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UP APO Mock Test-10
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UP APO MOCK TEST-10
Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hour
1. Who is known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'?
a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Dadabhai Naoroji
d. Lala Lajpat Rai
2. Where did Kunwar Singh lead the rebellion?
a. Bihar
b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Punjab
3. Who founded the 'Satyashodhak Samaj'?
a. Jyotiba Phule
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Atmaram Pandurang
d. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
4. Who is the author of 'Hind Swaraj'?
a. J.L. Nehru
b. M.K. Gandhi
c. B.G. Tilak
d. Subhash Chandra Bose
5. The song 'Vande Mataram' was taken from which novel?
a. Gitanjali
b. Anandmath
c. Gora
d. Durgeshnandini
6. The 'Two-Nation Theory' was officially adopted by the Muslim League in:
a. 1930
b. 1940 (Lahore Session)
c. 1942
d. 1946
7. The 'Radcliffe Line' is the boundary between:
a. India & China
b. India & Pakistan
c. India & Myanmar
d. India & Afghanistan
8. The Government of India Act 1935 introduced:
a. Dyarchy at Center
b. Provincial Autonomy
c. Federal Court
d. All of the above.
9. How many types of Writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
10. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
a. President
b. Vice-President
c. Prime Minister
d. Speaker
11. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
a. 3rd Schedule
b. 4th Schedule
c. 5th Schedule
d. 6th Schedule
12. Under which Article can the Parliament amend the Constitution?
a. Article 352
b. Article 360
c. Article 368
d. Article 370
13. 'Golden Handshake' scheme is associated with:
a. IPO
b. Voluntary Retirement (VRS)
c. Foreign Aid
d. Marriage loan
14. A 'Closed Economy' is one where:
a. Only exports happen
b. Deficit financing exists
c. Neither exports nor imports occur
d. Only imports happen
15. 'Fiscal Policy' is formulated by:
a. RBI
b. Finance Ministry
c. NITI Aayog
d. SEBI
16. The term 'Paper Gold' refers to:
a. Gold ETFs
b. SDR (Special Drawing Rights)
c. Currency notes
d. Bonds
17. The primary function of "B-Lymphocytes" is to produce:
a. Histamine
b. Antibodies
c. Hemoglobin
d. Antigens
18. Which plant part is used to obtain the drug 'Quinine'?
a. Leaves
b. Roots
c. Bark
d. Fruit
19. Glaucoma is a disease of the:
a. Ears
b. yes
c. Throat
d. Liver
20. "Escape Velocity" does not depend on:
a. Mass of the Earth
b. Radius of the Earth
c. Mass of the object
d. Gravitational constant
21. What is the unit of "Luminous Intensity"?
a. Lux
b. Lumen
c. Candela
d. Watt
22. Which of the following is called "Philosopher’s Wool"?
a. Zinc Oxide
b. Aluminum Oxide
c. Magnesium Chloride
d. Calcium Carbonate
23. The chemical name of "Tear Gas" used by police is:
a. Chloroacetophenone
b. Ethane
c. Methane
d. Nitrous oxide
24. Which of the following is a "Noble Gas" but not present in the atmosphere?
a. Helium
b. Neon
c. Radon
d. Argon
25. Which country has become the first to implement a "Generative AI Law" to regulate AI services?
a. USA
b. China
c. European Union
d. India
26. The "I2U2" group consists of India, Israel, the USA, and which other country?
a. United Kingdom
b. Ukraine
c. United Arab Emirates
d. Uzbekistan
27. The "White Hydrogen" deposit, recently discovered as the largest in the world, was found in which country?
a. Australia
b. France
c. Canada
d. Iceland
28. What is the name of the joint military exercise between India and Japan that took place in Rajasthan in early 2024?
a. Dharma Guardian
b. Shinyuu Maitri
c. JIMEX
d. Sahayog-Kaijin
29. Which city has been named the "World Capital of Architecture" for 2026 by UNESCO?
a. Rio de Janeiro
b. Barcelona
c. Copenhagen
d. Paris
30. Which Indian organization recently launched the "Young Scientist Programme" (YUVIKA)?
a. DRDO
b. ISRO
c. CSIR
d. ICAR
31. In which city was India’s first "3D-printed Post Office" inaugurated?
a. Hyderabad
b. Chennai
c. Bengaluru
d. Pune
32. Which state government has launched the "Swayam" scheme to provide interest-free loans to youth?
a. Odisha
b. Bihar
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh
33. Who was recently appointed as the Chief of Defense Staff (CDS) of India?
a. Gen. Manoj Pande
b. Gen. Anil Chauhan
c. Gen. Bipin Rawat
d. Adm. R. Hari Kumar
34. Under the "Sagar Mala" project, India is developing its first National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) in which site?
a. Dholavira
b. Lothal
c. Rakhigarhi
d. Hampi
35. The famous slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it" was given by:
a. Lala Lajpat Rai
b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Bipin Chandra Pal
d. Bhagat Singh
36. Who was the first Indian to win a Nobel Prize?
a. C.V. Raman
b. Rabindranath Tagore
c. Mother Teresa
d. Amartya Sen
37. The communal electorate was introduced in India by which Act?
a. Indian Councils Act 1892
b. Minto-Morley Reforms 1909
c. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms 1919
d. Government of India Act 1935
38. "The Discovery of India" was penned by Jawaharlal Nehru during his incarceration at which location, and during what specific period?
a. Yerwada Central Jail; 1930-1932
b. Ahmednagar Fort; 1942-1945
c. Alipore Central Jail; 1940-1941
d. Naini Central Prison; 1934-1935
39. The peacock throne (Takht-i-Taus) was taken away by:
a. Ahmad Shah Abdali
b. Nadir Shah
c. Robert Clive
d. Genghis Khan
40. Which Guru founded the 'Khalsa Panth'?
a. Guru Nanak Dev
b. Guru Arjan Dev
c. Guru Gobind Singh
d. Guru Tegh Bahadur
41. The Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built by:
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Shah Jahan
d. Aurangzeb
42. Which Upanishad contains the phrase 'Satyameva Jayate'?
a. Mundaka Upanishad
b. Katha Upanishad
c. Chandogya Upanishad
d. Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
43. The 0° Longitude is also known as:
a. Equator
b. Prime Meridian
c. International Date Line
d. Tropic of Cancer
44. Which is the highest mountain peak in Africa?
a. Mt. Everest
b. Mt. Elbrus
c. Mt. Kilimanjaro
d. Mt. Aconcagua
45. Steppe grasslands are found in which region?
a. North America
b. South Africa
c. Central Asia
d. Australia
46. The Gulf Stream is a:
a. Cold Atlantic Current
b. Warm Atlantic Current
c. Warm Pacific Current
d. Local Wind
47. Which planet is known as the "Earth's Twin"?
a. Mars
b. Venus
c. Jupiter
d. Neptune
48. A Narrow strip of land connecting two large landmasses is called:
a. Strait
b. Isthmus
c. Peninsula
d. Island
49. Which of the following is a Metamorphic rock?
a. Granite
b. Basalt
c. Marble
d. Sandstone
50. The 'Great Barrier Reef' is located off the coast of:
a. India
b. Australia
c. Brazil
d. Japan
51. The landmark case Pickard v. Sears established the foundation for the "Rule of Estoppel." Under BSA 2023, which section defines Estoppel?
a. Section 115
b. Section 121
c. Section 125
d. Section 130
52. "A" is charged with traveling on a railway without a ticket. The burden of proving that "A" actually had a ticket lies on:
a. The Prosecution.
b. The Ticket Collector.
c. The Accused ("A").
d. The State.
53. The question is whether A murdered B during the course of a struggle marks on the ground produced by the struggle at the place of occurrence is relevant fact under which of the following section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
54. Match the Burden of Proof Presumptions:
List I List II
(Presumption) (Section)
A. Abetment of Suicide
(Married Woman) 1. Section 117
B. Dowry Death 2. Section 118
C. Absence of Consent (Rape) 3. Section 120
D. Legitimacy of Child 4. Section 116
Options:
a. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
b. (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
c. (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
d. (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-2
55. Match the Confession and Statement Rules:
List I List II
(Topic) (Section)
A. Confession to Police Officer 1. Section 22
B. Dying Declaration 2. Section 15
C. Admission Defined 3. Section 26
D. Confession by Inducement 4. Section 23
Options:
a. (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
b. (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
c. (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
d. (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
56. The principle of “Res judicata” has been incorporated in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, under section?
a. Section 33
b. Section 34
c. Section 144
d. Section 145
57. If an accused voluntarily consents for Brain mapping and Narco Analysis, then such information is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
a. Section 23(1)
b. Section 23(2)
c. Section 23 (proviso)
d. Section 24
58. Which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with Facts showing existence of state of mind, or of body or bodily feeling?
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
59. Which of the following statements is not relevant in a case where 'A' is tried for murder:—
a. That 'A' quarreled with dead person three days before the incident.
b. That 'A' has purchased a knife one hour before the incident.
c. That 'A' is a man of good character.
d. That 'A' is a man of bad character
60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. A cheque upon a banker is a document
b. A power-of-attorney is a document
c. A writing containing directions or instructions is a document
d. A map or plan, which is intended not to be used as evidence, is a document
61. Which one of the following is not a case on 'Dying Declaration'?
a. Rattan Gaud v. State of Bihar
b. Paniben v. State of Gujarat
c. Sita Ram v. State of U.P.
d. Kaushal Rao v. State of Maharashtra
62. 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of 'B'. The fact of previous publication by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards 'B' is relevant—
a. Because it proves the preparation for harming 'A's' reputation
b. As it is necessary to explain fact in issue
c. As proving intention to harm 'B's' reputation
d. As it is the effect of relevant fact
63. 'Admission' according to the BSA, 2023 includes statement made by:
1. Expressly referred person.
2. Agent of a party to proceeding authorized to make the statement.
3. Person whose liability must be proved.
4. Person from whom the party derived his interest in the subject matter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3, and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
64. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, which of the following facts need not be proved?
a. All laws in force in India
b. The territory of India
c. Proceedings of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of India
d. All of them
65. Primary evidence of a document means:-
a. It’s certified copy
b. it’s Xerox copy
c. Document itself
d. Authenticated copy
66. Which of the following section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with “cross -examination of a person called to produce a document”?
a. Section 131
b. Section 132
c. Section 142
d. Section 144
67. Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, removes the bar of doctrine that husband and wife are one person in law?
a. Section 122
b. Section 124
c. Section 126
d. Section 128
68. What is the primary objective of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, as stated in its preamble?
a. To consolidate the law relating to criminal procedure.
b. To provide for general rules and principles of evidence for a fair trial.
c. To redefine the Indian Penal Code.
d. To increase the punitive measures for all offenses.
69. In the case of Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, the Supreme Court outlined the "Panchsheel of proof" for cases based on circumstantial evidence. What is one of the essential conditions required for conviction based on such evidence?
a. There must be a complete chain of evidence excluding any reasonable hypothesis of the accused's innocence.
b. An absence of motive is of no consequence in a case based on circumstantial evidence.
c. The circumstances must be suggestive of guilt but not necessarily conclusive.
d. The facts must be consistent with the innocence of the accused.
70. Which section deals with “Burden of proof as to ownership”?
a. Section 111
b. Section 114
c. Section 112
d. Section 113
71. Under Section 40(1) of BNSS, a private person must hand over the arrested individual to a police officer within what maximum timeframe?
a. 2 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
72. Under Section 36 of BNSS, who is mandated to attest the memorandum of arrest prepared by the police officer?
a. Only a Gazetted Officer
b. At least one witness who is a family member or a respectable member of the locality
c. The Magistrate of the concerned area
d. Any two persons present at the police station
73. Which of the following is a new procedural emphasis in BNSS for maintenance cases?
a. Compulsory mediation before the order
b. Strict 60-day timeline for interim maintenance disposal
c. Use of audio-video means for evidence
d. Both b and c
74. Which section of the BNSS mandates that the State Government shall establish a "Central Control Room" at the State level and a Control Room in every district?
a. Section 35
b. Section 37
c. Section 39
d. Section 41
75. If a person (other than the proclaimed person) has an interest in the property attached under Section 85, they must prefer their claim within how many months from the date of attachment?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 2 years
76. Under Section 66 of the BNSS, if the person summoned cannot be found, the summons may be served by leaving one of the duplicates with:
a. A neighbour or a local shopkeeper
b. Any person residing in the same building
c. An adult male member of the family residing with him
d. An adult member of his family (regardless of gender) residing with him
77. What is the Marginal Heading of Section 167 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
a. Power to attach subject of dispute
b. Local inquiry
c. Order for maintenance of wives and children
d. Procedure as to perishable property
78. Under Section 103(1) of the BNSS, a person in charge of a closed place must allow free ingress and reasonable facilities for a search upon:
a. Verbal request from any police officer
b. The arrival of the District Magistrate
c. Demand and production of the search warrant
d. Payment of a reasonable inspection fee
79. Under Section 95(2) of the BNSS, if a District Superintendent of Police requires a document in the custody of a postal authority, he may require that authority to:
a. Deliver the document directly to the Police Station
b. Destroy the document if it contains sensitive information
c. Cause search to be made for and to detain such document pending the order of a DM or CJM
d. Open and inspect the parcel in the presence of two witnesses
80. Section 327 provides for the "Identification report of a Magistrate." Such a report is considered:
a. Inadmissible
b. Evidence of the facts stated therein without calling the Magistrate as a witness
c. Secondary evidence only
d. Valid only if signed by the Accused
81. Under Section 331 of the BNSS, when an application contains allegations against a public servant, how may the applicant provide evidence of the alleged facts?
a. Only through oral testimony in open court
b. By submitting an affidavit, if the Court thinks fit
c. Only by producing a report from the Lokpal
d. By filing a video recording of the incident
82. Under Section 442(4) of the BNSS, if an appeal lies against an order but no appeal is brought, a proceeding by way of revision:
a. Can be entertained by the High Court at its discretion
b. Shall not be entertained at the instance of the party who could have appealed
c. Can only be entertained if the Advocate General moves the application
d. Must be converted into an Interlocutory Application
83. Section 454 deals with the "Warrant for execution of sentence of death." It is issued by:
a. The High Court
b. The Supreme Court
c. The Court of Session (after confirmation)
d. The President
84. Section 360 BNSS allows for the "Withdrawal from prosecution" by the Public Prosecutor with the consent of the Court. This can be done:
a. Before the charge is framed (results in discharge)
b. After the charge is framed (results in acquittal)
c. Both a and b
d. Only after the final evidence
85. Which section provides for "Compensation to persons groundlessly arrested"?
a. Section 395
b. Section 396
c. Section 399
d. Section 401
86. Under Section 448, who has the power to transfer a case from one criminal court to another within the same sessions division?
a. The High Court
b. The Sessions Judge
c. The Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. The District Magistrate
87. Which section of the BNSS empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court?
a. Section 446
b. Section 447
c. Section 448
d. Section 452
88. Under Section 329, the report of which of the following "Government Scientific Experts" may be used as evidence without calling them as a witness?
a. Chemical Examiner
b. Serologist to the Government
c. Director of a Central Forensic Science Laboratory
d. All of the above
89. Section 351 deals with the "Power to examine the accused." The Court may put questions to the accused at any stage without warning. This is done to:
a. Extract a confession
b. Enable the accused to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him
c. Intimidate the accused
d. Delay the trial
90. Under Section 359, "Compounding of offences" is allowed for certain crimes. If an offence is compounded, it has the effect of an:
a. Discharge
b. Acquittal
c. Stay of proceedings
d. Conviction with a light fine
91. Which section of the BNSS allows a Magistrate to "summons a person to produce a document" or other thing?
a. Section 91
b. Section 94
c. Section 100
d. Section 105
92. Under Section 239 BNSS, a Court may "alter or add to any charge" at any time before:
a. Evidence begins
b. Arguments begin
c. Judgment is pronounced
d. The accused is arrested
93. Under Section 323(1) of the BNSS, once a commission for the examination of a witness is executed and returned, the deposition:
a. Can only be read in evidence by the prosecution
b. Is kept in a sealed cover until the final judgment
c. May, subject to all just exceptions, be read in evidence by either party
d. Is only for the private use of the Magistrate
94. Under Section 369 of the BNSS, if a person is found incapable of making a defence due to unsoundness of mind, the Magistrate or Court shall order their release on bail:
a. Only if the offence is bailable
b. Only if the family provides a heavy security deposit
c. Whether the case is one in which bail may be taken or not
d. Only after a period of six months in judicial custody
95. Under Section 368 of the BNSS, if a person appears to be of unsound mind during a trial, what is the first step the Magistrate or Court of Session must take?
a. Immediately stay the proceedings indefinitely.
b. Release the accused on bail without further inquiry.
c. Try the fact of such unsoundness of mind and incapacity in the first instance.
d. Transfer the case to a specialized mental health tribunal.
96. "Rioting" is the heading under BNS:
a. Section 190
b. Section 191
c. Section 192
d. Section 195
97. "A" provides financial support to a banned separatist group via cryptocurrency to buy arms. Under BNS 2023, this falls under:
a. Section 113 (Terrorist Act - specifically "economic security")
b. Section 147 (Waging war)
c. Section 152 (Endangering sovereignty)
d. All of the above
98. "A" sells a horse to "B" claiming it is "sound of mind," knowing the horse is actually vicious. "A" has committed:
a. Criminal Misappropriation
b. Cheating
c. Mischief
d. Breach of Contract only
99. "A" entrusts his computer to "D" for repair. "D" subsequently sells the computer to a third party. "D" has committed:
a. Theft
b. Robbery
c. Criminal Breach of Trust
d. Extortion
100. "A" is a member of a gang that consistently engages in kidnapping for ransom and trafficking. Under which new section can "A" be charged for "Organised Crime"?
a. Section 109
b. Section 111
c. Section 113
d. Section 115
101. Under Explanation 2 of Section 143 BNS, what is the legal standing of a victim's "consent" to be trafficked?
a. It mitigates the punishment for the offender.
b. It makes the act legal if documented.
c. It is immaterial in the determination of the offence.
d. It is only relevant if the victim is an adult.
102. "Criminal Conspiracy" is now under Section 61 of BNS. Which case is the leading authority on the "Meeting of Minds"?
a. Topandas v. State of Bombay
b. State v. Nalini (Rajiv Gandhi Assassination)
c. Kehar Singh v. State (Delhi Admn)
d. All of the above
103. Section 69 of BNS criminalizes "Sexual intercourse by deceitful means" (Promise to marry). Which case clarified that "Breach of Promise" is not always "Cheat by Deceit"?
a. Pramod Suryabhan Pawar v. State of Maharashtra
b. Anurag Soni v. State of Chhattisgarh
c. Sonu @ Subhash Kumar v. State of UP
d. All of the above
104. "Grave and Sudden Provocation" as a defense to murder was detailed in which case?
a. KM Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
b. Muthu v. State of Tamil Nadu
c. Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar
d. None of the above
105. Which case led to the inclusion of "Cruelty" and "Dowry Death" principles now found in BNS?
a. Satbir Singh v. State of Haryana
b. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
c. Mustafa Shahdal Shaikh v. State of Maharashtra
d. Both a and c
106. "Punishment for defamation" (now including Community Service) is found under:
a. Section 356(1)
b. Section 356(2)
c. Section 357
d. Section 358
107. Which section heading is "Non-attendance in obedience to an order from public servant"?
a. Section 208
b. Section 209
c. Section 211
d. Section 215
108. "Omission to produce document or electronic record to public servant" is the heading for:
a. Section 210
b. Section 211
c. Section 212
d. Section 213
109. "Extortion" is the marginal heading for:
a. Section 306
b. Section 308
c. Section 310
d. Section 312
110. "Robbery" is the heading for:
a. Section 307
b. Section 309
c. Section 311
d. Section 313
111. Which of the following acts is NOT covered under Section 77 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Watching a woman undressing in her bedroom.
b. Capturing a photo of a woman in a public restroom.
c. Disseminating a private video of a woman without her consent.
d. Recording a conversation between two consenting adults in a public place.
112. A person who burns trash in an open field, emitting smoke and noxious fumes that endanger the health of others in the neighborhood, is guilty of a public nuisance under Section 270, even if they argue it is the only convenient way to dispose of the trash. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Depends on the amount of trash
d. Only true if the fumes cause death
113. Section 320 penalizes the fraudulent removal or concealment of property to prevent its distribution among creditors. What is the minimum imprisonment term?
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
114. A introduces water into an ice-house belonging to Z and thus causes the ice to melt, intending wrongful loss to Z. A has committed
a. Extortion
b. Mischief
c. Theft
d. No offence
115. A Magistrate exercising jurisdiction in respect of a charge on which he has power to sentence to fine or imprisonment, with or without appeal-
a. Is not a Judge under BNS
b. Is a Judge under BNS
c. May be a judge
d. None of the above
116. Which statement is incorrect regarding the definition of a public servant under BNS?
a. Includes every commissioned officer in the armed forces.
b. A person paid by the government by way of commission for a public duty is a public servant.
c. The method of a public authority's election must be governed by a specific law.
d. The definition only covers individuals and not any statutory bodies.
117. According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), a "vessel" is defined as anything made for the conveyance by water of:
a. Human beings only
b. Property only
c. Human beings or of property
d. Cargo and machinery
118. Which section of BNS, 2023 deals with the term “omission”?
a. Section 2(25)
b. Section 2(24)
c. Section 2(22)
d. Section 2(20)
119. What is a core difference between Section 3(5) and Section 3(8) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?
a. Section 3(5) requires at least five people, while Section 3(8) can apply to two or more.
b. Section 3(5) is for a single act, while Section 3(8) is for several related acts.
c. Section 3(5) requires liability for murder, while Section 3(8) is used for all other offenses.
d. Section 3(5) requires a pre-concerted plan, while Section 3(8) focuses on intentional cooperation through separate acts over time.
120. What is a key distinction between Section 3(5) (common intention) and Section 190 (common object)?
a. Section 3(5) requires at least five persons, while Section 190 applies to two or more.
b. Section 3(5) is a specific offence, while Section 190 is a rule of evidence.
c. Section 3(5) requires a pre-concerted plan, while the common object in Section 190 can develop spontaneously.
d. Section 3(5) involves mere presence, while Section 190 requires active participation.
121. In what situation would a person be sentenced to the lowest punishment under Section 10 BNS?
a. When they are found guilty of an offence for which the punishment is equal to other possible offences.
b. When it is doubtful which of several offences they committed, and one offence carries a lesser punishment than the others.
c. When the court is certain of the offence but doubtful about the severity of the punishment.
d. When the accused is found guilty of one offence, and that offence carries the highest punishment.
122. For the consent to be invalid under Section 28(a), what must be true about the person who performs the act?
a. They must have a personal motive to harm the other person.
b. They must have actual knowledge or reason to believe that the consent was given due to fear or misconception.
c. The person doing the act must have done so with malicious intent.
d. They must have consulted with another party before performing the act.
123. Under BNS Section 32, what is the nature of the threat that compels a person to act, for the exception to apply?
a. Any threat of injury.
b. Threats that cause reasonable apprehension of grievous hurt.
c. Threats that cause reasonable apprehension of instant death.
d. Threats of future harm or blackmail.
124. Which of the following scenarios is covered by Section 47 of the BNS?
a. A person in India instigates a foreigner to commit a crime in India.
b. A person in India aids a foreigner in committing an act in a foreign country that is not a crime under Indian law.
c. A person in India instigates a foreigner to commit a murder in another country, where murder is an offence in both India and the other country.
d. A person outside India instigates an offense within India.
125. As per Section 51 of the BNS, when is an abettor liable for a different act than the one abetted?
a. Only if the different act was intentionally caused by the abettor.
b. If the different act was committed at the same time as the abetted act.
c. If the different act was a probable consequence of the abetment.
d. If the different act was more serious than the abetted act.
126. Who is the 'Guardian of the Constitution'?
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Prime Minister
127. Article 45 provides for early childhood care for children below:
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
128. Protection of Monuments is under:
a. Article 48
b. Article 49
c. Article 50
d. Article 51
129. The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble to ensure:
a. Economic Equality
b. Elimination of inequality in status and opportunity
c. Political Equality
d. Religious Freedom
130. The 'Magna Carta of the Indian Constitution' is:
a. Preamble
b. Part III (Fundamental Rights)
c. Part IV (DPSP)
d. Part IVA (Fundamental Duties)
131. A person loses citizenship if they voluntarily acquire the citizenship of another country under:
a. Article 7
b. Article 8
c. Article 9
d. Article 10
132. Which Article guarantees the 'Right to Equality of Opportunity' in public employment?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Article 19
133. The 'Power to legislate on any subject' for UTs lies with:
a. State Legislature
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Governor
134. Which DPSP was added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011?
a. Free legal aid
b. Participation of workers in management
c. Promotion of Co-operative Societies
d. Protection of environment
135. Which article of the Indian Constitution grants the Governor the power of pardon?
a. Article 72
b. Article 161
c. Article 52
d. Article 74
136. Where can the detailed rules regarding charges for special police protections (as mentioned in Para 200) be found?
a. Chapter XVIII of the Police Regulations
b. Chapter XIV of the Office Manual
c. The State Budgetary Guidelines
d. The Police Training College Manual
137. Under Section 15 of the Police Act, 1861, "Inhabitants" include:
a. Only permanent residents
b. Persons who themselves or by agents occupy property in the area
c. Only voters
d. Only taxpayers
138. Section 8-A of the Police Act, 1861 (as applicable in Uttar Pradesh) specifically deals with:
a. Appointment of Special Police Officers
b. Punishment for personating a police officer
c. Enrolment of Civil Aviation Personnel
d. Resignation of police officers
139. Section 35 mandates that a charge against a police officer above the rank of constable must be investigated by:
a. A Senior SP
b. An officer exercising the powers of a Magistrate
c. A High Court Judge
d. The State Human Rights Commission
140. If a police officer is prosecuted under Section 29 (Violation of Duty), the "imprisonment" awarded can be:
a. Rigorous only.
b. Simple only.
c. With or without hard labour.
d. Replaced by a fine of ₹10,000.
141. When a Head Constable starts an investigation under Paragraph 57, how long is he authorized to carry it on?
a. For exactly 24 hours only
b. Until he reaches the crime scene
c. Until he is relieved by a Sub-Inspector or the work is finished
d. Until the District Magistrate arrives
142. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 194, which specific system is prescribed for patrolling in towns?
a. The Three-tier system
b. The Circular patrolling system
c. Six-beat system of Patrolling in towns
d. The Integrated beat system
143. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 135A?
a. Preservation of viscera for unidentified victims
b. Photography of unidentified corpses
c. Process when an unclaimed or unidentified body is recovered by police
d. Advertisement of missing persons in the Gazette
144. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 132?
a. Preparation of the Case Diary for unnatural death
b. Inquest report by police
c. Panchnama procedure in custodial deaths
d. Forensic evidence collection during inquests
145. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 155 regarding the treatment of an arrested person?
a. Use of reasonable force during transit
b. Provision of food and medical aid to suspects
c. Arrested person should not be subjected to any unnecessary hardship
d. Prohibition of custodial torture and intimidation
146. What is the marginal heading of Paragraph 156 regarding the release of an accused?
a. Procedure for judicial bail in bailable cases
b. Release of first-time offenders on personal bond
c. Conditions for granting bail to accused person by the station officer-in-charge
d. Power of the Superintendent to grant bail
147. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 149, there is a specific process for arresting:
a. Military personnel
b. Railway personnel
c. Judicial officers
d. Elected representatives
148. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 174, information regarding which specific crimes must be sent to neighbouring police stations immediately?
a. Murder and Kidnapping
b. Robbery or Dacoity
c. Professional Poisoning and Cattle Theft
d. Rioting and Arson
149. Under Paragraph 176, the Station Officer (S.O.) has specific duties regarding the disappearance of boys and girls under which specific age limits?
a. Boy under 12 years; Girl under 14 years
b. Boy under 14 years; Girl under 16 years
c. Boy under 16 years; Girl under 18 years
d. Boy under 18 years; Girl under 18 years
150. According to the marginal heading of Paragraph 178, where must the poison used to destroy cattle be sent for chemical examination?
a. The District Veterinary Hospital
b. The Civil Surgeon's Laboratory
c. The Forensic Science Laboratory (F.S.L.)
d. The State Chemical Examiner's Office