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UP APO Mock Test-2
26 min read
UP APO MOCK TEST-2
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Which state launched the "Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana 2.0" in 2025 to increase financial aid for women?
a. Rajasthan
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Maharashtra
2. What is the name of the AI-powered chatbot launched by the Indian Railways in 2025 to assist passengers?
a. RailDost
b. AskDISHA 2.0
c. RailSathi
d. BharatRail AI
3. India recently signed the 'iCET 2.0' agreement in 2025. Which country is the partner?
a. Russia
b. USA
c. France
d. Japan
4. The 2026 Winter Olympics (Milano Cortina) are being hosted by which country?
a. France
b. Italy
c. Switzerland
d. USA
5. In 2025, which Southeast Asian country officially joined the ASEAN as its 11th member?
a. Timor-Leste
b. Papua New Guinea
c. Maldives
d. Sri Lanka
6. Which international organization declared 2025 as the "International Year of Quantum Science and Technology"?
a. WHO
b. United Nations
c. World Bank
d. IMF
7. Which country assumed the Chairmanship of the BRICS group for the year 2026?
a. Brazil
b. Russia
c. India
d. South Africa
8. What is the name of the new platform announced for women entrepreneurs in the Union Budget 2026-27?
a. Udyogini Bazaar
b. Mahila Haat Plus
c. SHE-Mart
d. Sakhi Trade Hub
9. Who is the author of the book “Why the Constitution Matters”?
a. D.Y. Chandrachud
b. R.C. Lahoti
c. Ravi Mishra
d. Amish Tripathi
10. Which is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme that completed seven years on September 23, 2025?
a. Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
b. National Health Mission
c. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
d. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
11. What is the approximate percentage of salt in the human body?
a. 0.1%
b. 0.4%
c. 0.9%
d. 1.2%
12. Which of the following plants is not capable of manufacturing its own food?
a. Algae
b. Mushroom
c. Carrot
d. Cabbage
13. Washing soda is the common name for which chemical compound?
a. Sodium Carbonate
b. Calcium Bicarbonate
c. Sodium Bicarbonate
d. Calcium Carbonate
14. Which organ is primarily responsible for the filtration of blood in humans?
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Kidney
d. Liver
15. Consider the following: 1. Bacteria, 2. Fungi, 3. Virus. Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
16. In the context of biotechnology, what is 'Cas9 protein' often mentioned in the news?
a. A molecular scissors used in gene editing.
b. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens.
c. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant.
d. A herbicide substance synthesized in genetically modified plants.
17. Which of the following statements best describes the 'Goldilocks Zone'?
a. The limit above which stars explode as Supernovae.
b. The search for Earth-like planets in outer space.
c. The region inside the earth where shale gas is available.
d. The altitude where navigation satellites are placed.
18. The blue colour of the sky is primarily due to which phenomenon?
a. Refraction of light
b. Reflection of light
c. Dispersion of light
d. Scattering of light
19. Which of the following was the most decisive battle fought by the English East India Company?
a. Battle of Buxar
b. Battle of Plassey
c. First Anglo – Sikh War
d. First Anglo – Mysore War
20. The practice of Sati was abolished in which year in Bengal?
a. 1829
b. 1856
c. 1825
d. 1831
21. Who among the following said, “Indian learning was inferior to European learning”?
a. Lord Macaulay
b. Drinkwater Bethune
c. Jonathan Duncan
d. Lord Wellesley
22. Which of the following was Inam land during Delhi Sultanate era?
a. Land given as grant to peasants.
b. Land given as grant to nobles.
c. Land given as grant to religious institutions.
d. Land given as grant to soldiers.
23. Who was the commander-in-chief of the army in Delhi Sultanate era?
a. Sultan
b. Ariz-i-mumalik
c. Dabir-i-mamalik
d. None of the above
24. Which of the following epics are written by Vasudeva?
1. Yudhishthiravijaya
2. Sauri-kathodaya
3. Tripuradahana
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
a. Only 1
b. Only 1 & 2
c. Only 2 & 3
d. 1, 2, & 3
25. Which of the following period is considered as the period of the Rajputs?
a. 600 A.D- 800 A.D
b. 800 A.D- 1000 A.D
c. 647 A.D- 1200 A.D
d. 540 A.D- 870 A.D
26. Which of the following pillar edicts mentions about the social code?
a. First Pillar Edict
b. Second Pillar Edict
c. Fourth Pillar Edict
d. Third Pillar Edict
27. Which is the largest desert in the world (including polar regions)?
a. Sahara
b. Gobi
c. Antarctic Desert
d. Arabian
28. The "Great Barrier Reef" is located off the coast of which Australian state?
a. Queensland
b. New South Wales
c. Victoria
d. Western Australia
29. Which mountain range separates Europe from Asia?
a. Andes
b. Ural Mountains
c. Himalayas
d. Atlas Mountains
30. Which country is the world's largest producer of Coffee?
a. Colombia
b. India
c. Ethiopia
d. Brazil
31. The "Strait of Gibraltar" connects the Atlantic Ocean with which sea?
a. Red Sea
b. Mediterranean Sea
c. Black Sea
d. Caspian Sea
32. Which is the deepest point in the world's oceans?
a. Java Trench
b. Mariana Trench
c. Puerto Rico Trench
d. Bentley Subglacial Trench
33. "Pampas" are the temperate grasslands of which country?
a. Argentina
b. South Africa
c. Australia
d. USA
34. Which river carries the maximum volume of water in the world?
a. Nile
b. Amazon
c. Yangtze
d. Mississippi
35. The "Vaikom Satyagraha" (1924–25) was primarily focused on:
a. Salt Tax repeal
b. Entry of untouchables into temples
c. Land revenue reduction
d. Forest rights
36. Under whose chairmanship was the "National Planning Committee" set up by the INC in 1938?
a. Subhash Chandra Bose
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Meghnad Saha
d. Purshottamdas Thakurdas
37. Which female revolutionary shot the Governor of Bengal while receiving her degree at the Convocation of the University of Calcutta?
a. Pritilata Waddedar
b. Bina Das
c. Kalpana Datta
d. Shanti Ghosh
38. Who among the following was the founder of the "Indian Reform Association" (1870)?
a. Keshab Chandra Sen
b. Debendranath Tagore
c. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
39. In which year did the "Komagata Maru" incident take place?
a. 1912
b. 1914
c. 1916
d. 1919
40. The "Dickie Bird Plan" is the alternative name for which of the following?
a. Wavell Plan
b. Mountbatten Plan
c. Cabinet Mission
d. Cripps Mission
41. Who was the only person to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress for six consecutive years (1940–1946)?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Abul Kalam Azad
c. Sardar Patel
d. J.B. Kripalani
42. The "Ghadar" newspaper was first published in which language?
a. Gurmukhi
b. Urdu
c. English
d. Hindi
43. The National Anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
a. 15 Aug 1947
b. 26 Nov 1949
c. 24 Jan 1950
d. 26 Jan 1950
44. 'Dual Citizenship' is a feature of which government?
a. Unitary
b. Federal
c. Parliamentary
d. Authoritarian
45. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha?
a. Speaker
b. President
c. Prime Minister
d. Vice-President
46. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review:
a. Centre-State relations
b. Banking
c. Agriculture
d. Police
47. Which sector contributes the most to India's GDP?
a. Agriculture
b. Industry
c. Services
d. Mining
48. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized?
a. 1935
b. 1947
c. 1949
d. 1969
49. What is the base year for calculating GDP in India?
a. 2004-05
b. 2011-12
c. 2017-18
d. 2020-21
50. The 'Five Year Plans' in India were inspired by:
a. USA
b. USSR
c. UK
d. France
51. Which provision of BNSS, 2023 deals with “Procedure for investigation”?
a. Section 177
b. Section 170
c. Section 176
d. Section 175
52. As per Section 193(3)(ii), within what period must the police officer inform the informant or victim about the progress of the investigation?
a. Within 30 days.
b. Within 60 days.
c. Within 90 days.
d. Within 120 days.
53. Which chapter of BNSS, 2023 deals with “COMMENCEMENT OF PROCEEDINGS BEFORE MAGISTRATES”?
a. CHAPTER XVIII
b. CHAPTER XV
c. CHAPTER XVII
d. CHAPTER XVI
54. Which court has the inherent power to pass any order necessary to "secure the ends of justice" under Section 528 of the BNSS?
a. The High Court
b. The Police Station
c. The Gram Panchayat
d. The Collector’s Office
55. If a Magistrate receives a serious case that only a Sessions Court has the power to judge, what must the Magistrate do under Section 232 of the BNSS?
a. Dismiss the case immediately
b. Try the case himself
c. Transfer (commit) the case to the Sessions Court
d. Send the accused home on a warning
56. According to the marginal heading of Section 242 of the BNSS, how many offences of the same kind committed within a year may be charged together?
a. Only one offence
b. Maximum two offences
c. Maximum three offences
d. Up to five offences
57. Under Section 284 of the BNSS, a Magistrate of the second class can only conduct a "Summary Trial" for crimes punishable with imprisonment up to:
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
58. "Arrest how made" is the marginal heading of which section?
a. Section 40
b. Section 43
c. Section 47
d. Section 48
59. Which section defines "Electronic Communication"?
a. Section 2(1)(a)
b. Section 2(1)(i)
c. Section 2(1)(s)
d. Section 2(1)(z)
60. Section 37 of BNSS deals with:
a. Arrest by Magistrate
b. Designation of police officer responsible for arrest information
c. Protection of members of Armed Forces from arrest
d. Search of place entered by person sought to be arrested
61. Which section provides for "Arrest by private person and procedure on such arrest"?
a. Section 38
b. Section 40
c. Section 42
d. Section 44
62. Section 367 deals with:
a. Suspension of sentence
b. Procedure in case of accused being person of unsound mind.
c. Commutation of sentence
d. Duty of Government to consult High Court
63. Which section contains "Repeal and savings"?
a. Section 531
b. Section 530
c. Section 529
d. Section 500
64. Marginal heading of Section 530 is:
a. Repeal and savings
b. Trial and proceedings to be held in electronic mode
c. Power of High Court to make rules
d. Removal of difficulties
65. "Disposal of property at conclusion of trial" is:
a. Section 500
b. Section 498
c. Section 505
d. Section 510
66. Section 491 deals with:
a. Discharge from custody
b. Forfeiture of bond
c. Procedure when bond has been forfeited
d. Cancellation of bond
67. Which section deals with "Deposit instead of recognizance"?
a. Section 485
b. Section 490
c. Section 490
d. Section 492
68. Section 482 deals with:
a. Special powers of High Court regarding bail
b. Direction for grant of bail to person apprehending arrest
c. Amount of bond and reduction thereof
d. Forfeiture of bond
69. "In what cases bail to be taken" is the heading of:
a. Section 475
b. Section 477
c. Section 478
d. Section 482
70. Which court can hear an appeal from a person convicted by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge under Section 415(2) of the BNSS?
a. The Supreme Court
b. The High Court
c. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. The District Magistrate
71. What is the maximum time limit for a court to pronounce a judgment after the termination of a trial under Section 392 of the BNSS?
a. Immediately, with no exceptions.
b. Within 30 days.
c. Not later than 45 days.
d. At any time the court deems fit.
72. What is the jurisdictional scope of a Zero FIR under Section 173 of the BNSS?
a. It must be registered at the police station with jurisdiction over where the crime was committed.
b. It can be registered at any police station, irrespective of where the offense was committed.
c. It can only be registered at the police station with jurisdiction over the victim's residence.
d. It can only be registered for offenses with a maximum punishment of fewer than seven years.
73. If a person states before a Magistrate that they are not willing to make a confession, what is the Magistrate's immediate course of action under Section 183?
a. The Magistrate can compel the person to make the confession.
b. The Magistrate must not authorize the detention of that person in police custody.
c. The Magistrate can only record the statement, not the confession.
d. The Magistrate must inform the investigating officer of the refusal.
74. Sections:
1. Sec 144
2. Sec 152
3. Sec 163
4. Sec 164
Headings:
I. Maintenance of wives/children
II. Urgent cases of nuisance/danger
III. Dispute over land/water
IV. Conditional order for removal of nuisance
Choose the correct set:
a. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
b. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
c. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
d. 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
75. Under BNSS, what is the maximum fine a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class can impose?
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹25,000
c. ₹50,000
d. ₹1,00,000
76. UP Police Regulations are primarily based on which Act?
a. IPC 1860
b. Police Act 1861
c. CrPC 1973
d. Evidence Act 1872
77. Which Chapter of UP Police Regulation deals with the 'Village Police'?
a. Chapter 5
b. Chapter 7
c. Chapter 9
d. Chapter 11
78. Who is the head of criminal administration in a district?
a. SP
b. DIG
c. District Magistrate
d. Commissioner
79. For how many years does a 'Class A' history sheet remain open?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. Lifetime
80. How many paragraphs are there in UP Police Regulations?
a. 450
b. 520
c. 554
d. 600
81. Surveillance (Nigrani) is covered under which Chapter?
a. Chapter 15
b. Chapter 20
c. Chapter 25
d. Chapter 30
82. The History Sheet of Class A (for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods wagon thieves, and their abettors) may be discontinued only with the sanction of which authority?
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Deputly Inspector General of Police
d. Inspector General of Police
83. Under Section 1 of UP police act 1861, the word "Property" includes:
a. Only Immovable property
b. Only Cash and Jewellery
c. Any movable property, money, or valuable security
d. Only Government property
84. The "General Police District" is defined under which Section of UP police act 1861?
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
85. The administration of the police throughout a general police district is vested in:
a. Inspector-General of Police
b. Superintendent of Police
c. State Governor
d. High Court
86. Who has the authority to dismiss, suspend, or reduce the rank of a subordinate officer under Section 7?
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Inspector-General, DIG, and SP
d. Chief Minister
87. The Constitution of the Police Force is provided under:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
88. Punishment for neglect of duty (Violation of duty) is defined in:
a. Section 28
b. Section 29
c. Section 30
d. Section 31
89. The power to dispense with the license for music in streets is given under:
a. Section 30(1)
b. Section 30(2)
c. Section 30(3)
d. Section 30(4)
90. The duty of police to keep order on public roads and near places of worship is under:
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 32
d. Section 33
91. Section 146 of the BSA governs when leading questions may be asked. In which of the following circumstances is the court explicitly permitted to allow leading questions?
a. During examination-in-chief, to prove material facts.
b. In cross-examination, as a matter of right.
c. As to matters which are introductory, undisputed, or already sufficiently proved in the court's opinion.
d. When challenging the credibility of one's own hostile witness during re-examination
92. Which famous case clarified the admissibility and reliability of tape-recorded conversations as evidence under the Indian Evidence Act (BSA, 2023)?
a. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab
b. R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra
c. Kasturi Lal v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
d. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu
93. Section 112 of the BSA, 2023, establishes the presumption of legitimacy for a child born during a valid marriage. What condition must be met for this presumption to be considered "conclusive proof"?
a. The husband must have had access to the wife at the time the child could have been begotten.
b. A DNA test must confirm paternity first.
c. The birth must have occurred exactly 280 days after the marriage dissolved.
d. The husband and wife were living separately but legally married.
94. Section 9 of the BSA, 2023, is titled:
a. Alibi and other relevant facts
b. Facts not otherwise relevant become relevant
c. When facts not otherwise relevant are relevant
d. Facts inconsistent with or highly probable or improbable to a fact in issue
95. Which type of evidence is used when the original document is lost, destroyed, or in the possession of the opposite party?
a. Primary evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Secondary evidence
d. Conclusive evidence
96. The BSA, 2023 deals with which aspect of legal proceedings?
a. Substantive crimes and punishments
b. Procedures for arrest and bail
c. Rules relating to proof and evidence in court
d. Civil property disputes
97. Which section of BSA, 2023 deal with “Confession to police officer”?
a. Section 23
b. Section 24
c. Section 25
d. Section 22
98. Based on Section 15, an "admission" is best described as:
a. A direct confession of guilt made in court.
b. A statement suggesting an inference about a fact in issue or a relevant fact.
c. A conclusive proof of a fact.
d. An opinion expressed by a witness during a trial.
99. Section 29 of BSA,2023 deals with-
a. Relevancy of statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notifications.
b. Entries in books of account when relevant.
c. Relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans.
d. Relevancy of entry in public record or an electronic record made in performance of duty.
100. As per the BSA, 2023, the definition of "evidence" includes which of the following?
a. Oral evidence, documentary evidence, and statements given electronically.
b. Oral evidence and documentary evidence.
c. Any information presented by a lawyer during arguments.
d. Only statements made in person in court.
101. Under the BSA 2023, how are electronic records like emails or phone messages treated?
a. They are treated as primary evidence (the same as original paper documents) if they come from the right source.
b. They are never allowed in court because they can be changed easily.
c. They can only be used if a paper copy is also found.
d. They can only be used if they were sent by the police
102. In the famous case of Pakala Narayana Swami, what did the court decide about a person's dying statement?
a. The person must be a police officer for the statement to count.
b. The statement is valid if it explains the events that led to the person's death.
c. A dying statement cannot be used as evidence in a murder trial.
d. The statement only counts if it is written on a stamp paper.
103. Which section deals with “Proof of documents by primary evidence”?
a. Section 61
b. Section 59
c. Section 50
d. Section 62
104. Section 61 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, deals with:
a. Admissibility of confessional statements
b. Admissibility of hearsay evidence
c. Admissibility of oral evidence
d. Admissibility of electronic or digital records
105. Which section of BSA 2023 deals with Relevancy of certain evidence for proving, in subsequent proceeding, truth of facts therein stated?
a. Section 29
b. Section 28
c. Section 26
d. Section 27
106. Section 100 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Evidence as to application of language to one of two sets of facts, to neither of which the whole correctly applies.
b. Exclusion of evidence against application of document to existing facts.
c. Evidence as to application of language which can apply to one only of several persons.
d. Evidence as to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts.
107. Section 169 OF BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 deals with
a. Giving, as evidence, of document called for and produced on notice.
b. Judge's power to put questions or order production.
c. Using, as evidence, of document production of which was refused on notice.
d. No new trial for improper admission or rejection of evidence.
108. Section 131 also grants a privilege to a "revenue officer." What information can this officer refuse to disclose under compulsion?
a. The details of the public revenue collected.
b. When they got information about an offence committed against the public revenue.
c. Any information related to a general criminal investigation (not revenue specific).
d. Their personal bank details.
109. What is a "fact in issue" in a case?
a. An undisputed fact presented by both sides.
b. A fact that is irrelevant to the case proceedings.
c. A fact asserted by one party and denied by the other, which needs to be proven.
d. A hypothetical situation used for argument
110. Under the BSA, can a "dumb witness" (a person unable to speak) give evidence?
a. No, oral evidence must be spoken.
b. Yes, by writing or signs in open court, which is treated as oral evidence.
c. Only if they have a lawyer to speak for them.
d. Only if a special court order is obtained first.
111. Which new form of punishment has been introduced in the BNS?
a. Solitary confinement
b. Community service
c. Public shaming
d. Asset freezing
112. Under Section 103(2) of the BNS, "Mob Lynching" is penalized when a murder is committed by a group of how many people?
a. Two or more
b. Three or more
c. Five or more
d. Seven or more
113. Which landmark case influenced the removal of "Adultery" as an offence in the BNS?
a. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
b. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
c. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
d. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
114. "Organised Crime" is explicitly defined and penalized under which section of the BNS?
a. Section 101
b. Section 111
c. Section 152
d. Section 304
115. Which section of the BNS 2023 penalises a man for having sexual intercourse with a woman by deceitful means, such as a false promise of marriage or suppressing identity?
a. Section 64
b. Section 69
c. Section 71
d. Section 122
116. In cases of gang rape of a girl under 18 years of age (Section 70(2)), what is the minimum mandatory punishment prescribed?
a. Rigorous imprisonment for 20 years
b. Life imprisonment for the remainder of natural life
c. Life imprisonment or Death
d. 10 years with a fine
117. Section 95 of BNS deals with
a. Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body
b. Exposure and abandonment of child under twelve years of age, by parent or person having care of it.
c. Procuration of child
d. Hiring, employing or engaging a child to commit an offence
118. The BNS defines "Child" under Section 2(3). What is the age limit specified?
a. Below 14 years
b. Below 16 years
c. Below 18 years
d. Below 21 years
119. Which section replaces the erstwhile IPC 354C (Voyeurism) in the BNS 2023?
a. Section 74
b. Section 77
c. Section 78
d. Section 79
120. Under Section 65(2), what is the punishment for rape of a girl under 12 years of age?
a. Minimum 20 years, extendable to life or death
b. Minimum 10 years, extendable to life
c. Death penalty is the only option
d. Rigorous imprisonment for 7 years
121. For the offence of "Stalking" under Section 78, what is the punishment for a second or subsequent conviction?
a. 3 years imprisonment and fine
b. 5 years imprisonment and fine
c. 7 years imprisonment and fine
d. Life imprisonment
122. In BNS 2023, "Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe" is covered under:
a. Section 74
b. Section 76
c. Section 73
d. Section 81
123. The BNS mandates that the fine imposed for rape under Section 64 shall be:
a. Paid to the State Government
b. Paid to the victim to meet medical expenses and rehabilitation
c. Deposited in a Victims' Fund
d. Equally shared between the state and the victim
124. Match the following regarding "Offences against the Body":
Column A Column B
(Section) (Subject)
I. Section 101 A. Culpable Homicide
II. Section 100 B. Murder
III. Section 113 C. Organized Crime
IV. Section 111 D. Terrorist Act
Options:
a. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
b. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
c. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
d. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
125. "A" instigates "B" to murder "C". "B" refuses to do so. Under BNS 2023, "A" is guilty of:
a. No offence, as the murder wasn't committed.
b. Abetment to murder.
c. Criminal conspiracy.
d. Attempt to murder.
126. "A", with the intention of causing a landslide to block a public road, places explosives. The explosion causes the death of a passerby. Under BNS, "A" is liable for:
a. Negligent death.
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
c. Murder.
d. Grievous hurt only.
127. The BNS 2023 has omitted the offence of "Sedition" (formerly IPC 124A) and introduced "Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India" under which section?
a. Section 121
b. Section 152
c. Section 197
d. Section 111
128. A finds a diamond necklace on the floor of a crowded mall. He picks it up and immediately lists it for sale on an online marketplace without attempting to find the owner or inform mall security. Under BNS 2023, A is liable for:
a. Theft
b. Dishonest Misappropriation of Property
c. Criminal Breach of Trust
d. No offence, as the property was lost
129. A enters B’s house at night, finds the keys to a safe, and takes out jewellery. While leaving, B wakes up. A shows B a knife to prevent B from shouting and escapes with the jewellery. A is guilty of:
a. Theft
b. House-breaking
c. Robbery
d. Dacoity
130. Under Section 15 of BNS, a Judge is protected from criminal liability for acts done:
a. Only with prior government approval
b. Judicially in good faith under a power they believe they have
c. Only while sitting in a courtroom
d. In their personal capacity
131. The BNS defines "injury" under Section 2(14) as harm illegally caused to a person in:
a. Body and mind only
b. Body and property only
c. Body, mind, reputation, or property
d. Body, mind, and reputation only
132. In Mustafa Shahdal Shaikh v. State of Maharashtra, the Supreme Court interpreted "soon before death" regar5ding which offence (now under BNS)?
a. Culpable homicide
b. Dowry Death
c. Abetment of suicide
d. Kidnapping
133. Which section of BNS addresses "Hit and Run" cases involving death by negligence?
a. Section 101
b. Section 106
c. Section 304A
d. Section 110
134. According to Section 21, a child is not criminally liable if they are between 7 and 12 years of age and:
a. The act was committed under duress.
b. The child has not attained sufficient maturity to understand the consequences.
c. The child confesses immediately.
d. The parents were not present.
135. A, a citizen of India, commits a murder in Uganda. He is found in Delhi. Where can he be tried?
a. Only in Uganda.
b. Only in the country where the deceased was a citizen.
c. In Delhi, where he is found.
d. He cannot be tried in India for crimes abroad.
136. A, B, C, D, and E (five persons) surround a traveller on a highway and, by brandishing sticks and stones, forcibly take his watch and wallet. They have committed:
a. Robbery
b. Dacoity
c. Theft
d. Extortion
137. "A" and "B" engage in a physical fight in a busy public park, causing panic and disturbing the public peace. They are guilty of Affray. Under Section 194, what is the maximum fine that can be imposed?
a. ₹100
b. ₹500
c. ₹1,000
d. ₹5,000
138. "Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national integration" is the heading for:
a. Section 192
b. Section 194
c. Section 196
d. Section 197
139. "Waging, or attempting to wage war... against the Govt of India" is:
a. Section 145
b. Section 147
c. Section 148
d. Section 150
140. "Kidnapping" is the heading for:
a. Section 135
b. Section 137
c. Section 140
d. Section 142
141. Promotion of International Peace is under:
a. Article 44
b. Article 49
c. Article 50
d. Article 51
142. How many Fundamental Duties are currently in the Constitution?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 9
143. DPSP are borrowed from the constitution of:
a. USA
b. Ireland
c. Canada
d. Australia
144. Right to Education (Art 21A) was added by which Amendment?
a. 42nd
b. 44th
c. 86th
d. 92nd
145. Which writ is known as the 'Bulwark of Personal Freedom'?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Quo Warranto
d. Certiorari
146. Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the:
a. Parliament
b. President
c. Supreme Court
d. Prime Minister
147. Which Article is called the "Heart and Soul" of the Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 32
148. Abolition of Untouchability is under:
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 17
d. Article 18
149. The idea of 'Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity' was borrowed from:
a. American Revolution
b. French Revolution
c. Russian Revolution
d. British Constitution
150. The Preamble has been amended how many times?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. Never