 108 of the BNSS, a Magistrate may direct a search to be made in his presence only if:
a. The police fail to find the evidence after two attempts.
b. The search is conducted during daylight hours.
c. He is legally competent to issue a search warrant for that specific place.
d. He has obtained prior permission from the Sessions Judge.
76. Under Section 147, a maintenance order can be enforced by any Magistrate in any place where:
a. The order was originally passed
b. The person against whom it is made may be
c. The victim currently resides
d. The marriage took place
77. Which section of the BNSS mandates that there shall be a "Directorate of Prosecution" in every State?
a. Section 18
b. Section 20
c. Section 25
d. Section 28
78. What is the minimum experience required for a person to be appointed as an Assistant Director of Prosecution?
a. 3 years as an advocate
b. 5 years as an advocate
c. 7 years as an advocate or having been a Magistrate of the first class
d. 15 years as an advocate or having been a Sessions Judge
79. Under Section 9 of BNSS, who is the authority that establishes the "Courts of Judicial Magistrates" in every district?
a. The High Court
b. The State Government after consultation with the High Court
c. The Central Government
d. The Governor
80. Which section of the BNSS deals with the "Special Judicial Magistrates" appointed for a term not exceeding one year?
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. Section 16
81. Under Section 25(1) of the BNSS, when a person is convicted of multiple offences at one trial, the Court must consider the gravity of the offences to decide whether punishments shall run:
a. Only concurrently
b. Only consecutively
c. Concurrently or consecutively
d. Only as directed by the High Court
82. Under Section 29(2) of the BNSS, who is the competent authority to determine the successor-in-office of a Judge when there is a doubt?
a. The High Court
b. The District Magistrate
c. The Sessions Judge
d. The State Government
83. Which of the following Magistrates is NOT explicitly empowered under Section 101 of the BNSS to order the immediate restoration of an abducted female?
a. District Magistrate
b. Sub-divisional Magistrate
c. Executive Magistrate (other than DM/SDM)
d. Magistrate of the first class
84. Under Section 129 of the BNSS, an Executive Magistrate may require a person to show cause why they should not execute a bond for good behaviour for a period not exceeding:
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
85. Section 125 BNSS deals with "Security for keeping the peace on conviction." The order for such security can be passed by:
a. The Court of Session or Magistrate of the First Class
b. Only the High Court
c. The Executive Magistrate
d. The Police Officer
86. Under Section 152 BNSS, who is empowered to make a "conditional order" for the removal of a public nuisance?
a. Any Executive Magistrate
b. District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate
c. Judicial Magistrate First Class
d. Only the High Court
87. If a person fails to obey a conditional order under Section 152 BNSS, they shall be liable to the penalty prescribed in which section of the BNS (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita)?
a. Section 188
b. Section 223
c. Section 210
d. Section 100
88. Section 163 deals with the power to issue an order in "urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger." This order remains in force for a maximum of:
a. 15 days
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 6 months
89. When a Magistrate appoints a receiver under Section 165(2) of the BNSS, that receiver shall have all the powers of a receiver appointed under:
a. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
b. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
d. The Indian Contract Act, 1872
90. Under Section 328 of the BNSS, a report signed by which of the following gazetted officers may be used as evidence in an inquiry or trial without calling them as a witness?
a. An officer of any Mint or Note Printing Press
b. A Government Examiner of Questioned Documents
c. An officer of a Forensic Science Laboratory
d. All of the above
91. Under Section 414, a person ordered to give security for keeping the peace under Section 136 may appeal to:
a. The CJM
b. The Court of Session
c. The High Court
d. The District Magistrate
92. Section 415 deals with "Appeals from convictions." An appeal from a sentence of a Magistrate of the Second Class lies to:
a. The High Court
b. The Court of Session
c. The CJM
d. No appeal is allowed
93. Under Section 456, if a woman sentenced to death is found to be "pregnant," the High Court shall:
a. Commute the sentence to imprisonment for life
b. Stay the execution for 5 years
c. Release her on bail
d. Execute the sentence after delivery
94. Section 503 BNSS deals with "Delivery of property" to a person entitled to possession. If the person is unknown, the Magistrate may issue a proclamation for:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
95. Under Section 397, every hospital (Public or Private) shall immediately provide "First-aid or medical treatment" to victims of which crimes free of cost?
a. Acid attack or Rape
b. Theft or Robbery
c. All cognizable offences
d. Only accidents
96. "Unlawful assembly" is the heading for:
a. Section 187
b. Section 189
c. Section 191
d. Section 193
97. A group of people burn the National Flag in a public square while shouting slogans for the "dissolution of the Indian State." This act is primarily punishable under:
a. Section 152 of BNS
b. Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act
c. Section 197 of BNS
d. Both (a) and (b)
98. "A" finds "B" breaking into his house at night. "A" shoots and kills "B" while "B" is still inside the house. "A" has:
a. Committed Murder
b. Committed Culpable Homicide
c. Exercised his Right of Private Defence under Section 38
d. Committed Culpable Homicide due to excessive force
99. "A" and four friends (5 people total) stop a car and loot the passengers at gunpoint. They are guilty of:
a. Organized Crime
b. Robbery
c. Dacoity
d. Extortion
100. For "Defamation", which case upheld the criminal validity of defamation?
a. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India
b. R. Rajagopal v. State of TN
c. Shreya Singhal v. UOI
d. None of the above
101. Under Section 8(1) of the BNS, if a specific sum for a fine is not mentioned in a particular section, the fine that can be imposed on the offender is:
a. Limited to ₹50,000.
b. At the absolute discretion of the Judge, even if it is excessive.
c. Unlimited, but shall not be excessive.
d. Equivalent to the value of the property stolen or damaged.
102. The "Age of Consent" for rape remains 18 years, following which landmark case involving "Marital Rape" exception for minors?
a. Independent Thought v. Union of India
b. Lily Thomas v. Union of India
c. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
d. None of the above
103. "Printing or engraving matter known to be defamatory" is the heading for:
a. Section 356(3)
b. Section 356(4)
c. Section 354
d. Section 333
104. "Punishment for robbery" is:
a. Section 309(4)
b. Section 309(6)
c. Section 310
d. Section 311
105. "Punishment for belonging to gang of dacoits" is:
a. Section 312
b. Section 313
c. Section 314
d. Section 315
106. "Absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding" is found under:
a. Section 206
b. Section 207
c. Section 209
d. Section 210
107. "Preventing service of summons or other proceeding, or preventing publication thereof" is:
a. Section 206
b. Section 207
c. Section 208
d. Section 211
108. "Refusing oath or affirmation when duly required by public servant" is:
a. Section 213
b. Section 215
c. Section 216
d. Section 217
109. "Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions" is the heading for:
a. Section 220
b. Section 221
c. Section 222
d. Section 223
110. "Uttering words, etc., with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings" is:
a. Section 300
b. Section 301
c. Section 302
d. Section 303
111. According to Section 171 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, interfering with the free exercise of any electoral right is known as:
a. Bribery
b. Corruption
c. Undue influence
d. Personation
112. As per Section 197 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, publishing imputations that certain groups cannot be loyal to the Constitution is considered prejudicial to:
a. Public order
b. National integration
c. Religious sentiments
d. Individual liberty
113. A threatens B that he will post defamatory content about B's deceased father online unless B withdraws a civil lawsuit against A. Which of the following statements is correct regarding A's actions?
a. A is not guilty of criminal intimidation, as a deceased person cannot have their reputation injured.
b. A is guilty of criminal intimidation under Section 351, as the Explanation explicitly includes threats to injure the reputation of a deceased person if the person threatened is interested in them.
c. A's act constitutes defamation, not criminal intimidation.
d. A is guilty of extortion, as the motive is to make B withdraw a civil suit.
114. Can a deceased person be defamed under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. No
b. Yes, if it would harm their reputation if alive and is intended to hurt their family's feelings.
c. Only in civil cases.
d. Only if published in a newspaper.
115. What does Exception 2 to Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 clarify?
a. That sexual activity by a man with his wife, if she is under 18, is not rape.
b. That sexual activity by a man with a woman who is not his wife is rape.
c. That sexual activity by a man with a woman who is under 18 is rape, regardless of marital status.
d. That sexual activity by a man with his wife, if she is not under 18, is not rape.
116. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with ‘Consent known to be given under fear or misconception’?
a. Section 27
b. Section 28
c. Section 29
d. Section 30
117. A, aged 20 years, requests his friend B to give him poison so that he may end his life due to unbearable pain. B administers poison with A’s consent, and A dies. What is B’s liability?
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. No offence, since there was consent
d. Abetment of suicide
118. 'Counterfeit' under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is defined in:
a. Section 2(10)
b. Section 2(4)
c. Section 2(5)
d. Section 2(9)
119. Z is thrown from his horse, and is insensible. A, a surgeon, finds that Z requires to Consent known to be given under fear or misconception. Exclusion of acts which are offences independently of harm caused. A, not intending Z’s death, but in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging for himself. A has committed?
a. Offence under BNS
b. No offence
c. a or b
d. None of the above
120. A finds a suitcase belonging to Z on unowned land by a road, picks it up, and appropriates its contents. What is A's liability?
a. A is liable for theft, as the property belonged to Z.
b. A is liable for criminal misappropriation of property, as the property was not in the possession of any person when he found it.
c. A is liable for both theft and criminal misappropriation.
d. A is liable for cheating.
121. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with “House-trespass after preparation for hurt, assault or wrongful restraint”?
a. Section 333
b. Section 327
c. Section 325
d. Section 321
122. What is the punishment for defamation under Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Imprisonment for up to one year
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment for up to two years, or with fine, or with both, or with community service
d. Community service only
123. Which of the following is not an element required to constitute the offence of "making a false document" under Section 335 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. The act must be done dishonestly or fraudulently.
b. The person making the document must not have lawful authority to do so.
c. The document must be physically created or altered, not electronically.
d. The act must be done with the intention that the document be believed to be made by a person who did not authorize it
124. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 “Fraudulently intention" has been defined as "doing anything with the intention to defraud but not otherwise"?
a. Section 2(4)
b. Section 2(5)
c. Section 2(8)
d. Section 2(9)
125. Chapter X of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals:—
a. with false evidence and offences against public justice
b. with offences relating to elections
c. with offences relating to coin and government stamps
d. with offences relating to weight and measures
126. 'Right to Privacy' is a Fundamental Right under:
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 25
127. Freedom of the Press is implied in:
a. Article 19(1)(a)
b. Article 19(1)(b)
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
128. During a National Emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by Parliament for:
a. 6 months at a time
b. 1 year at a time
c. 2 years total
d. It cannot be extended
129. Which Amendment restricted the power of the President to proclaim National Emergency only on the written advice of the Cabinet?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 73rd Amendment
130. Which Article provides for 'Ancillary powers of Supreme Court'?
a. Article 139
b. Article 140
c. Article 141
d. Article 142
131. The 'National Judicial Appointments Commission' (NJAC) was declared unconstitutional in:
a. First Judges Case
b. Second Judges Case
c. Third Judges Case
d. Fourth Judges Case
132. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Vote on Account', 'Vote of Credit', and 'Exceptional Grants'?
a. Article 114
b. Article 115
c. Article 116
d. Article 117
133. The 'Lapsed Bill' rule states that a bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha lapses upon:
a. Adjournment of Lok Sabha
b. Prorogation of Lok Sabha
c. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
d. Resignation of the PM
134. The maximum number of Ministers, including the PM, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of Lok Sabha. This was added by:
a. 86th Amendment
b. 91st Amendment
c. 93rd Amendment
d. 99th Amendment
135. If the President's office falls vacant and there is no Vice-President, who acts as President?
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Senior-most Judge of SC
d. Prime Minister
136. Under Section 30, who decides if a procession is likely to cause a breach of peace?
a. The Police Inspector
b. The District Superintendent or Assistant Superintendent
c. The Mayor
d. The Governor
137. Under Section 15(4), the money collected for additional police is used for:
a. Police salaries only
b. Maintenance of that specific additional force
c. State revenue
d. Welfare of the District
138. Any person who is "drunk and riotous" in a public place is punishable under:
a. Section 32
b. Section 34
c. Section 29
d. Section 7
139. According to Section 28, "accoutrements" that must be surrendered upon ceasing to be an officer include:
a. Only the uniform.
b. Clothing, accoutrements, and appointments provided at the public cost.
c. Personal medals and awards.
d. Only the service weapon
140. The marginal heading of Paragraph 193 describes the cooperation between which two entities for the suppression and detection of copper telegraph wire thefts?
a. Local Police and Military Intelligence
b. District and railway police
c. State Police and Central Excise
d. Village Police and Forest Department
141. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 102?
a. Referral of Non-Cognizable cases to Court
b. Process for report of a non-cognizable offence
c. Investigation of Non-Cognizable crimes
d. Entries of Petty Crimes in the Crime Register
142. Who is personally responsible for the correct recording of all reports of crime at a police station?
a. The Station Clerk
b. The Second Officer
c. The Station Officer (S.O.)
d. The Circle Inspector
143. Which chapter of the Police Regulations bears the heading "REQUESTS, POST-MORTEM EXAMINATION AND TREATMENT OF WOUNDED PERSON"?
a. Chapter X
b. Chapter XII
c. Chapter XIV
d. Chapter XX
144. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 129 regarding the duty of a village official?
a. Any sudden or unnatural death to be reported by village Chaukidar to the police station
b. Immediate reporting of homicides by Pradhans
c. Procedure for inquest in rural areas
d. Notification of unidentified bodies in villages
145. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 131, which officers are empowered to make inquiries under Section 174 of the CrPC (SEC 194 BNSS)?
a. Only Inspectors
b. Gazetted Officers only
c. All sub-Inspectors and head constables
d. Only the Station House Officer (SHO)
146. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 134 regarding dead bodies?
a. Storage of bodies in the police station morgue
b. Known or suspected dead bodies related to cognizable offence to be sent for post-mortem examination
c. Disposal of unclaimed bodies after three days
d. Identification of remains found in forest areas
147. Which chapter of the Police Regulations deals with the subject of "ARREST, BAIL AND CUSTODY"?
a. Chapter X
b. Chapter XII
c. Chapter XIII
d. Chapter XIV
148. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 148 of the Police Regulations?
a. Arrest of offenders in neighboring districts
b. Inter-state coordination for arrests
c. Powers of Police Officer to arrest any offender in whole of India
d. Tracking of absconding criminals across state borders
149. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 150, powers of arrest should NOT be exercised in the case of:
a. A juvenile offender
b. A government servant
c. A Known person
d. A person accused of a non-cognizable offence
150. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 151?
a. Handing over suspects to the Village Chaukidar
b. Process when an accused is arrested by a private person
c. Legal immunity for citizens assisting the police
d. Arrest of a person by a Magistrate