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UP APO Mock Test-5
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UP APO MOCK TEST-5
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3 Plan) was regarding:
a. Partition of India
b. Constitutional Reforms
c. Communal Award
d. Federal Bank
2. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain during India’s independence?
a. Winston Churchill
b. Clement Attlee
c. Ramsay MacDonald
d. Neville Chamberlain
3. The Direct Action Day (August 16, 1946) was called by:
a. INC
b. Muslim League
c. Hindu Mahasabha
d. Akali Dal
4. The Cabinet Mission (1946) consisted of:
a. Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, A.V. Alexander
b. Mountbatten, Wavell, Linlithgow
c. Simon, Attlee, Churchill
d. None of the above
5. The slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo Ya Maro) was given during:
a. Non-Cooperation Movement
b. Civil Disobedience Movement
c. Quit India Movement
d. Khilafat Movement
6. The Quit India Movement started on:
a. 8 August 1942
b. 15 August 1942
c. 26 January 1942
d. 2 October 1942
7. Who called the Cripps Mission a 'Post-dated cheque'?
a. J.L. Nehru
b. M.K. Gandhi
c. Sardar Patel
d. S.C. Bose
8. The Cripps Mission visited India in:
a. 1940
b. 1941
c. 1942
d. 1943
9. The 'Public Accounts Committee' submits its report to:
a. President
b. Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. PM
d. Finance Minister
10. The Election Commission of India is a:
a. Constitutional Body
b. Statutory Body
c. NGO
d. Executive Body
11. Under Article 356, 'President’s Rule' is imposed in a:
a. District
b. State
c. Union Territory
d. Country
12. The Preamble was amended for the only time by which Act?
a. 24th
b. 42nd
c. 44th
d. 73rd
13. What is 'Repo Rate'?
a. Rate at which banks lend to RBI
b. Rate at which RBI lends to banks
c. Rate for public
d. Zero rate
14. The first bank to be established in India was:
a. SBI
b. Bank of Hindustan
c. PNB
d. Oudh Commercial Bank
15. Who is the 'Lender of Last Resort'?
a. SBI
b. RBI
c. World Bank
d. IMF
16. Which organization calculates National Income in India?
a. CSO (now NSO)
b. RBI
c. Finance Ministry
d. NITI Aayog
17. Xerophthalmia is a deficiency disease caused by lack of:
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin K
18. Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but absent in DNA?
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Uracil
d. Thymine
19. The process of "Nitrogen Fixation" by Rhizobium occurs in:
a. Leaf cells
b. Stem nodes
c. Root nodules
d. Flowers
20. The weight of a body at the center of the Earth is:
a. Infinite
b. Same as on surface
c. Zero
d. Slightly less than on surface
21. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?
a. Radio waves
b. Infrared
c. Gamma rays
d. Microwaves
22. "Zeolite" is used in:
a. Removing hardness of water
b. Making glass
c. Agriculture
d. Food coloring
23. What is "Milk of Magnesia"?
a. Magnesium Carbonate
b. Magnesium Hydroxide
c. Magnesium Oxide
d. Magnesium Sulfate
24. Which gas is known as 'Strangers Gas'?
a. Argon
b. Neon
c. Xenon
d. Helium
25. The COP29 Climate Summit (2024), which focused heavily on establishing a new global climate finance goal, was hosted by which city?
a. Dubai, UAE
b. Belém, Brazil
c. Baku, Azerbaijan
d. New Delhi, India
26. The 'Voice of Global South Summit,' a virtual platform created to amplify the concerns of developing nations in global forums like the G20, is an initiative of?
a. South Africa
b. Brazil
c. India
d. China
27. The Aditya-L1 spacecraft, positioned at the Lagrange Point 1, is dedicated to studying which celestial body?
a. The Moon
b. Mars
c. The Sun
d. Venus
28. Which technology giant launched the 'Gemini 2.0' AI model, designed for advanced reasoning and multimodal capabilities?
a. Microsoft
b. Open AI
c. Meta
d. Google
29. The 'Great Barrier Reef', the world’s largest coral reef system currently facing significant bleaching threats, belongs to which country?
a. Indonesia
b. Australia
c. Brazil
d. Maldives
30. In the context of India's digital public infrastructure, what is 'Bhashini'?
a. A satellite-based internet service
b. An AI-based Language Translation Mission
c. A new cryptocurrency regulated by RBI
d. A cybersecurity firewall for government portals
31. In 2026, which country became the first to grant legal 'personhood' to a forest?
a. New Zealand
b. Brazil
c. Canada
d. Costa Rica
32. The 'World Economic Outlook' report, which provides comprehensive forecasts for global growth and inflation, is published twice a year by which organisation?
a. World Bank
b. World Economic Forum (WEF)
c. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
d. United Nations (UN)
33. The prestigious 2025 Booker Prize was awarded to which author for their sixth novel titled Flesh?
a. Samantha Harvey
b. David Szalay
c. Kiran Desai
d. Paul Lynch
34. As of February 2026, legendary footballer Lionel Messi is currently a star player for which of the following clubs?
a. Paris Saint-Germain
b. Al-Nassr
c. FC Barcelona
d. Inter Miami CF
35. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli is dedicated to which king?
a. Ashoka
b. Chandra (Chandragupta II)
c. Harsha
d. Kanishka
36. Which Mahajanapada emerged as the most powerful?
a. Vatsa
b. Magadha
c. Kashi
d. Kosala
37. The university of Nalanda was established by:
a. Samudragupta
b. Chandragupta II
c. Kumaragupta I
d. Skandagupta
38. The first sermon of Buddha is known as:
a. Mahabhinishkramana
b. Dhammachakkappavattana
c. Mahaparinirvana
d. Sambodhi
39. The capital of the Kushana Empire was:
a. Pataliputra
b. Purushapura (Peshawar)
c. Ujjain
d. Taxila
40. The 'Din-i-Ilahi' was founded by:
a. Aurangzeb
b. Akbar
c. Jahangir
d. Shah Jahan
41. Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe visited the court of:
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Shah Jahan
d. Aurangzeb
42. Which Mughal Emperor is known as 'Zinda Pir'?
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Aurangzeb
d. Bahadur Shah
43. Which country started the first official family planning program in 1952?
a. China
b. India
c. USA
d. Japan
44. "Doubling Time" in demography refers to the time it takes for:
a. Area to double
b. Population to double
c. GDP to double
d. Food to double
45. Which of these is a "Pull Factor"?
a. War
b. Poverty
c. High wages
d. Drought
46. What is the "Total Fertility Rate"?
a. Deaths per year
b. Average children born to a woman
c. Marriages per year
d. None
47. Which country shares the longest border with India?
a. China
b. Pakistan
c. Bangladesh
d. Nepal
48. The "Yellow River" (Huang He) is located in:
a. Japan
b. Korea
c. China
d. Vietnam
49. Which is the highest plateau in the world?
a. Deccan Plateau
b. Tibetan Plateau
c. Colorado Plateau
d. Altiplano
50. Rotterdam, one of the world's busiest ports, is in:
a. Germany
b. Netherlands
c. Belgium
d. UK
51. In the illustration, A intentionally leads B to believe land belongs to A, inducing B to buy it. A later acquires title to the land and seeks to set aside the sale because he had no title initially. What does Section 121 dictate?
a. A is allowed to prove his want of title to reverse the sale.
b. B must return the land to A immediately.
c. A must not be allowed to prove his want of title; he is estopped from denying his original assertion of ownership.
d. The court will ignore the BSA and use general contract law.
52. What is the fundamental rule regarding witness competency established by Section 124 of the BSA, 2023?
a. Only adults of sound mind are permitted to give evidence.
b. All persons are presumed competent to testify unless shown otherwise by the Court.
c. Parties to the suit are never competent witnesses.
d. Only expert witnesses are considered truly competent.
53. When a fact is declared to be "conclusive proof" of another fact by this Adhiniyam, what action must the Court take?
a. The Court may consider other evidence if necessary.
b. The Court shall assume the second fact is disproved.
c. The Court shall, on proof of the one fact, regard the other as proved, and shall not allow evidence to be given to disprove it.
d. The Court can exercise its discretion to allow disproving evidence.
54. According to the Adhiniyam, the term "Court" includes:
a. Only Judges of the High Court
b. Judges and Arbitrators
c. Judges, Magistrates, and all persons (except arbitrators) legally authorised to take evidence
d. Only persons specifically appointed by the government
55. 'May Presume' under Section 2(1)(h) allows the Court to:
a. Regard a fact as proved unless and until it is disproved
b. Call for proof of a fact
c. Regard a fact as proved as a mandatory requirement
d. Both a and b
56. 'Shall Presume' indicates that the Court:
a. Has discretion to accept or reject the fact
b. Shall regard the fact as proved, unless and until it is disproved
c. Must wait for the Supreme Court's direction
d. Cannot allow any evidence to be given
57. The expression 'Certifying Authority' in BSA has the same meaning as defined in:
a. The Indian Penal Code
b. The Information Technology Act, 2000
c. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
d. The Constitution of India
58. Facts which are the occasion, cause, or effect of relevant facts are covered under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 4
59. Under Section 6, which of the following is relevant to show the 'Motive' or 'Preparation' for a crime?
a. Previous conduct
b. Subsequent conduct
c. Preparation for the act
d. All of the above
60. Section 94 of the BSA, 2023, deals with the exclusion of oral by documentary evidence. Under which of the following circumstances is it not necessary to prove the original written document itself?
a. When oral evidence is available for a fact specifically covered by the written document.
b. When a public officer is required by law to be appointed in writing and the person has acted in that role.
c. When the document contains ambiguous or defective language requiring clarification.
d. When the existence of a document is itself the fact in issue.
61. Section 114 of the BSA, 2023, relates to the presumption of a valid mens rea in certain offences, specifically in new laws concerning food and drugs, etc. The presumption is that the accused had a guilty mind unless which of the following is proved?
a. They can prove their good character in court.
b. They can prove that they acted in good faith or without negligence.
c. They agree to pay a fine instead of imprisonment.
d. The prosecution fails to produce a key witness.
62. When can a party who calls a witness (the prosecution) treat their own witness as "hostile" or "adverse" under Section 157 of the BSA, 2023?
a. If the witness smiles at the defence counsel.
b. If the witness tells the judge they are scared.
c. When the court, in its discretion, permits the person calling the witness to cross-examine them because their testimony is adverse.
d. Automatically if the witness contradicts a single statement in their police report.
63. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following best describes the principle of "Best Evidence Rule"?
a. The party must produce the strongest possible evidence available.
b. Hearsay evidence is strictly prohibited in all circumstances.
c. Electronic records are preferred over physical documents.
d. Oral evidence is always considered primary evidence.
64. Which of the following is NOT an example of "evidence" under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Section 2(e)?
a. A witness's oral statement in court.
b. Server logs presented to the court.
c. A lawyer's opinion presented in arguments.
d. A letter produced in court for inspection.
65. Facts necessary to explain or introduce a relevant fact are relevant under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 11
d. Section 13
66. In suits for damages, facts tending to enable the Court to determine the amount are relevant under:
a. Section 10
b. Section 12
c. Section 14
d. Section 16
67. Facts showing the existence of any state of mind (intention, knowledge, good faith) are relevant under:
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 14
d. Section 18
68. An admission can be made by:
a. A party to the proceeding
b. An agent authorized by a party
c. A person interested in the subject matter
d. All of the above
69. Admissions are not conclusive proof, but they may operate as:
a. Conclusive evidence
b. Estoppels
c. Res Judicata
d. Hearsay
70. ‘A’ desires a Court to give judgment that B shall be punished for a crime A says B has committed. Who bears the burden of proving that B committed the crime?
a. B, the accused person.
b. The Court itself.
c. A, the person/prosecution making the assertion.
d. The defense lawyer.
71. Under Section 35 of BNSS, for an offence punishable with less than 7 years, what is required before arrest?
a. Permission from a Magistrate
b. Prior notice and satisfaction of conditions under Section 35(1)
c. Written permission from the DSP
d. No conditions required
72. Every Police Station must designate one officer (not below the rank of ASI) to be the "Designated Police Officer" for what purpose?
a. To handle cybercrime
b. To maintain information on arrested persons
c. To manage forensic evidence
d. To handle women complainants
73. The Magistrate may, after giving the accused a reasonable opportunity of being heard, for reasons to be recorded in writing, try in a summary way the offence for a term not exceeding:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 7 years
74. If a person is unable to give bail within ____ of the date of arrest, the officer/Court shall deem them indigent and release them on a bond.
a. 24 hours
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 15 days
75. When an appeal is filed against a conviction, the Appellate Court may suspend the execution of the sentence under which section?
a. Section 389
b. Section 401
c. Section 430
d. Section 478
76. In an appeal from an order of acquittal, the High Court has the power to:
a. Reverse such order and direct further inquiry
b. Find the person guilty and pass sentence
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
77. If a mercy petition is rejected by the Governor, the convict must file the petition with the President within how many days?
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
78. Under Section 396, who can recommend compensation to a victim where the offender is not traced or identified?
a. The Police Officer
b. The State or District Legal Services Authority
c. The High Court Registrar
d. The Jail Superintendent
79. No appeal shall lie from a judgment of a Court of Session when the sentence of imprisonment does not exceed:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
80. Which section of BNSS deals with “Money ordered to be paid recoverable as a fine”?
a. Section 470
b. Section 471
c. Section 472
d. Section 473
81. In a summons-case trial, if the accused appears and admits to the offence (Plea of Guilty), the Magistrate:
a. Must conduct a full trial regardless
b. May record the admission and convict them at discretion
c. Must release them with a warning
d. Must refer the case to the High Court
82. The Supreme Court in Mihir Rajesh Shah v. State (2025) emphasized that every person arrested must be informed of the grounds of arrest in which manner?
a. Orally only.
b. In writing and in a language they understand.
c. Through a lawyer within 24 hours.
d. By posting the reasons on the police website.
83. Which section protects a "Judge or Public Servant" from prosecution for acts done in the discharge of official duty without government sanction?
a. Section 197
b. Section 210
c. Section 218
d. Section 500
84. Which section has the marginal heading "Courts of Session"?
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 8
85. What is the marginal heading of Section 18?
a. Public Prosecutors
b. Assistant Public Prosecutors
c. Directorate of Prosecution
d. Special Public Prosecutors
86. “Sentences which Magistrates may pass" is the heading for:
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24
87. Which section carries the marginal heading "Designated police officer"?
a. Section 36
b. Section 37
c. Section 40
d. Section 41
88. The heading "Arrest by private person and procedure on such arrest" belongs to:
a. Section 41
b. Section 42
c. Section 40
d. Section 44
89. What is the marginal heading of Section 47?
a. Search of place entered by person sought to be arrested
b. No unnecessary restraint
c. Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail
d. Health and safety of arrested person
90. "Right of arrested person to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation" is the heading for:
a. Section 41D
b. Section 38
c. Section 54
d. Section 51
91. What is the marginal heading of Section 173?
a. Information in non-cognizable cases
b. Information in cognizable cases
c. Police officer's power to investigate
d. Procedure for investigation
92. The heading "Procedure for investigation" belongs to which section?
a. Section 174
b. Section 175
c. Section 176
d. Section 177
93. What is the marginal heading of Section 180?
a. Search by police officer
b. Examination of witnesses by police
c. Statements to police not to be signed
d. Case diary
94. "Recording of confessions and statements" is the heading for:
a. Section 164
b. Section 182
c. Section 183
d. Section 184
95. Which section has the marginal heading "Procedure when investigation cannot be completed in twenty-four hours"?
a. Section 187
b. Section 190
c. Section 193
d. Section 197
96. A, a revenue-officer, is entrusted with public money and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the Government, to pay into a certain treasury all the public money which he holds. A dishonestly appropriates the money. A has committed:
a. Theft
b. Cheating
c. Criminal Breach of Trust
d. Extortion
97. A, by tendering in payment for an article a bill on a house with which A keeps no money, and by which A expects that the bill will be dishonoured, intentionally deceives Z, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to deliver the article, intending not to pay for it. A is primarily liable for:
a. Theft
b. Cheating
c. Forgery
d. Both (b) and (c)
98. "Terrorist act" is the heading for:
a. Section 111
b. Section 112
c. Section 113
d. Section 114
99. "Hurt" is defined under the heading of:
a. Section 112
b. Section 114
c. Section 115
d. Section 116
100. "Forgery of valuable security, will, etc." is the heading for:
a. Section 338
b. Section 339
c. Section 340
d. Section 341
101. "Using as genuine a forged document or electronic record" is found under:
a. Section 339
b. Section 340
c. Section 341
d. Section 342
102. An assembly of 5 or more persons is "unlawful" under BNS 2023 if their common object is to:
a. Celebrate a festival loudly
b. Protest peacefully against a law
c. Overawe the Government by criminal force
d. Discuss community welfare
103. "A" pulls a lady’s gold chain from her neck. In the process, he causes a minor scratch/injury to her. Under BNS, this act is classified as:
a. Theft
b. Snatching
c. Robbery
d. Mischief
104. "A" meets "Z" on the high road, shows a pistol, and demands "Z’s" purse. "Z" surrenders the purse. What offence has "A" committed?
a. Only Theft
b. Extortion
c. Robbery
d. Dacoity
105. "Criminal Conspiracy," famously discussed in State v. Nalini, has moved from Section 120A IPC to which BNS section?
a. Section 61(1)
b. Section 62
c. Section 111
d. Section 45
106. As per Section 106(1), if a Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) causes death by a rash or negligent act while performing a medical procedure, what is the maximum punishment?
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
107. Which of the following is an essential ingredient for an act to be considered "Theft" under Section 303(1) of the BNS?
a. Moving immovable property without consent.
b. Moving movable property with the intent to return it later.
c. Moving movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent.
d. Taking property with the intent to cause wrongful gain to the owner.
108. Section 356 of the BNS deals with which of the following offences?
a. Criminal Intimidation
b. Defamation
c. Intentional Insult
d. Public Mischief
109. "Sale of drug as a different drug or preparation" is:
a. Section 275
b. Section 276
c. Section 277
d. Section 278
110. "Fouling water of public spring or reservoir" is:
a. Section 277
b. Section 278
c. Section 279
d. Section 280
111. The heading "Act done pursuant to the judgment or order of Court" belongs to:
a. Section 15
b. Section 16
c. Section 17
d. Section 19
112. Which section has the heading "Things done in private defence"?
a. Section 34
b. Section 35
c. Section 36
d. Section 40
113. "Punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment" is found under:
a. Section 61
b. Section 60
c. Section 64
d. Section 62
114. "Public servant disobeying law, with intent to cause injury to any person" is the heading for:
a. Section 198
b. Section 199
c. Section 201
d. Section 202
115. Which section has the heading "Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intent"?
a. Section 199
b. Section 205
c. Section 201
d. Section 204
116. "Injuring or defiling place of worship with intent to insult the religion of any class" is:
a. Section 297
b. Section 298
c. Section 299
d. Section 300
117. "Disturbing religious assembly" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 299
b. Section 300
c. Section 301
d. Section 302
118. "Dacoity" is the heading for:
a. Section 308
b. Section 310
c. Section 311
d. Section 312
119. Which Chapter of the BNS 2023 gives precedence to offences against women and children?
a. Chapter II
b. Chapter V
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter XVII
120. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Extortion — Section 302
b. Criminal Breach of Trust — Section 316
c. Defamation — Section 356
d. Receiving Stolen Property — Section 317
121. Total number of Chapters and Sections in BNS 2023 are:
a. 23 Chapters, 511 Sections
b. 20 Chapters, 358 Sections
c. 25 Chapters, 480 Sections
d. 18 Chapters, 300 Sections
122. The definition of "Gender" in BNS now explicitly includes:
a. Only Men and Women
b. Transgender persons
c. Only biological females
d. Non-binary individuals only
123. Threat of injury to public servant is punishable under:
a. Section 309
b. Section 226
c. Section 224
d. Section 186
124. In Tehseen Poonawalla v. Union of India (2018), the SC gave directions against Mob Lynching. BNS now punishes Murder by a group on grounds of race, caste, etc., under:
a. Section 103(1)
b. Section 103(2)
c. Section 105
d. Section 111
125. Which case established that the right to protest does not include the right to block public roads, a principle relevant to BNS offences against public tranquility?
a. Shaheen Bagh (Amit Sahni v. Commissioner of Police)
b. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar
c. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
d. Arnab Goswami v. Union of India
126. High Court power to issue Writs is under:
a. Article 32
b. Article 131
c. Article 226
d. Article 227
127. The 'Salary of Judges' is charged on:
a. Consolidated Fund of India/State
b. Contingency Fund
c. Public Accounts
d. PM Cares Fund
128. Article 76 deals with:
a. CAG
b. Attorney General
c. Finance Commission
d. Election Commission
129. Ordinance-making power of the Governor is under:
a. Article 123
b. Article 213
c. Article 163
d. Article 174
130. The 'Contingency Fund of India' is at the disposal of:
a. Parliament
b. The President
c. CAG
d. Finance Minister
131. Who can suspend Fundamental Rights during an Emergency?
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. President
d. Prime Minister
132. Which Rights cannot be suspended even during Emergency?
a. Art 19 & 20
b. Art 20 & 21
c. Art 21 & 22
d. Art 14 & 17
133. Protection of interests of Minorities is in:
a. Article 28
b. Article 29
c. Article 30
d. Article 31
134. Which writ means 'To be informed' or 'To be certified'?
a. Mandamus
b. Quo-Warranto
c. Certiorari
d. Prohibition
135. Child Labour is prohibited in factories under:
a. Article 23
b. Article 24
c. Article 25
d. Article 26
136. Detailed instructions regarding the uniform to be worn by all ranks of the police force are contained in which part of the regulations?
a. Appendix I
b. Appendix II
c. Appendix III
d. Appendix IV
137. Which paragraph of the UP Police Regulations governs the incremental time-scale for the advancement of Sub-Inspectors?
a. Paragraph 232
b. Paragraph 463-A
c. Paragraph 396
d. Paragraph 501
138. What is the specific marginal heading of Chapter XXXVI of the Police Regulations?
a. Appointment of Sub-Inspectors
b. Powers of the Deputy Inspector General
c. Training of Sub-Inspectors
d. Probation of Civil Police
139. According to Paragraph 520, who has the authority to make transfers of Gazetted Officers?
a. The Inspector General (IG)
b. The Governor in Council
c. The Director General of Police (DGP)
d. The Deputy Inspector General (DIG)
140. Under Paragraph 501, the State will defend a police officer at its own expense provided that the officer acted:
a. Under the direct written orders of the DIG
b. In self-defence during a riot
c. Honestly and with due care and attention
d. Within the first 24 hours of an arrest
141. Under Paragraph 504, every officer leaving the force is entitled to a certificate of discharge in which form number?
a. Form No. 10
b. Form No. 15
c. Form No. 26
d. Form No. 50
142. According to Paragraph 450, who is the primary authority empowered to make permanent promotions to the rank of Head Constable?
a. The Inspector General of Police (IGP)
b. The Superintendent of Police (SP)
c. The District Magistrate
d. The Reserve Inspector
143. According to Paragraph 5 of the UP Police Regulations, the term “Commissioner” includes which of the following officers?
a. Any Superintendent of Police
b. A Collector or Deputy Commissioner in charge of a division
c. Only the Divisional Magistrate
d. The Director General of Police
144. Punishment under Section 34 of POLICE ACT includes imprisonment up to:
a. 2 days
b. 8 days
c. 15 days
d. 1 month
145. Penalty for disobeying orders issued under Section 30 is found in:
a. Section 31
b. Section 32
c. Section 33
d. Section 34
146. A license for a procession under Section 30 is granted by:
a. The District Superintendent or Assistant Superintendent
b. The District Magistrate only
c. The Inspector-General
d. The Local Municipal Board
147. Under Section 23, what is the primary duty of every police officer?
a. To collect taxes
b. To prevent the commission of offences and public nuisances
c. To assist the Judiciary in civil matters
d. To manage local elections
148. According to Paragraph 456, promotion from Constable to Head Constable is primarily made on the basis of:
a. Special merit and gallantry
b. Discretion of the DIG
c. Seniority on the list of qualified constables
d. Direct recruitment only
149. Which entity is responsible for maintaining the list of Mounted Police constables of the State who have qualified for the Advance Course?
a. The District Police Lines
b. The Police Training College, Moradabad
c. Police Headquarters (P.H.Q.)
d. The Range Deputy Inspector General’s Office
150. Which chapter of the Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations is dedicated to the subject of "REWARDS"?
a. Chapter XXX
b. Chapter XXXI
c. Chapter XXXII
d. Chapter XXIX