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UP APO Mock Test-6
27 min read
UP APO MOCK TEST-6
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Who was the first individual Satyagrahi?
a. Vinoba Bhave
b. J.L. Nehru
c. Brahma Dutt
d. Sarojini Naidu
2. The 'August Offer' (1940) was given by:
a. Lord Linlithgow
b. Lord Wavell
c. Lord Mountbatten
d. Winston Churchill
3. The 'Forward Bloc' was founded by:
a. Subhash Chandra Bose
b. Bhagat Singh
c. M.N. Roy
d. J.P. Narayan
4. Who started the 'Harijan Sevak Sangh'?
a. B.R. Ambedkar
b. Jyotiba Phule
c. M.K. Gandhi
d. Periyar
5. The Poona Pact was signed between:
a. Gandhi & Ambedkar
b. Gandhi & Jinnah
c. Nehru & Ambedkar
d. British & Gandhi
6. In which Round Table Conference did Gandhiji participate?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. All three
7. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in:
a. 1930
b. 1931
c. 1932
d. 1933
8. The Dandi March started from which place?
a. Sabarmati Ashram
b. Dandi
c. Wardha
d. Porbandar
9. 'Right to Property' is currently a:
a. Fundamental Right
b. Legal Right
c. Moral Right
d. None
10. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill?
a. President
b. Finance Minister
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. PM
11. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution is related to:
a. Languages
b. Anti-defection law
c. Land reform
d. Panchayats
12. Which Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
a. 42nd
b. 44th
c. 61st
d.86th
13. MGNREGA was launched in which year?
a. 2004
b. 2006
c. 2009
d. 2014
14. Yellow Revolution' refers to:
a. Pulses
b. Oilseeds
c. Gold
d. Saffron
15. What is the full form of FERA?
a. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b. Foreign Export Act
c. Finance Act
d. Federal Act
16. The 'Green Revolution' was most successful in:
a. Wheat and Rice
b. Pulses
c. Tea
d. Cotton
17. Which enzyme is used to "cut" DNA at specific sequences in genetic engineering?
a. DNA Ligase
b. Restriction Endonuclease
c. DNA Polymerase
d. Helicase
18. Mycoplasmas are different from other bacteria because they lack a:
a. Nucleus
b. Cell wall
c. Ribosome
d. Plasma membrane
19. The "Bending of plants toward light" (Phototropism) is caused by which hormone?
a. Gibberellin
b. Ethylene
c. Auxin
d. Cytokinin
20. The blue color of the ocean is mainly due to:
a. Reflection of sky
b. Scattering of sunlight by water molecules
c. Refraction
d. Impurities
21. In a nuclear reactor, "Heavy Water" is used as a:
a. Fuel
b. Moderator
c. Coolant
d. Controller
22. "Aspirin" is chemically known as:
a. Methyl Salicylate
b. Acetyl Salicylate
c. Acetylsalicylic Acid
d. Phenyl Salicylate
23. Which is the lightest metal?
a. Hydrogen
b. Lithium
c. Helium
d. Osmium
24. Which of the following is used as a "Dry Lubricant"?
a. Graphite
b. Silica
c. Diamond
d. Iron Ore
25. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
a. Raghuram Rajan
b. Shaktikanta Das
c. Urjit Patel
d. Shri Sanjay Malhotra
26. Who is the Chief Justice of India (CJI) as of early 2026?
a. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
b. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
c. Justice B.R. Gavai
d. Justice Surya Kant
27. Which Indian state recently passed a bill to implement a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) first?
a. Gujarat
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Uttarakhand
d. Madhya Pradesh
28. The ‘One Nation, One Election’ high-level committee was headed by whom?
a. Amit Shah
b. Ram Nath Kovind
c. Ghulam Nabi Azad
d. N.K. Singh
29. The 16th Finance Commission is chaired by:
a. N.K. Singh
b. Arvind Panagariya
c. Raghuram Rajan
d. Shaktikanta Das
30. Which state recently became the first to declare 'Right to Internet' as a basic right?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Karnataka
d. Maharashtra
31. Which international organization recently declared 'Polio-free' status for South East Asia?
a. UNICEF
b. WHO
c. World Bank
d. UNDP
32. What is the name of the digital currency launched by RBI?
a. e-Rupee
b. Digi-Cash
c. Bharat-Coin
d. R-Coin
33. Who won the 2024 Ballon d'Or (Men)?
a. Rodri
b. Vinicius Jr
c. Erling Haaland
d. Lionel Messi
34. The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between Babur and:
a. Rana Sanga
b. Ibrahim Lodi
c. Hemu
d. Sher Shah Sur
35. Who wrote the 'Humayun-nama'?
a. Humayun
b. Gulbadan Begum
c. Abul Fazl
d. Badauni
36. The 'Second Battle of Panipat' (1556) was fought between:
a. Akbar and Hemu
b. Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
c. Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas
d. Humayun and Sher Shah
37. Which Mughal Emperor introduced the 'Mansabdari System'?
a. Babur
b. Humayun
c. Akbar
d. Aurangzeb
38. Who built the Grand Trunk (GT) Road?
a. Akbar
b. Sher Shah Suri
c. Shah Jahan
d. Lord Dalhousie
39. Who wrote 'Harshacharita'?
a. Banabhatta
b. Kalidasa
c. Harsha
d. Xuanzang
40. The rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram were built by which dynasty?
a. Cholas
b. Pandyas
c. Pallavas
d. Chalukyas
41. The Kailasa Temple at Ellora was built by:
a. Krishna I
b. Dantidurga
c. Amoghavarsha
d. Pulakeshin II
42. Which country is known as the "Land of Thousand Lakes"?
a. Switzerland
b. Finland
c. Canada
d. Norway
43. The Panama Canal connects which two oceans?
a. Indian & Pacific
b. Atlantic & Pacific
c. Atlantic & Indian
d. Arctic & Atlantic
44. Which desert is located in South America?
a. Kalahari
b. Atacama
c. Thar
d. Mojave
45. Mount Etna, a famous volcano, is located in:
a. Japan
b. Italy
c. Greece
d. Mexico
46. What does a "Population Pyramid" with a broad base indicate?
a. High birth rate
b. Low birth rate
c. Aging population
d. High life expectancy
47. Malthusian Theory is related to:
a. Climate change
b. Population growth
c. Soil erosion
d. Tectonic plates
48. Which country has the highest life expectancy?
a. USA
b. Japan
c. India
d. Brazil
49. The movement of people from rural to urban areas is:
a. Migration
b. Urbanization
c. Emigration
d. Immigration
50. Which is the only country on the world to have both lions and tigers?
a. South Africa
b. India
c. Kenya
d. Thailand
51. When there is a question whether an act was accidental or intentional, the fact that it formed part of a series of similar occurrences is relevant under which section of BSA 2023:
a. Section 13
b. Section 15
c. Section 12
d. Section 11
52. The existence of any course of business according to which an act would naturally have been done is relevant under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 16
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
53. According to Section 126(1) of the BSA, who is considered a competent witness in all civil proceedings?
a. Only legal experts and neutral third parties.
b. Only the main parties to the suit.
c. The parties to the suit, AND the husband or wife of any party to the suit.
d. Only individuals under 60 years of age.
54. Is a police officer prohibited from voluntarily disclosing when they received information about an offense, even if they choose to under sec 131 of BSA?
a. Yes, disclosure is strictly forbidden by this section.
b. No, the section only says they "shall not be compelled".
c. Yes, only the Magistrate can authorize disclosure.
d. The BSA does not cover voluntary disclosure.
55. Oral admissions as to the contents of electronic records are usually not relevant unless:
a. The record is lost
b. The genuineness of the record produced is in question
c. The Magistrate orders it
d. It is a government record
56. In civil cases, an admission is not relevant if it is made:
a. Under an express condition that evidence of it is not to be given
b. To a close relative
c. In a private diary
d. Without a lawyer
57. Opinion on usages, tenets, etc., is relevant under:
a. Section 43
b. Section 49
c. Section 44
d. Section 50
58. Opinion on relationship (Marriage) is relevant under:
a. Section 45
b. Section 50
c. Section 44
d. Section 49
59. If a fact is discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in custody, how much of that info is relevant?
a. The entire statement
b. So much as relates distinctly to the fact discovered
c. Nothing
d. Only the signature
60. A confession otherwise relevant does not become irrelevant merely because it was made:
a. Under a promise of secrecy
b. When the accused was drunk
c. In answer to questions he need not have answered
d. All of the above
61. According to Section 169 of the BSA, the improper admission or rejection of evidence is, of itself, ground for:
a. An automatic new trial in all circumstances.
b. A reversal of the decision without further consideration.
c. A ground for a new trial or reversal only if it affected the overall decision.
d. Neither a new trial nor a reversal of any decision.
62. The first proviso to Section 168 states that the judgment must be based upon facts that are:
a. Known personally by the judge.
b. Declared by this Adhiniyam to be relevant, and duly proved.
c. Admitted by both parties, regardless of relevancy.
d. Part of the "same transaction" only.
63. In State of Himachal Pradesh v. Jai Lal, the Court held that an expert must provide the Court with the necessary scientific criteria for testing the accuracy of their conclusions. Under BSA 2023, which section governs the relevancy of such expert opinions?
a. Section 45
b. Section 39
c. Section 41
d. Section 63
64. The landmark case State of U.P. v. Raj Narain established that the State can claim privilege over certain documents. Which section of BSA 2023 protects "undisclosed official records relating to affairs of State"?
a. Section 129
b. Section 130
c. Section 132
d. Section 125
65. Under Section 136 of the BSA 2023, if a person has control over an electronic record belonging to someone else, they can only be forced to show it to the court if:
a. The police demand it during an investigation
b. The electronic record is not password protected
c. The person who actually owns/controls the record gives their consent
d. The record is stored on a cloud server
66. Under Section 132 of BSA 2023, an advocate is prohibited from disclosing communications made to them by their client unless:
a. The client gives express consent.
b. The communication was made in furtherance of an illegal purpose.
c. Both a and b.
d. The police demand the files
67. Under Section 146 of BSA, Leading Questions MUST NOT be asked in an Examination-in-chief or Re-examination (if objected to) EXCEPT when they relate to:
a. Matters which are introductory
b. Matters which are undisputed
c. Matters which have been sufficiently proved
d. All of the above
68. A party may, with the permission of the Court, put questions to their own witness which might be put in cross-examination under:
a. Section 154
b. Section 157
c. Section 145
d. Section 165
69. If Party A formally admits in their written statement (pleading) that a contract was signed on a specific date, Section 53 dictates that this fact typically:
a. Must still be proved by the original document.
b. Need not be proved by Party B.
c. Must be supported by three witnesses.
d. Becomes irrelevant to the case.
70. The definition of "document" includes matter recorded upon any substance using which of the following means?
a. Letters, figures, or marks
b. Electronic and digital records
c. More than one of the above means
d. All of the above
71. Under the BNSS, if an act is an offence solely because of its relationship to another act that is also an offence (e.g., abetment or receiving stolen property), where can the "first-mentioned" offence be tried?
a. Only in the jurisdiction where the primary offence was committed.
b. Only in the jurisdiction where the related act (like receiving the property) was done.
c. By a Court within whose local jurisdiction either of the two acts was done.
d. Only in the jurisdiction where the accused currently resides.
72. Under Section 203 of the BNSS, if a theft is committed against a person while they are traveling on an inter-state bus from Delhi to Jaipur, which court has the jurisdiction to try the offence?
a. Only the court in Delhi where the journey began.
b. Only the court in Jaipur where the journey ended.
c. Any court through or into whose local jurisdiction the person or the bus passed during the journey.
d. Only the court where the thief was eventually arrested.
73. If a Magistrate is satisfied that there is sufficient ground for proceeding in a summons-case, they shall first issue a:
a. Warrant of arrest
b. Summons for the attendance of the accused
c. Order for attachment of property
d. Notice for plea bargaining
74. According to Section 208 of the BNSS, if an Indian citizen commits a crime in London, what is a mandatory requirement before an Indian court can inquire into or try such an offence?
a. The accused must be extradited by the UK government first.
b. The previous sanction of the Central Government must be obtained.
c. The victim must be an Indian citizen residing in India.
d. The crime must also be a "terrorist act" under the BNS.
75. What is the marginal heading of Section 21?
a. Courts by which offences are triable.
b. Sentences which Magistrates may pass
c. Sentences in case of conviction of several offences at one trial
d. Mode of conferring powers
76. "Powers of superior officers of police" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 31
b. Section 30
c. Section 32
d. Section 33
77. What is the marginal heading of Section 34?
a. Duty of person to let search
b. Public when to assist Magistrates and police
c. Aid to person, other than police officer, executing warrant
d. Duty of officers employed in connection with affairs of a village to make certain report
78. The marginal heading of Section 51 is:
a. Arrest how made
b. No unnecessary restraint
c. Examination of accused by medical practitioner at request of police officer.
d. Right of arrested person to meet an advocate
79. What is the marginal heading of Section 42?
a. Arrest by private person
b. Arrest by Magistrate
c. Protection of members of Armed Forces from arrest
d. Arrest on warrant
80. "Identification of person arrested" is the heading for:
a. Section 51
b. Section 54
c. Section 55
d. Section 60
81. What is the marginal heading of Section 78?
a. Warrant directed to police officer
b. Examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner
c. Examination of arrested person by medical officer
d. Person arrested to be brought before Court without delay.
82. The marginal heading of Section 251 is:
a. Opening case for prosecution
b. Discharge
c. Framing of charge
d. Conviction on plea of guilty
83. What is the marginal heading of Section 258?
a. Evidence for prosecution
b. Evidence for defence
c. Steps for women to be taken in certain cases
d. Judgment of acquittal or conviction
84. "Security for keeping peace in other cases" is the heading for:
a. Section 125
b. Section 126
c. Section 127
d. Section 130
85. What is the marginal heading of Section 152?
a. Conditional order for removal of nuisance
b. Service or notification of order
c. Person to whom order is addressed to obey or show cause
d. Procedure where he appears to show cause
86. "Examination of complainant" is the heading for:
a. Section 223
b. Section 224
c. Section 225
d. Section 226
87. What is the marginal heading of Section 226?
a. Postponement of issue of process
b. Dismissal of complaint
c. Issue of process
d. Appearance of accused
88. Scenario: A proclaimed offender absconds to another country to evade a trial for a heist. There is no immediate prospect of his arrest. What can the Court do under Section 107 (read with trial provisions) of BNSS?
a. Stay the trial indefinitely until he returns.
b. The Court or the Magistrate may proceed to pass the ex parte order.
c. Only seize his property but cannot proceed with the trial.
d. Discharge him from the case due to lack of presence.
89. Scenario: A crime scene involving a murder (punishable by death or life) is reported. The local police station does not have its own forensic laboratory. What is the mandate under Section 176(3) of BNSS?
a. The forensic requirement is waived for lack of facility.
b. The state must utilize forensic laboratories of another state or central facilities.
c. The investigation is transferred to the nearest state with a lab.
d. The police must hire a private forensic expert at the victim's expense.
90. Scenario: A victim of a chain-snatching incident in Mumbai attempts to file an FIR at a police station in Delhi while visiting. The officer refuses, stating the crime did not happen in Delhi. Under Section 173 of BNSS, what is the legally correct position?
a. The officer is correct; FIRs must be filed at the station with local jurisdiction.
b. The officer must register a "Zero FIR" and then transfer it to the concerned station in Mumbai.
c. The officer can only register an "e-FIR" but not a physical FIR.
d. The victim must first get permission from a Delhi Magistrate to file the FIR.
91. The BNSS has introduced a significant digital reform regarding the service of summons. According to Section 64 and Section 70, in what form can a summons now be served to be considered valid?
a. Only via registered post with acknowledgment due.
b. Only by a police officer delivering a paper copy.
c. In electronic form, authenticated by the image of the seal of the Court or digital signature.
d. Only through a public notice in a local newspaper.
92. Under Section 210 of the BNSS, 2023, a Magistrate can take cognizance of an offence in which of the following ways?
a. Upon receiving a complaint of facts which constitute such offence.
b. Upon a police report of such facts.
c. Upon information received from any person other than a police officer, or upon his own knowledge.
d. All of the above.
93. Under Section 218 of the BNSS, if the "Competent Authority" fails to decide on a request for sanction to prosecute a public servant within a specific timeframe, the sanction is now "deemed" to have been granted. What is this timeframe?
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. 180 days
94. Under Section 213 of the BNSS, can a Court of Session take cognizance of an offence directly as a Court of original jurisdiction?
a. Yes, for all sessions-triable cases.
b. No, unless the case has been committed to it by a Magistrate, except as otherwise expressly provided.
c. Yes, but only if the Public Prosecutor submits a written application.
d. No, a Court of Session never has original jurisdiction.
95. "Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of period of limitation" is found under:
a. Section 530
b. Section 531
c. Section 523
d. Section 514
96. A induces B to sign a blank paper, falsely telling him it is a character certificate, whereas it is actually a sale deed for B’s property. A is guilty of:
a. Extortion
b. Cheating
c. Theft
d. Criminal Trespass
97. A sees a mobile phone on B's table. A hides the phone under a carpet in the same room with the intention of taking it later when B leaves. A has committed:
a. No offence until he takes it out of the house
b. Attempt to Theft
c. Theft
d. Criminal Trespass only
98. A, intending to cause wrongful loss to B, throws B's expensive watch into a deep river where it cannot be recovered. A is guilty of:
a. Theft
b. Mischief
c. Criminal Misappropriation
d. Robbery
99. Under which section of BNS "Abetment of suicide" is given:
a. Section 106
b. Section 107
c. Section 108
d. Section 109
100. "Attempt to murder" is the heading for:
a. Section 107
b. Section 108
c. Section 109
d. Section 110
101. Which section has the heading "Possession of forged document or electronic record and intending to use it as genuine"?
a. Section 341
b. Section 340
c. Section 343
d. Section 344
102. "Counterfeiting device or mark used for authenticating documents" is the heading for:
a. Section 343
b. Section 342
c. Section 345
d. Section 346
103. "A" organizes a peaceful protest and uses strong words to criticize the Government's new economic policy, calling it "a failure." He does not incite violence or rebellion. Under Section 152, "A" is:
a. Guilty of endangering sovereignty.
b. Guilty of treason.
c. Not guilty, as comments expressing disapprobation without inciting violence are protected.
d. Guilty of public nuisance.
104. Whenever force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly, or by any member thereof, in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, it is called:
a. Affray
b. Rioting
c. Assault
d. Criminal Force
105. "A" enters a shop, points a fake but realistic-looking gun at the clerk, and takes all the cash. Even though the gun was fake, "A" is guilty of:
a. Cheating
b. Robbery
c. Theft
d. Extortion
106. "A" sees a ring belonging to "Z" lying on a table in "Z’s" house. "A" hides the ring in a place where "Z" is unlikely to find it, with the intention of taking it once "Z" forgets about it. At what point has "A" committed theft?
a. When "A" actually takes the ring out of the house.
b. As soon as "A" moves the ring to hide it.
c. When "Z" discovers the ring is missing.
d. No theft is committed until "A" sells the ring.
107. The landmark case R v. Govinda, which distinguishes Murder from Culpable Homicide, now applies to which BNS sections?
a. Sections 299 & 300
b. Sections 100 & 101
c. Sections 103 & 104
d. Sections 111 & 112
108. The definition of "Document" in BNS now includes "Electronic Records." This aligns with which landmark case on electronic evidence?
a. Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer
b. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal
c. Both a and b
d. Shafi Mohammad v. State of HP
109. For the purpose of calculating a "month" or a "year" under the BNS, which calendar must be used?
a. Saka Calendar
b. Gregorian Calendar
c. Hindu Lunar Calendar
d. Julian Calendar
110. "Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 202
b. Section 203
c. Section 204
d. Section 205
111. "Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intent" is:
a. Section 203
b. Section 204
c. Section 205
d. Section 200
112. "Cheating by personation" is:
a. Section 319
b. Section 320
c. Section 321
d. Section 322
113. "Mischief" is the heading for:
a. Section 322
b. Section 324
c. Section 326
d. Section 328
114. Under BNS Section 303, "Theft" requires the moving of movable property with the intention to take it:
a. Permanently
b. Dishonestly out of the possession of any person without consent
c. By use of force
d. For personal gain only
115. Under Section 312, if an offender is armed with a deadly weapon while attempting to commit robbery or dacoity, the imprisonment shall not be less than:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
116. In the landmark case State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, the SC discussed the nature of conspiracy. Under BNS, for an agreement to constitute conspiracy (other than to commit a serious offence), what is required?
a. Just the agreement
b. Some act besides the agreement must be done by one or more parties
c. Written proof of the plan
d. Presence of all conspirators at the crime scene
117. Under Section 38(1) of BNS, the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death if the offence involves:
a. Simple hurt
b. Apprehension that death or grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequence
c. Petty theft
d. Verbal abuse
118. "Criminal Breach of Trust" by a public servant or a banker is punishable under:
a. Section 316
b. Section 316(5)
c. Section 318
d. Section 320
119. Which Exception of sec 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed without premeditation in a sudden fight in the heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel and without the offender’s having taken undue advantage or acted in a cruel or unusual manner?
a. Exception 2
b. Exception 4
c. Exception 5
d. Exception 1
120. Defamation under Section 356 the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 involves making or publishing any imputation concerning any person:
a. By words spoken or written
b. By signs
c. By visible representations
d. All of the above
121. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Punishment for non-treatment of victim”?
a. Section 200
b. Section 198
c. Section 197
d. Section 199
122. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with “Dishonest or fraudulent execution of deed of transfer containing false statement of consideration”?
a. Section 322
b. Section 323
c. Section 324
d. Section 325
123. New offences of mob lynching and snatching have been made punishable in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
a. Section 101(2) and section 304
b. Section 103(2) and section 305
c. Section 103(2) and section 304
d. Section 102(2) and section 304
124. A sits dharna at Z’s door with the intention of causing it to be believed that, by so sitting, he renders Z an object of Divine displeasure. A has committed the offence defined in which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 352
b. Section 353
c. Section 355
d. Section 354
125. A falsely informs a public servant that Z has contraband salt in a secret place, knowing such information to be false, and knowing that it is likely that the consequence of the information will be a search of Z’s premises, attended with annoyance to Z. A has committed the offence under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Section 218
b. Section 215
c. Section 216
d. Section 217
126. Article 124 deals with:
a. Establishment of Supreme Court
b. High Courts
c. District Courts
d. Tribunals
127. Who removes a Judge of the Supreme Court?
a. Chief Justice
b. President on address by Parliament
c. Prime Minister
d. Law Minister
128. Article 40 directs the State to organize:
a. Civil Courts
b. Village Panchayats
c. Libraries
d. Hospitals
129. Provision for 'Just and humane conditions of work' is in:
a. Article 41
b. Article 42
c. Article 43
d. Article 44
130. 'Freedom of Conscience' is guaranteed under:
a. Article 24
b. Article 25
c. Article 27
d. Article 28
131. Which Article is the 'Protection of Life and Personal Liberty'?
a. Article 19
b. Article 20
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
132. In which case was the "Creamy Layer" concept introduced for OBC reservations?
a. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
b. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
c. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
d. Balaji v. State of Mysore
133. 'District Planning Committees' are constituted under:
a. Article 243Z
b. Article 243ZD
c. Article 243ZE
d. Article 244
134. The 'Doctrine of Colourable Legislation' means:
a. Legislation must be colourful
b. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly
c. Only Parliament can make laws on colours
d. Laws must be published in the Official Gazette
135. Which Amendment provided for a 'Single High Court for two or more States'?
a. 1st Amendment
b. 7th Amendment
c. 42nd Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
136. Chapter XXXVI (Training of Sub-Inspectors) primarily covers which paragraphs?
a. Paras 525 to 533
b. Paras 534 to 538
c. Paras 540 to 545
d. Paras 101 to 105
137. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 520 of the Police Regulations?
a. Powers of Inspector General
b. Guidelines for Hill Station Postings
c. Transfer of gazetted officers
d. District Residence Restrictions
138. Paragraph 501(2) clarifies that Section 42 of the Police Act is no longer in force for civil suits. Which Act now governs the limitation period for such suits?
a. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. The Police Act, 1861 (Amended 1984)
c. The Limitation Act, 1963
d. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
139. What is the specific marginal heading of Paragraph 503?
a. Arrest of a Police Officer
b. Jurisdiction in Criminal Cases
c. Procedure when a police officer is arrested on a criminal charge
d. Notification to the Inspector General
140. Constables promoted to the rank of Head Constable in the Armed or Civil Police must remain on probation for how long?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
141. Slaughtering cattle or furious riding on a public road is punishable under which section of UP POLICE ACT:
a. Section 30
b. Section 32
c. Section 34
d. Section 44
142. Who regulates the music and conduct of assemblies under Section 30?
a. The District Magistrate
b. The District Superintendent or Assistant Superintendent
c. The Station House Officer
d. The Mayor
143. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 338?
a. Special Acts and Rules for Police
b. A list of Acts or portion of Acts should be kept in police office and S.P. office
c. Legal jurisdiction of the Superintendent of Police
d. District Boundaries and Special Legislation
144. What is the sanctioned reward amount for the apprehension of a military deserter or a person absent without leave (as per Para 341)?
a. Rs. 2
b. Rs. 5
c. Rs. 10
d. Rs. 50
145. Paragraph 352 states that the Glanders and Farcy Act (XIII of 1899) is applicable to:
a. Only municipal and cantonment areas
b. Only the border districts of the state
c. The whole of Uttar Pradesh
d. Only areas with a high population of horses and mules
146. Quartering of additional police in "disturbed or dangerous" areas is governed by:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16
d. Section 20
147. Refusal to serve as a Special Police Officer is punishable under:
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. Section 29
d. Section 34
148. What is the specific marginal heading of Paragraph 370?
a. Maintenance of Police Lines
b. Employment of Municipal Staff
c. No private sweepers may be employed by the police Department for police lines
d. Conservancy allowances for Police Stations
149. According to Paragraph 377, the cash box containing valuables is secured in a safe with:
a. A single digital lock
b. A biometric lock
c. Double locks
d. A single mechanical lock
150. According to Paragraph 398, which of the following is the highest-ranking "Non-Gazetted Officer" in the police force?
a. Circle Officer
b. Inspector
c. Sub-Inspector
d. Superintendent of Police