UP APO 2006
GS
1. Acid rain is caused by: -
a. Reaction between water of clouds and sulphur dioxide pollutant
b. Reaction between rain water and carbon dioxide pollutant
c. Cooling of acid vapours reaching the clouds
d. Reaction between water vapour and electric charge during lightening and cloud bursts
2. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?
a. Microwave
b. Electric wave
c. Ultrasonic wave
d. Soimd waive
3. Consider the following statements: -
Assertion (A): Stem cell research has become very important in view of the multi potent capacity of stem cells.
Reason (R): Stem cells can develop into a complete foetus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code: -
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
4. The weight of an object would be minimum when it is placed: -
a. At the North Pole
b. At the South Pole
c. At the Equator
d. At the centre of the Earth
5. Platelets are found in
a. Lymph
b. Blood
c. Pancreatic Juice
d. Bile
6. What substance is used to correct acidic soils?
a. Lime
b. Calcium superphosphate
c. Gypsum
d. Compost manure
7. An aeroplane rises because: -
a. Of the upward reaction of air
b. The density of air above the plane is less than that below it
c. The pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them
d. Its nose points upwards
8. The ball released from an artificial satellite moving around the earth will: -
a. Go to the sun
b. Go to the moon
c. Fall on the earth
d. Move in the same orbit
9. If the linear momentum of a particle Is doubled, is kinetic energy will
a. Also be doubled
b. Be quadrupled
c. Remain unchanged
d. Be halved
10. How is deuterium oxide commonly known?
a. Soft water
b. Hard water
c. Heavy water
d. Crystalline water
11. which one of the following countries does not possess Cryogenic engine technology?
a. U.S.A.
b. Russia
c. India
d. UK
12. PEHUENSAT-I is one of the four satellites launched through PSLV-C7 on 10.1.07 by India. To which country this satellite belongs?
a. Brazil
b. Argentina
c. Germany
d. Indonesia
13. Any damage to eye by direct viewing of total solar eclipse is caused by: -
a. New rays of the sun
b. Intense brightness of the sun margin
c. The presence of the moon before the sun
d. The ultraviolet rays of the sun
14. Which among the following is the least populated country in the world?
a. St. Kitts
b. Monaco
c. Palau
d. Tuvalu
15. Who among the following got the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2006?
a. Parimarjan Negi
b. JeevMilkha
c. Pankaj Advani
d. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
16. In 2006 Gandhi International Peace Prize was awarded to
a. Kiran Desai
b. RuthManorama
c. Shabana Azmi
d. Suketu Mehta
17. In 2006 Nobel Prize for Literature has been warded to Orhan Pamuk. He is a citizen of
a. Italy
b. Turkey
c. Greece
d. Egypt '
18. The Prime Minister Presented the 21 st Indira Sandhi Prize for National Integration to: -
a. Mahesh Bhatt
b. Barkha Datt
c. Javed Akhtar
d. Vinda Karandikar
19. Who of the following had been selected for 2006 Ramon Magsaysay Award in the emergent leadership category?
a. Kiran Bedi
b. Kiran Desai
c. Arvind Kejriwal
d. Vinda Karandikar
20. Who of the following had been selected for the 14th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award in 2006?
a. Mahesh Bhatt
b. Arundhati Roy
c. Nirmala Deshpande
d. None of the above
21. The Indo-Roman trade is indicated in: -
a. The Ramayana
b. The Manusmriti
c. Divyavadan
d. The Sangam literature
22. Which of the following is the oldest dynasty?
a. Chalukyas
b. Cholas
c. Pallavas
d. Satavahanas
23. In the history of India, who among the following is famous for the policy of market control?
a. Balban
b. Akbar
c. Sher Shah
d. Allauddin Khilji
24. In Mauryan Administration, the official ‘Rupadarshak’ was responsible for: -
a. Maintenance of the harem
b. Propagation of harma
c. Examination of the coins
d. Supervision of the artisans
25. Which of the following statements correctly defines the term “drain theory” as propounded by Dadabhai Nauroji?
a. That the resources of the country were being utilised in the interest of Britain
b. That a part of India's national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India gets no material returns
c. That the British Industrialists were given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the Imperial power
d. That the British goods were being imported to the country making it poorer day by day.
26. At least some parts of Afghanistan were included in the kingdom of: -
a. Mahapadmananda
b. Asoka
c. Samudragupta
d. Harsa
27. Who among the following founded the Vikramasila Mahavihara a great centre of education?
a. Baladitya
b. Harsa
c. Gopala
d. Dharmapala
28. Who among the following ordered that a man should marry only one wife and could marry another if she was barren?
a. Humayun
b. Shershah
c. Akbar
d. Aurangzeb
29. Mathch List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Event) (Year)
A. Birth of Akbar 1. 1191
B. Taimur's invasion 2. 1398
C. Battle of Talikota 3. 1542
D. First battle of Tarain 4. 1565
Code
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 1 3 2
30. The real arm of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal was: -
a. To create a Muslim Majority Province
b. To help the economic development of East Bengal
c. To weaken the forces of nationalism in Bengal
d. None of the above
31. When Gandhiji was arrested during salt- satyagraha, who took his place as the leader of the movement?
a. Jawahar Lai Nehru
b. Sardar Patel
c. Abul Kalam Azad
d. Abbas Tayabji
32. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
a. Agha Khan
b. Ajmal Khan
c. Hasan Imam
d. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
33. Samnyasi revolt broke out in: -
a. Avadh
b. Bengal
c. Haryana
d. Punjab
34. Which of the following occurred in Maharashtra?
a. Bhil uprising
b. Kol uprising
c. Rampa uprising
d. Santhal uprising
35. The taluqedars of which of the following regions revolted against the British rule during the period from 1814 to 1817?
a. Aligarh
b. Avadh
c. Birbhum
d. Malwa
36. The Paramahansa Mandali was a reformist organisation of: -
a. Maharashtra
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Bengal
37. Which of the following organisations aimed at uprooting the colonial power through armed revolution and establishment of United States of India?
a. Indian Association
b. Hindustan Republic Association
c. Bombay British Association
d. Madras Native Association
38. Who among the following lady revolutionaries fired at the Governor while receiving degree in the convocation of 1932?
a. PritiLata Vadedar
b. Kalpana Datta
c. Shanti Ghosh
d. Bina Das
39. Who said ‘Education is the best contraceptive for population stabilisation’?
a. Dr. Man Mohan Singh
b. SamPitroda
c. Som Nath Chatterjee
d. Pranab Mukherjee
40. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a. Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
b. Planning Commission is the highest decision-making body for planning in India
c. Secretary of the Planning Commission is also the Secretary of the National Development Council
d. The National Development Council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India
41. A Gram Pradhan in U.P. is elected: -
1. By all the adults living in the territory of the Panchayat.
2. By all the voters included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat territory
3. By members of the Gram Panchayat
4. From amongst the voters of the panchayat's territory.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 3 and 4 only
42. The maximum number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are: -
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 4
43. Indian Parliament consists of: -
a. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
b. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
c. Speaker and Lok Sabha
d. President and both the Houses of parliament
44. Which one of the following is not a measure of Golbalisation?
a. Disinvestment of the Public Sector Under taking
b. Reduction of import duty
c. Making rupee convertible
d. Allowing free flow of Foreign Direct Investment
45. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Cold arid zone - Ladakh
b. Wet humid zone - Northern India
c. Tropical Monsoon - Central India zone
d. Warm arid zone - Rajasthan
46. The Dandakaranya Project covers the parts of: -
a. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
b. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
c. Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
d. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
47. The most urbanised state of India is:-
a. Gujarat
b. Maharastra
c. Tamil Nadu
d. West Bengal
48. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are: -
a. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
b. Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
c. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
d. Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat. Karnataka and Maharashtra
49. As per 2001 census, which is the most populous state after Uttar Pradesh?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Bihar
c. Maharashtra
d. Andhra Pradesh
50. Consider the following statements about Atlantic Ocean and choose which one is not correct: -
a. It is the World's Second Largest Ocean
b. It covers nearly 30 per cent of earth
c. It spreads from Arctic Ocean in the North to Antarctica in the South
d. It is the saltiest Ocea
LAW
51. According to which section of the Police Act 1861, a police officer may be deployed in any part of the District?
a. 20
b. 21
c. 22
d. 23
52. Under Paragraph 169 of U.P. Police Regulations, it is the duty of the Public Prosecutor to bring to the notice of the Magistrate concerned all cases in which Unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana for more than: -
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 3 months
d. 2 years
53. Paragraph 140 of U.P. Police Regulations requires that when a Police Officer sends a person for examination by a medical officer: -
a. He should clearly explain the object of such examination
b. He should fix the time within which the medical examination must be completed
c. He should send an escort along with the person to be medically examined
d. He should take all care so that the person may not abscond
54. What type of officer is a reserved inspector in the Reserve Line according to U.P. Police Regulations?
a. A General Officer
b. Officer in-charge
c. Deputy Chief Officer
d. None of the above
55. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the following: -
a. Departmental proceedings
b. Judicial Proceedings
c. (a) and (b) both
d. None of the above
56. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding history-sheets?
a. History sheet of class 'B' is for a period of three years and it need not be starred
b. History sheet of class 'A' for an active member of a gang of dacoits must be starred
c. No history sheet should be opened for persons with no permanent residence
d. No history sheet is required to be opened for a person detained under section 109 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
57. When it shall appear that any unlawful assembly, or riot or disturbance has taken place and police force is not sufficient for preservation of peace, Special Police Officers may be appointed by: -
a. The magistrate on application of police officer not below the rank of inspector
b. The superintendent of police of the district concerned
c. The deputy inspector general of police of the range
d. The inspector general of police of the zone
58. Which chapter of U.P. Police Regulations deals with mounted police?
a. Chapter 5
b. Chapter 6
c. Chapter 7
d. Chapter 8
59. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding case diary? The investigating officer should note in the case diary the time and place?
a. At which he received the information on which he acts
b. At which he begins investigation
c. At which investigation is closed
d. When he was called by superintendent of police for enquiry regarding the progress of investigation
60. Under the Police Act, 1861 the word ‘Police’ includes such persons who have under the Act been: -
a. Enrolled
b. Trained
c. Appointed
d. Selected
61. Which para of U. P. Police Regulations deals with Postmortem examination and Procedure?
a. 137
b. 138
c. 139
d. 140
62. In which of the following decisions it was laid down that departmental proceedings can also be initiated against a police officer who has been held guilty under section 29 of the Police Act, 1861?
a. Asha Ram V.G.C.Saxena
b. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh
c. Som Nath Sahu v. State
d. Arya Veer Saxena v. State
63. Match List I with List II and Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below:
List I List II
A. Surrender of the
Certificate of the police officer 1. Section 21
B. Deployment to additional
police force at rail and
other works 2. Section 8
C. Village police Officer 3. Section 30
D. Regulation of Public
assemblies and processions 4. Section 14
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 2 4 1
64. The Public Prosecutor shall maintain at the headquarter a register for the whole district containing the names only of those absconding offenders: -
a. Who are triable in the district
b. Whose names, caste, residence and antecedents have been verified beyond all possibility of doubt
c. Whose real names, residence and antecedents have not been ascertained
d. Who are non-residents of the district concerned
65. In which of the following decisions it was laid down that the accused cannot use the case diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it?
a. U.P.State v. Harish Chandra Singh
b. Arya Veer Saxena v. State
c. State of Kerala v. Amini & Others
d. Mukand Lai v. Union of India
66. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the preamble is: -
a. To define and amend the law of evidence
b. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
c. To highlight define and consolidate the law of evidence
d. To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
67. When a number of documents are all made by one uniform process, as in the case of printing lithography or photography, each is: -
a. Secondary evidence of the contents of the rest
b. Primary evidence of the contents of the rest
c. Direct evidence of the contents of the rest
d. Documentary evidence of the contents of the rest
68. Assertion (A): In criminal cases the fact that accused is of good character is relevant: -
Reason (R): In criminal cases bad character of the accused is always irrelevant
Select the correct answer using the code given below: -
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and Rare true but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. A marriage was solemnized in a general customary form. What is the rule for proving that it is legal wedlock?
a. The custom shall be proved by evidence
b. The court takes judicial notice of the custom
c. The court shall evaluate the effect of custom on general public
d. All the above
70. Which one of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act contains provisions regarding cross-examination of witnesses to character?
a. Section 140
b. Section 141
c. Section 142
d. Section 139
71. A confession made by the accused person is relevant: -
a. If it has proceeded from a person in authority, unless made in the immediate presence of a magistrate
b. If it is made by a police officer, unless made in the immediate presence of a magistrate
c. If it is made to a magistrate provided the police officer is present
d. If it is made whilst he is in custody of a police officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a magistrate
72. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under: -
a. Oral evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Scientific evidence
73. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to this question, which of the following fact is relevant?
a. That 'A' was out that day at Mumbai
b. That 'A' habitually goes to Kolkata
c. That 'A' habitually commits crime
d. None of the above
74. Whenever it is directed by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the court shall presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as: -
a. Proved, unless and until it is disproved
b. Proved, unless and until it is disproved or may call for proof of it
c. Proved
d. Proved and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
75. Who amongst the following is an accomplice?
a. A spy
b. A person giving bribe under coercion
c. A raped girl (Prosecutrix)
d. A prostitute
76. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are: -
a. Synonymous
b. Co-existence
c. Neither synonymous nor co-extensive
d. Synonymous and co-extensive, both
77. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for trespass on his land. ‘B’ alleges the existence of a public right of way over the land, which ‘A’ denies. The existence of a decree in favour of defendant, in suit by ‘A’ against ‘C’ for a trespass on the same land in which ‘C’ alleged the existence of the same right of way, is: -
a. Relevant but it will not operate as estoppel
b. Irrelevant, but it may be considered
c. A conclusive proof that the right of way exists
d. Relevant but not a conclusive proof that the right of way exists
78. Examination, after the cross examination of a witness by the party who has called him is called
a. Main Examination
b. Additional Examination
c. Re-Examination
d. Re-Cross Examination
79. Evidence of custom cannot be given to establish
a. A civil right
b. An easementary right
c. A customary right
d. A criminal right
80. The object of cross-examination is-
a. To examine the intelligence of the witness
b. To examine the impartiality of the witness
c. To examine the credibility of the witness
d. To examine the good character of the witness
81. ‘A’ accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self-control. ‘B’ denies this fact: -
a. The burden of proof must be shared by both A and B
b. The burden of proof is on 'B'
c. The burden of proof is on prosecution
d. The burden of proof is on' A'
82. The father of accused did not support the prosecution during the trial that he told the witness that his son (accused) 9 had committed the murder. The statement of the witness would be in the nature of: -
a. Secondary evidence
b. Hearsay evidence
c. Res gestae
d. None of the above
83. A dying declaration: -
1. cannot form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated.
2. Is a weak kind of evidence
3. Stands on same footing as any other piece of evidence.
4. Has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny for reliability,
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code: -
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 only
84. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which had crushed the husband at a little distance. She had not seen the accident herself. The husband died of heart attack a day later. Can wife’s evidence be taken of what the injured husband said to her after the accident?
a. Yes, it being a dying declaration
b. No, it is merely a hearsay evidence
c. No, because it is a privileged communication
d. Yes, it being a part of res-gestae
85. If the digital signature of any subscriber is alleged to have been affixed to an electronic record the fact that such digital signature is the digital signature of the subscriber must be proved, except in the case of a
a. Secure digital signature
b. Certified digital signature
c. Computerized digital signature
d. Official digital signature
86. The question between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged. ‘A’ affirms that it is genuine, ‘B’ that it is forged: -
a. A' may prove a statement by 'B' that the deed is genuine, and 'B' may prove a statement by 'A' that the deed is forged
b. A' may prove a statement by 'B' that the deed is forged, and 'B' may prove a statement by 'A' that the deed is genuine
c. A' may prove a statement by himself vthat the deed is genuine
d. B' may prove a statement by himself that the deed is forged
87. The man who has disappeared and remained unheard of for seven years by those who would have naturally heard of him, if he was alive, the presumption then arises that he is dead. What shall be the presumption as to time of death of such person?
a. The presumption is that the man died on the date seven years after he was last heard
b. The presumption is that the man died at the beginning of the particular period during these seven years
c. Those who allege that the death should be taken to have occurred at a particular time, will have to prove that fact
d. The presumption is that the man died on the date of judicial pronouncement
88. In a prosecution for rape, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her evidence before the court that she did not consent.
a. The court may presume that she did not consent
b. The court may regard her evidence as conclusive proof that she did not consent
c. The court may require further proof that she did not consent
d. The court shall presume that she did not consent
89. Confession can be result of self-talk, communication of confession to another person is not necessary, was held in the case of:-
a. Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan
b. Buta Singh v. State of Punjab
c. Sahoo Vs. State of U.P.
d. Nishikant Jha v. State of Bihar
90. An approver’s evidence:-
1. Must be reliable
2. Must be corroborated
3. Must be reliable and preferably corroborated.
4. Is not admissible
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 2
d. 2 and 4
91. Principle of vicarious liability was first time decided in the case:
a. R. v. Huggins
b. R. v. Stephenson
c. R. v. Tolson
d. R. v. Prince
92. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defences available in action for defamation?
a. Privilege, truth, fair comment
b. Fair comment, mistake, privilege
c. Fair comment, mistake, truth
d. Mistake, privilege, truth
93. Some provisions of the I.P.C. have been amended by the: -
a. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
b. Arbitration and Reconciliation Act, 1996
c. Information Technology Act, 2000
d. None of the above
94. Which of the following is a leading case on intoxication
a. Nathulal v. State of M.P.
b. Director Public Prosecutions v. Beard
c. Barrow v. Issacs
d. None of the above
95. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I List II
A. Dowry death 1. Sec.340 IPC
B. House-breaking 2. Sec. 351 IPC
C. Assault 3. Sec. 304B IPC
D. Wrongful confinement 4. Sec. 445 IPC
Code
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 3 4
96. Under which of the following sections of the I. P.C. there is provision of death sentence? Answer with the help of code given below?
1. Sections 194 and 449
2. Sections 132 and 194
3. Sections 364A and 396
4. Sections 124A and 132
Code: -
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
97. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code?
a. Preparation to wage war against the state
b. Preparation to commit murder
c. Preparation to commit dacoity
d. Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
98. Which one of the following is an inchoate crime?
a. Public nuisance
b. Criminal attempt
c. Unlawful assembly
d. Riot
99. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Rioting and affray have been defined in sections 146 and 159 of I.P.C. respectively
b. Rioting must be committed in public place, affray may be committed in any place
c. Rioting is punishable with imprisonment extending to two years, affray is punishable with imprisonment extending to one month
d. Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and affray is committed by 2 or more persons
100. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is: -
a. Committed by 5 or more persons
b. Committed by 2 or more persons, but less than five persons
c. Coupled with force
d. Coupled with imminent danger to life
101. Deception is an essential element of the following: -
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Forgery
c. Hxeating
d. All the above
102. ‘A’ by putting ‘B’ in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces ‘B’ to sign in a blank paper and delivers it to ‘A’, ‘B’ after signing that paper delivers it to ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed: -
a. Theft
b. Dacoity
c. Robbery
d. Extortion
103. Which of the following is not an essential element of unlawful assembly?
a. Five or more persons
b. Common object
c. Common intention
d. To resist the execution of any law or of any legal process
104. ‘A’ in good faith accuses ‘Z’ before a Magistrate: -
a. A' has committed no offence
b. A' has committed the offence of defamation
c. A' has committed the offence of defamation but he can take defence under section 93 of I.P.C.
d. None of the above
105. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under which section of IPC?
a. Section 228
b. Section 228A
c. Section 376A
d. Section 376B
106. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt?
a. 'A' tries to kill 'B' by witchcraft
b. 'A' goes to Mumbai to buy dye to make counterfeit currency notes
c. 'A' intending to kill 'B' fires at 'B's coat hanging in his room treating it 'B'
d. 'A' takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
107. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each one of them is liable?
a. For an attempt to commit the act
b. For the abetment of the act
c. Only for the part each one has done
d. As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
108. “Death sentence should be awarded in rarest of rare cases” was held in: -
a. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
b. Rameshwar v. State of U.P.
c. T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu
d. State of U.P. v. M.K. Anthony
109. “Right to live with human dignity does not include right to terminate natural life,” was held in:-
a. P. Rathinam v. Union of India
b. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
c. Rajendra Prasad v. State of U.P.
d. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
110. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute the offence of: -
a. Unlawful assembly
b. Assault
c. Affray
d. Rioting
111. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed
a. When the offender is acting in anger
b. When the offender is acting under the spell of madness
c. With the consent of the victim, who has completed 18 years of age
d. With the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age
112. An employer deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund. Employer commits: -
a. Criminal misappropriation
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Theft
d. Cheating
113. Under section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty includes: -
a. Physical cruelty only
b. Mental cruelty only
c. Harassment of the woman
d. Cruelty by wife
114. ‘A’ was on his journey by car from Delhi to Agra. ‘B’ met him in the way and requested for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town, ‘A’ acceded to his request, but on reaching Mathura, did not drop ‘B’ there in spite of his repeated requests. ‘B’ was carried over to Agra against his wishes.
a. 'A' is not guilty of any offence
b. 'A' is guilty of offence of abduction
c. 'A' is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement
d. 'A' is guilty of using criminal force
115. ‘A’, a school teacher for the purposes of enforcing discipline inflicts moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. In this case: -
a. 'A' is entitled to claim defence under section 89 of I.P.C.
b. 'A' is guilty of causing simple hurt
c. 'A' is guilty of using criminal force
d. 'A' is entitled to claim defence under section 88 of I.P.C.
116. ‘A’s illegal marriage with ‘B’ was performed by a priest ‘P’ knowing that the marriage was illegal, because ‘A’ was already married. A’s father ‘C’ and two other persons ‘D’ and ‘N’ were present at the time of marriage. In this case: -
a. 'C, 'D' and 'N' are liable for abetment
b. Only A's father 'C' is liable for abetment
c. 'C', 'D' W and the priest T' all are guilty of abetment
d. Only the priest T' is liable for abetting the offence of bigamy
117. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
1. K.M.Nanawati v. State of Maharashtra- Grave and sudden provocation
2. State of Himachal Pradesh v. Asha Ram-Rape
3. Karan Singh v. Stae of Utter Pradesh- Right of Private Defence
4. Harjit Singh v. State of Punjab-Dowry Death
Select the correct answer using the code given below: -
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
118. The punishment for general form of Public Nuisance is provided in: -
a. Section 268 of I.P.C.
b. Section 269 of I.P.C.
c. Section 290 of I.P.C.
d. Section 291 of I.P.C.
119. On account of an agitation the lawyers ceased to participate in court proceedings and resorted to ‘Satyagrah’ An editorial in a newspaper criticised as to whether it behooves to the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The lawyers were inter-alia described as ‘Kajia dala i.e. dispute broker, In the editorial: -
a. Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of defamation
b. Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence of defamation
c. Not only editor, but Chairman of Board of Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of defamation
d. None of the above
120. According to Mc naughten’s Rule, legal insanity is quite different from medical insanity, It relates to the-
a. Total loss of conative faculties
b. Total loss of cognitive faculties
c. Congenital insanity
d. None of the above
121. For the defence of mistake of fact under the Indian Penal Code: -
a. Actual mistake is sufficient
b. The act must be reasonable
c. The act must be reasonable as well as committed in good faith
d. None of the above is correct
122. In which of the following cases, the Supreme court has observed that there is no right of private defence against the right of private defence?
a. State of Punjab v. Sohan Singh
b. Surjeet Singh v. State of Punjab
c. State of U.P. v. Ram Swaroop
d. M.R. Singh v. State of Gujrat
123. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code is
a. Intention or knowledge
b. Intention or negligence
c. Intention or recklessness
d. Negligence or malice
124. When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal, by illegal means, such an agreement is
a. Designated as a criminal conspiracy
b. Designated as a criminal abetment
c. Both, criminal conspiracy and abetment
d. None of the above
125. ‘A’ incites his dog to spring upon ‘B’ without ‘B’s consent. ‘A’ is guilty of: -
a. Assault
b. Criminal intimidation
c. Criminal force
d. Grievous hurt
126. Under section 308 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 an accomplice, who does not comply with the conditions of pardon, may be prosecuted and tried separately for the offence of giving false evidence but with the sanction of the: -
a. Sessions Court
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Chief Justice of High Court
127. Under Section 77 of Cr.P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed
a. Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
b. Within the session division
c. At any place within the state
d. At any place in India
128. Under which provision of Cr.P.C. on receipt of First information report for the commission of an offence, the officer-incharge of the police station will send the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
a. Under Section 154 Cr.P.C.
b. Under Section 156 Cr.P.C.
c. Under Section 157 Cr.P.C.
d. Under Section 159 Cr.P.C.
129. Non-cognizable offence means an offence wherein -
a. A police officer cannot arrest without warrant
b. A police officer can arrest at his discretion
c. A police officer has authority to arrest without warrant
d. On request of complainant, arrest can be made
130. Whether any criminal court can impound by document produced before it?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only civil court can impound
d. With the consent of the senior officer, it can be impounded
131. Can a Magistrate order the search of any place in his presence, for the search of which he is empowered to issue a search warrant?
a. Yes, under section 103 Cr.P.C.
b. Yes, under section 104 Cr.P.C.
c. No
d. Yes, under section 105 Cr.P.C.
132. Summon’s case means: -
a. A case which is not a warrant case
b. A case in which security is not required
c. A case through which offence of theft is tried
d. A case m which only summons can be served during trial
133. Which one of the following cases is, related to defective investigation?
a. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
b. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
c. Sakshi v. Union of India
d. Dipesh Chandak v. Union of India
134. Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to section 125 of the code of criminal procedure?
a. Section 125 cannot be used against a person who does not possess sufficient economic means
b. The obligation to maintain a married daughter whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of such daughter
c. A married daughter also has an obligation to maintain her parents who are unable to maintain themselves
d. A woman who has taken divorce from her husband and has not remarried may claim maintenance from her ex- husband
135. When a case is instituted under section 199(2) of Cr.P.C’ the procedure of trial adopted in such a case is: -
a. Session trial
b. Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
c. Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a police report
d. Summons trial
136. The offence committed under which section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under section 320 of Cr.P.C.?
a. Section 352
b. Section 353
c. Section 354
d. Section 355
137. “The object of proceedings under section 145 Cr.P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of peace and not to determine the title". It was observed in the case of: -
a. Union of India v. Ajeebunissan Khatoon
b. Nandi Ram v. Chandi Ram
c. Roshan Lai v. State
d. Ramadhin v. Shyama Devi
138. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?
a. When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with
b. When the judgement is that of acquittal
c. In both (a) and (b) above
d. None of the above
139. In the interest of justice, a Magistrate has the power to try a summons case as a warrant case, wherein the offence to be tried thereunder is punishable with the imprisonment: -
a. Exceeding 6 months
b. Exceeding 4 months
c. Exceeding 1 year
d. None of the above
140. In every criminal trial, when the magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused: -
a. Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed
b. Wrong, it is not required in summons case
c. It is required only before sending the conviction warrant
d. Not required at all in any case
141. The procedure for trial before a court of sessions is provided in the following sections of Cr.P.C.?
a. 260 to 265
b. 238 to 250
c. 251 to 259
d. 225 to 237
142. Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
a. Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to the custody of police, such private person can also make search of such arrested person
b. Enquiry and trial, both are included in judicial proceedings
c. Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured or the affected only should complaint
d. Charges are framed only in warrant cases there is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons cases
143. Under section 125 of the code of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate: -
a. Has the power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
b. Has no power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
c. Has power to grant interim maintenance but no power to grant expenses of the proceedings
d. Has no power to grant interim maintenance but has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
144. Where any judge or Magistrate is personally interested in a case, he shall neither try nor commit for trial such case, nor shall hear any appeal in such case, provided: -
a. Prior permission of High Court has been procured
b. Prior permission of the Chief Justice of High Court has been procured
c. Prior permission of its appellate court has been obtained
d. None of the above
145. In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr.P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitutions of India.
a. Ram Charan v. State
b. Shiv Narain v. Ban Mali
c. Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M. Monghyr
d. Ram Prasad v. Emperor
146. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005, in section 459 of Cr.P.C. the words ‘less than ten Rupees’ have been substituted by the words: -
a. Less than five hundred Rupees
b. Less than fifty Rupees
c. Less than one hundred Rupees
d. Less than two hundred and fifty Rupees
147. When there is dispute between two courts relating to exercise of Jurisdiction in a criminal matter and said courts are under subordination of different high courts the matter shall be decided under section 186 of Cr.P.C. by the: -
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court of the larger state
c. High court having more judge
d. High Court within whose area the proceeding first commenced
148. Period of limitations for an offence punishable with a term of two years as per section 468 of Cr.P.C. is: -
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
149. The power of Magistrate to detain a person for the purposes of police investigations is for a maximum period of: -
a. 15 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 30 days
150. One refusal by any witness to answer a question or to produce a documents upon being asked for, he may be sentenced to imprisonment for a period of
a. 30 days
b. 7 days
c. 14 days
d. One month
