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UP APO Mock Test-4
24 min read
UP APO MOCK TEST-4
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Who gave the title 'Mahatma' to Gandhiji?
a. Rabindranath Tagore
b. S.C. Bose
c. J.L. Nehru
d. G.K. Gokhale
2. The 'Red Shirts' (Khudai Khidmatgar) movement was led by:
a. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
b. Mohammad Ali
c. Shaukat Ali
d. Abul Kalam Azad
3. Who presided over the 1924 Belgaum session of INC?
a. M.K. Gandhi
b. J.L. Nehru
c. Sarojini Naidu
d. C.R. Das
4. Who was known as 'Deshbandhu'?
a. C.F. Andrews
b. Chittaranjan Das
c. Rajendra Prasad
d. J.L. Nehru
5. Who was the first Indian to join the Indian Civil Services (ICS)?
a. Satyendranath Tagore
b. Surendranath Banerjee
c. R.C. Dutt
d. Dadabhai Naoroji
6. Who founded the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
a. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar)
b. C.N. Annadurai
c. B.R. Ambedkar
d. P. Tyagaraja Chetti
7. The newspaper 'Kesari' was published in which language?
a. English
b. Marathi
c. Hindi
d. Gujarati
8. Who founded the 'Banaras Hindu University'?
a. Madan Mohan Malaviya
b. Annie Besant
c. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d. J.L. Nehru
9. Who appoints the Judges of the High Court?
a. Governor
b. President
c. Chief Justice of India
d. PM
10. The 'Pocket Veto' power is exercised by:
a. PM
b. President
c. Governor
d. Chief Justice
11. How many languages are recognized in the 8th Schedule?
a. 14
b. 18
c. 22
d. 24
12. Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 25
d. Article 21
13. What is the primary objective of 'Monetary Policy'?
a. Fiscal consolidation
b. Price stability
c. Export growth
d. Reducing debt
14. 'Blue Revolution' is related to:
a. Agriculture
b. Milk
c. Fisheries
d. Oilseeds
15. NABARD was established on the recommendation of:
a. Hilton Young
b. Shivaraman Committee
c. Narasimham
d. Kelkar
16. The 'Economic Survey' in India is prepared by:
a. NITI Aayog
b. RBI
c. Ministry of Finance
d. CSO
17. The "Kreb’s Cycle" takes place in which part of the cell?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondrial Matrix
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
18. A person with blood group AB can receive blood from:
a. Only AB
b. Only O
c. Only A and B
d. Any blood group
19. Which of the following is a "Vestigial Organ" in humans?
a. Wisdom teeth
b. Spleen
c. Thyroid
d. Gallbladder
20. The "Critical Angle" for a ray of light moving from glass to air is minimum for:
a. Red light
b. Yellow light
c. Green light
d. Violet light
21. Which principle is used in the "Optical Fiber" communication?
a. Scattering
b. Total Internal Reflection
c. Diffraction
d. Polarization
22. The chemical name of Common Salt is:
a. Sodium Chloride
b. Potassium Chloride
c. Sodium Carbonate
d. Calcium Chloride
23. Percentage of Nitrogen in the atmosphere is:
a. 21%
b. 0.03%
c. 78%
d. 0.9%
24. Which gas causes global warming?
a. Nitrogen
b. Helium
c. Carbon Dioxide
d. Hydrogen
25. Who was recently appointed as the Chairperson of the 16th Finance Commission?
a. Arvind Panagariya
b. N.K. Singh
c. Raghuram Rajan
d. Urjit Patel
26. Which high court became the first in India to use AI for live translation of judicial proceedings into regional languages?
a. Delhi HC
b. Kerala HC
c. Bombay HC
d. Allahabad HC
27. Which state government launched the 'Lakhpati Bahen' scheme with the ambitious goal of empowering 50 lakh women?
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Assam
d. West Bengal
28. India’s first Dark Sky Reserve, aimed at promoting astro-tourism and reducing light pollution, is located in which region?
a. Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh
b. Hanle, Ladakh
c. Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
d. Rann of Kutch, Gujarat
29. Which strategic tunnel, inaugurated in early 2026, provides all-weather connectivity to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh?
a. Atal Tunnel
b. Nechiphu Tunnel
c. Sela Tunnel
d. Zojila Tunnel
30. The 'Bharat Ratna', India’s highest civilian award, was posthumously conferred upon which former Chief Minister of Bihar in the 2024/25 period?
a. Nitish Kumar
b. Karpoori Thakur
c. Lalu Prasad Yadav
d. Jagannath Mishra
31. Which of the following statements regarding the 2025 G20 Summit is INCORRECT?
a. It was the first time the G20 Leaders' Summit was hosted on the African continent, held in Johannesburg.
b. The summit theme was "Solidarity, Equality and Sustainability," reflecting the African philosophy of Ubuntu.
c. All 21 members, including the United States, signed the 122-paragraph Johannesburg Leaders' Declaration.
d. The summit marked the first time the African Union participated as a permanent member
32. Who was elected as the Secretary-General of NATO in late 2024/2025?
a. Mark Rutte
b. Jens Stoltenberg
c. Ursula von der Leyen
d. Rishi Sunak
33. Which country officially exited the 'Belt and Road Initiative' (BRI) in 2024/25?
a. Italy
b. Philippines
c. Vietnam
d. Greece
34. Which country launched the 'World Liberty Financial' decentralized finance (DeFi) platform?
a. UAE
b. USA
c. El Salvador
d. Switzerland
35. The Golden Age of Mughal architecture is associated with:
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Shah Jahan
d. Aurangzeb
36. Shivaji Maharaj was crowned in which year?
a. 1664
b. 1674
c. 1680
d. 1707
37. The 'Ashta Pradhan' was the council of ministers of:
a. Akbar
b. Shivaji
c. Krishnadevaraya
d. Tipu Sultan
38. Which social reformer was popularly known as 'Lokhitwadi'?
a. Jyotiba Phule
b. Gopal Hari Deshmukh
c. Akshay Kumar Dutt
d. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
39. Who was the author of the book 'Nil Darpan'?
a. Dinabandhu Mitra
b. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
c. Rabindranath Tagore
d. Shishir Kumar Ghosh
40. The first individual Satyagrahi chosen by Gandhiji was:
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Vinoba Bhave
c. Brahma Dutt
d. C.Rajagopalachar
41. Who was known as the 'Mother of Indian Revolution'?
a. Annie Besant
b. Madam Bhikaiji Cama
c. Sarojini Naidu
d. Aruna Asaf Ali
42. Who wrote 'Tuzuk-i-Baburi' in Turkish?
a. Abul Fazl
b. Babur
c. Gulbadan Begum
d. Faizi
43. The Canadian Prairies are famous for producing:
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Cotton
d. Tea
44. Which is the longest mountain range in the world?
a. Himalayas
b. Andes
c. Rockies
d. Urals
45. The "Golden Triangle" of SE Asia is famous for:
a. Rice production
b. Tourism
c. Opium production
d. Technology
46. Which city is the headquarters of the European Union?
a. Geneva
b. Brussels
c. Paris
d. Berlin
47. The Ural Mountains separate:
a. Africa & Europe
b. Asia & Europe
c. N. America & S. America
d. Asia & Africa
48. Which ocean is most heavily populated along its coasts?
a. Indian
b. Pacific
c. Atlantic
d. Arctic
49. The most populous city in the world is:
a. New York
b. Tokyo
c. Shanghai
d. Delhi
50. Which age group is considered the "Dependent Population"?
a. 15–59
b. Below 15 and above 60
c. 18–45
d. 20–50
51. Under BSA, 'Oral Evidence' refers to:
a. Statements made by witnesses in Court
b. Statements made to a Police Officer
c. Private conversations recorded on tape
d. Newspaper reports
52. A fact is 'Not Proved' when:
a. It is disproved
b. It is neither proved nor disproved
c. It is proved by secondary evidence
d. The witness turns hostile
53. Section 115(2) of BSA, 2023 lists the specific offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, to which the presumption in Section 115(1) applies. Which sections of the BNS are explicitly named in Clause (a)?
a. Sections 100, 120, 302 BNS
b. Sections 147, 148, 149, or 150 BNS
c. Sections 354, 376, 420 BNS
d. Sections 100, 101, 102, 103 BNS
54. What is the central principle established by Section 51 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023?
a. All facts presented in court must be proved by evidence.
b. Facts admitted by parties in a civil case need not be proved.
c. Facts of which the Court will take judicial notice need not be proved.
d. Only oral evidence is required to prove facts under Section 51.
55. The proviso to Section 53 grants the Court the power to:
a. Demand that all facts be proved, ignoring any admissions.
b. Force the parties to admit facts they were previously disputing.
c. Exercise its discretion to require admitted facts to be proved otherwise than by the admissions themselves.
d. Impose a fine on parties who admit too many facts.
56. What type of facts does Section 10 declare to be relevant?
a. Only facts related to the defendant's character.
b. Only facts that were part of the res gestae (same transaction).
c. Any fact which will enable the Court to determine the amount of damages which ought to be awarded.
d. Only facts that the judge takes judicial notice of.
57. The main implication of a fact being "conclusive proof" of another is that evidence to ________ the second fact is inadmissible.
a. Support
b. Disprove
c. Postpone judgment
d. Confirm
58. To determine if a fact is "disproved," the Court must primarily consider:
a. Only the written documents provided.
b. Only oral testimony.
c. All "matters before it" (evidence, arguments, etc.).
d. The opinion of an expert witness only.
59. Section 51 of the BSA is part of which chapter of the Adhiniyam?
a. Chapter I: Preliminary
b. Chapter II: Of the Relevancy of Facts
c. Chapter III: Facts Which Need Not Be Proved
d. Chapter IV: Of Oral Evidence
60. A birth certificate maintained by a municipal corporation would fall under which category in Section 74(1)(a)?
a. Sovereign authority acts.
b. Records of acts of official tribunals.
c. Records of acts of public officers (executive).
d. Public records of private documents.
61. The primary distinction between a public and a private document under the BSA is crucial because the method required to prove their contents in court:
a. Is exactly the same for both types.
b. Differs significantly (e.g., public documents can often be proved by certified copies, whereas private documents often require primary evidence or specific proof of signature).
c. Requires oral evidence for public documents but documentary evidence for private documents.
d. Is determined solely by the judge's discretion.
62. The type of evidence made relevant by Section 11 is useful for establishing a continuous course of conduct or historical acknowledgement, rather than a single event.
a. False, it only applies to single transactions.
b. True, it helps establish the existence or non-existence of long-standing rights/customs.
c. False, customs are never provable in court.
d. True, but only if the facts occurred at the exact same time and place.
63. Which section deals with Exclusion of evidence of oral agreement.
a. Section 94
b. Section 95
c. Section 96
d. Section 97
64. Which section deals with Presumption as to collections of laws and reports of decisions.
a. Section 82
b. Section 81
c. Section 83
d. Section 84
65. Which section deals with Fraud or collusion in obtaining judgment, or incompetency of Court, may be proved.
a. Section 40
b. Section 39
c. Section 37
d. Section 38
66. Which section OF BSA deals with Witness not excused from answering on ground that answer will criminate.
a. Section 135
b. Section 136
c. Section 137
d. Section 138
67. Section 121 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. "Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman."
b. Burden of proof as to ownership.
c. Presumption as to certain offences.
d. Estoppel
68. Under the second proviso to sec 168, the Judge is prohibited from asking questions that would be improper for any other person to ask under which sections concerning leading questions/indecent questions?
a. Section 150 or 151.
b. Section 151 or 152.
c. Section 160 or 161.
d. Section 145 or 146
69. What is the correct sequence of witness examination as prescribed by Section 143(1) of the BSA?
a. Cross-examination, examination-in-chief, re-examination.
b. Examination-in-chief, re-examination, cross-examination.
c. Examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination.
d. Re-examination, cross-examination, examination-in-chief.
70. According to Section 106 of the BSA, the burden of proof as to any particular fact lies on the person who:
a. Is the defendant in the case.
b. Is the prosecution/plaintiff in the case.
c. Wishes the Court to believe in that particular fact's existence.
d. Is a witness testifying about general background information.
71. Section 2(m) of BNSS, 2023 deals with?
a. Investigation
b. local jurisdiction
c. Judicial proceeding
d. High Court
72. How many chapters does the BNSS 2023 contain?
a. 37
b. 38
c. 39
d. 40
73. What is the maximum sentence a Magistrate of the second class can pass?
a. 3 years and fine up to ₹10,000
b. 3 years and fine up to ₹50,000
c. 7 years and fine up to ₹1,00,000
d. 1 year and fine up to ₹10,000
74. After the conclusion of arguments, a judgment must be delivered within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days (extendable to 45 days)
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
75. The Magistrate must supply copies of the police report/documents to the accused within how many days of the first appearance?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
76. For a first-time offender (never convicted before), the release on bail is mandatory after undergoing what portion of the sentence?
a. One-half
b. One-third
c. One-fourth
d. One-fifth
77. Under Section 163 of BNSS, an order for the maintenance of public order (urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger) remains in force for not more than:
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
78. Match the Magistrate with their Power:
Magistrate Punishment
1. CJM i. any sentence
2. Magistrate 1st Class ii. 3 years or ₹50,000
3. Magistrate 2nd Class iii. 1 year or ₹10,000
4. Sessions Judge iv. any sentence
(not exceeding
seven years)
Options:
a. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
b. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
c. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
d. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
79. The definition of "Investigation" under Section 2(1)(l) includes all proceedings conducted by:
a. A Magistrate
b. A Police Officer or any person authorized by a Magistrate
c. Only a CBI Officer
d. A Defense Counsel
80. Which section protects a "Judge or Public Servant" from prosecution for acts done in the discharge of official duty without government sanction?
a. Section 197
b. Section 210
c. Section 218
d. Section 500
81. How many Schedules are attached to the BNSS, 2023?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
82. Which new provision in BNSS allows for the "Attachment and Forfeiture of property" obtained through crime during the investigation?
a. Section 82
b. Section 107
c. Section 105
d. Section 173
83. "Community Service" has been introduced as a punishment for petty offences. Who is authorized to prescribe the nature of this service?
a. The Police Officer
b. The Magistrate
c. The Village Panchayat
d. The High Court
84. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding "Plea Bargaining" (Chapter XXIII) in BNSS:
a. It applies to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.
b. The application must be filed within 30 days from the date of framing of charges.
c. It cannot be used for offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country.
d. Both b and c
85. Under Section 187 of BNSS, the 15-day police custody can be spread over the first 40 or 60 days. This resolves a long-standing legal debate seen in which landmark case?
a. CBI v. Anupam Kulkarni
b. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
c. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
86. The "Arnesh Kumar Guidelines" regarding arrest for offences punishable with less than 7 years are now largely reflected in which section?
a. Section 35(1)
b. Section 41
c. Section 48
d. Section 173
87. BNSS Section 356 (Trial in absentia) addresses the issue of absconding accused. This provision deviates from the general rule of 'presence of the accused' established under which traditional principle?
a. Audi Alteram Partem
b. De minimis non curat lex
c. Res Judicata
d. Caveat Emptor
88. The mandatory video recording of search and seizure (Section 105) is an advancement of the "Right to Fair Trial" under which Article of the Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 25
89. Match the Timeline with the Procedure under BNSS:
Column A Column B
(Procedure) (Timeline)
1. Supply of documents
to accused i. Within 30 days
of arguments
2. Filing e-FIR signature ii. Within 14 days
of appearance
3. Delivery of Judgment iii. Within 90 days
of investigation
4. Inform the progress
of the investigation iv. Within 3 days
Options:
a. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
b. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
c. 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
d. 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
90. Which section of BNSS empowers the High Court to exercise "Revisional Powers"?
a. Section 397
b. Section 401
c. Section 438
d. Section 442
91. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which section provides that any person accused of an offence or against whom proceedings are instituted may, of right, be defended by an advocate of his choice?
a. Section 303
b. Section 340
c. Section 341
d. Section 351
92. Which section of the BNSS, 2023, deals with the compounding of offences, providing a list of offences that can be settled by the parties?
a. Section 320
b. Section 359
c. Section 340
d. Section 401
93. Under the BNSS, 2023, which section allows for the release of a person of unsound mind or with intellectual disability pending investigation or trial, regardless of whether the offence is bailable or not?
a. Section 330
b. Section 367
c. Section 369
d. Section 374
94. Under Section 282 of the BNSS, a Magistrate has the power to convert a summons-case into a warrant-case if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
95. Under Section 398 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which authority is mandated to prepare and notify a "Witness Protection Scheme" for the state?
a. The Central Government
b. Every State Government
c. The High Court of the respective State
d. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
96. Under Section 103(2) of the BNS, a group must consist of at least how many people to be charged with mob lynching?
a. 2 or more
b. 3 or more
c. 5 or more
d. 10 or more
97. A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the commands of the law. A has committed no offence., he is protected under which section of the BNS?
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 21
d. Section 25
98. "Grievous hurt" is the heading for:
a. Section 115
b. Section 116
c. Section 117
d. Section 118
99. "Wrongful restraint" is:
a. Section 124
b. Section 125
c. Section 126
d. Section 127
100. "Making a false document" is the heading for:
a. Section 335
b. Section 336
c. Section 337
d. Section 339
101. "Fraudulent cancellation, destruction, etc., of will, authority to adopt, or valuable security. "is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 337
b. Section 338
c. Section 339
d. Section 343
102. Which section of the BNS deals with Attempt to commit suicide to compel or restrain exercise of lawful power?
a. Section 152
b. Section 196
c. Section 222
d. Section 226
103. Which section of the BNS deals with "Hate Speech" (Promoting enmity between different groups)?
a. Section 152
b. Section 196
c. Section 111
d. Section 103
104. Which section of BNS deals with “Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will”?
a. Section 22
b. Section 21
c. Section 23
d. Section 26
105. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (Sedition) is no longer linked to Section 124A. It now relates to "Acts endangering sovereignty," in which section of BNS
a. Section 150
b. Section 152
c. Section 121
d. Section 147
106. "Community Service" is introduced as a punishment for the first time in BNS. Which case suggested reformative punishments for petty offenses?
a. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
b. Mohammad Giasuddin v. State of AP
c. Hiralal Mallick v. State of Bihar
d. None of the above
107. Which section of BNS deals with Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender?
a. Section 150
b. Section 148
c. Section 128
d. Section 238
108. Under Section 249 of the BNS, who is specifically exempted from punishment for hiding or harbouring an offender to protect them from legal action?
a. The parents of the offender
b. The children of the offender
c. The spouse of the offender
d. The friends of the offender
109. "Assaulting or obstructing public servant when suppressing riot, etc." is:
a. Section 193
b. Section 194
c. Section 195
d. Section 196
110. "Giving false information respecting an offence committed" is:
a. Section 238
b. Section 239
c. Section 240
d. Section 241
111. "Fraudulent claim to property to prevent its seizure as forfeited or in execution" is:
a. Section 243
b. Section 244
c. Section 245
d. Section 246
112. "False statement on oath to public servant or person authorised to administer an oath" is:
a. Section 212
b. Section 213
c. Section 214
d. Section 216
113. "Omission to assist public servant when bound by law to give assistance" is:
a. Section 221
b. Section 222
c. Section 223
d. Section 224
114. "Adulteration of drugs" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 274
b. Section 275
c. Section 276
d. Section 277
115. "Theft after preparation made for causing death, hurt or restraint in order to the committing of the theft" is:
a. Section 305
b. Section 306
c. Section 307
d. Section 308
116. "Extortion by putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt" is:
a. Section 308(3)
b. Section 308(4)
c. Section 309
d. Section 310
117. "Cheating by personation" is:
a. Section 319
b. Section 320
c. Section 321
d. Section 322
118. "Mischief with intent to destroy or make unsafe a rail, aircraft, decked vessel or one of twenty tons burden." is:
a. Section 324
b. Section 326
c. Section 327
d. Section 328
119. "Punishment for house-trespass" is:
a. Section 329(4)
b. Section 330
c. Section 331
d. Section 332
120. "House-trespass after preparation for hurt, assault or wrongful restraint" is:
a. Section 331
b. Section 332
c. Section 333
d. Section 334
121. Which section of BNS provides the marginal heading "Short title, commencement and application"?
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 5
122. The marginal heading "Definitions" is found under Which section of BNS:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
123. Which section refers to "Fractions of terms of punishment"?
a. Section 5
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 6
124. When a court sentences an offender to imprisonment that can be "of either description," how can the court divide the punishment?
a. Only as wholly rigorous (hard labour)
b. Only as wholly simple (no hard labour)
c. Wholly rigorous, wholly simple, or a mix of both (part rigorous and part simple)
d. Only as the police recommend
125. Which section OF BNS carries the marginal heading "Act done in good faith for benefit of a person without consent"?
a. Section 30
b. Section 15
c. Section 16
d. Section 20
126. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only in a manner and on grounds similar to:
a. The Vice-President of India
b. A Judge of the Supreme Court
c. The Attorney General of India
d. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
127. Which President used Pocket Veto for the first time (Indian Post Office Bill)?
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Giani Zail Singh
c. APJ Abdul Kalam
d. S. Radhakrishnan
128. Inter-State Council is established under Article:
a. 262
b. 263
c. 280
d. 312
129. All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) are created under:
a. Article 310
b. Article 311
c. Article 312
d. Article 315
130. Which Amendment is called 'Mini Constitution'?
a. 7th
b. 24th
c. 42nd
d. 44th
131. 'Right to Information' (RTI) is a:
a. Fundamental Right
b. Statutory Right
c. Constitutional Right
d. Customary Right
132. National Commission for OBCs (102nd Amendment) is:
a. 338
b. 338A
c. 38B
d. 340
133. Official Language of the Union is Article:
a. 340
b. 343
c. 345
d. 351
134. To be appointed as a Judge of a High Court, a person must have held a judicial office in the territory of India or been an advocate of a High Court for at least:
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
135. District Judges are appointed by:
a. President
b. Governor
c. Chief Minister
d. Chief Justice of HC
136. According to Para 464 of the UP Police Regulations, into how many classes are rewards divided?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
137. Paragraph 489 deals with which of the following?
a. Promotion of Constables.
b. Departmental trial and punishment.
c. Maintenance of Case Diary.
d. Registration of FIRs.
138. Under Para 503, if a police officer is arrested outside their district, who is responsible for informing the officer's home district?
a. The arresting officer.
b. The Chief Minister.
c. The Station House Officer.
d. The Superintendent of the district where the arrest occurred.
139. According to Para 322, who is responsible for reporting births and deaths in areas outside municipalities/town areas?
a. The Station Officer
b. The Village Chaukidar
c. The Lekhpal
d. The Tehsildar
140. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 121 of the Police Regulations?
a. Procedure for Arrest
b. Remand for police custody
c. Judicial Remand Guidelines
d. Powers of the Magistrate under Section 167
141. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 552 of the Police Regulations?
a. Morning Parade Guidelines
b. Daily class of Drill instructions
c. Training at PTC Moradabad
d. Observation Certificates for Armed Police
142. From which group of personnel are Buglers to be selected according to Paragraph 551?
a. Civil Police Constables
b. Constables of the Armed Police
c. New recruits from the Police Training School
d. Any constable with musical experience
143. Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned as a subject of instruction for the mounted police in Paragraph 545?
a. Equitation and horse mastership
b. Troop drill and ceremonial
c. Use of the sword and lance
d. Advanced ballistic weaponry training
144. According to the U.P. Police Regulation, what is the minimum service requirement as an investigating officer to be eligible for the post of Public Prosecutor?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
145. Probation for recruits transferred to the Mounted Police is governed by which specific paragraph of the Police Regulations?
a. Paragraph 61
b. Paragraph 121
c. Paragraph 84
d. Paragraph 551
146. Under Section 25, a police officer taking charge of "unclaimed property" must immediately:
a. Sell it by public auction
b. Furnish an inventory thereof to the Magistrate of the district
c. Keep it in personal custody for one year
d. Distribute it among the poor
147.Which section prohibits a police officer from engaging in any employment or office other than their official duties?
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 12
148. Every police officer is considered to be "always on duty" and can be employed in:
a. Only their assigned police station
b. Only within their home district
c. Any part of the general police district
d. Only during emergency hours
149. Section 9 states that a police officer cannot resign without permission unless they provide written notice for:
a. 30 days
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
150. If a police officer is suspended, the certificate of appointment under Section 8:
a. Must be permanently destroyed
b. Ceases to have effect but is not necessarily surrendered until they cease to be an officer
c. Is transferred to the next senior officer
d. Remains fully active