UP APO 2018
GS
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Joint Sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The First Joint Sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The Vice President calls the Joint Sitting of both Houses.
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
2. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Part II of the
Constitution - Fundamental Rights
b. Part III of the
Constitution - Citizenship
c. Part V of the
Constitution - Directive Principles
d. Part VIII of the
Constitution - The Union Territories
3. Which of the following State has bagged the top position in composite ranking for the Good Governance Index according to data released by Personnel Ministry of Government of India on 25 December, 2019?
a. Kerala
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra
d. Karnataka
4. With reference to PURA (Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) Model, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Gandhian approach to development.
2. The concept was given by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam on 5th February, 2004.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Tundra 1. Kangaroo
B. Bavannah 2. Penguin
C. Western Australia 3. Zebra
D. Antarctica Coast 4. Reindeer
Codes
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
6. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Ozone hole is observed only over Antarctica.
Reason (R) Ozone layer is found in lower portion of stratosphere layer of atmosphere.
Codes:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
7. Which of the following States of India had lowest population density as per 2011 census?
a. Mizoram
b. Sikkim
c. Meghalaya
d. Arunachal Pradesh
8. During which of the following decades, the growth of the absolute urban population was more than absolute rural population in India?
a. 1951 - 1961
b. 2001 - 2011
c. 1991 - 2001
d. 1901 - 1911
9. Which among the following is NOT a part of Stupa Architecture?
a. Jangha
b. Anda
c. Medhi
d. Harmika
10. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. The Idea of History - R.G. Collingwood
b. Decline of the West - Karl Marx
c. What is History - E.H. Carr
d. A Study of History - A.J. Toynbee
11. Krishnadevaraya, a ruler of Vijayanagara was related to which dynasty?
a. Sangam dynasty
b. Tuluva dynasty
c. Aravidu dynasty
d. Saluva dynasty
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Akbar lifted Jiziya on Hindus in March 1565.
2. Akbar lifted Jiziya on Hindus in March 1564.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
13. Who was the author of the book "Thoughts on Pakistan"?
a. B. R. Ambedkar
b. S. A. Latif
c. Khushwant Singh
d. Hakim Ajmal Khan
14. Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
I. Treaty of Allahabad
II. Treaty of Amritsar
III Treaty of Salbai
IV. Treaty of Mangalore
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a. I III II IV
b. II I III IV
c. I III IV II
d. I II IV III
15. Who among the following was the second Satyagrahi of individual Satyagraha in 1940?
a. Vinoba Bhave
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Achyut Patwardhan
16. Consider the following events and arrange these in chronological order:
I. Moplah Rebellion
II. Tebhaga Movement
III Bardoli Satyagraha
IV. Champaran Satyagraha
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a. I III IV II
b. II I IV III
c. III I IV II
d. IV I III II
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Movement of food in the digestive system is involuntary.
2. Heart beat is under the control of will.
3. Left part of the brain is concerned with the language.
4. Right part of the brain is concerned with the appreciation of music.
Of these statements:
a. Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d. All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
18. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a. Enzyme - Pepsin
b. Vitamin - Biotin
c. Polymer - RNA
d. Hormone - Cholesterol
19. Which of the following is/are "Clean and Green Puel"?
1. Petrol
2. Diesel
3. CNG
4. Bio-Fuel
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 3 and 4 only
20. Two 60-watt bulbs and two 40-watt fans are kept ON for 6 hours a day. If the electricity charges are Rs. 5 per unit, the electricity bill for 30 days will be Rs.
a. 180
b. 90
c. 900
d. 1,800
21. The term of Mission Indradhanush 2.0 is
a. September 2019 to December 2019
b. December 2019 to March 2020
c. November 2019 to February 2020
d. October 2019 to January 2020
22. In December 2019, the Indian Air Force announced to retire which of the following fighter aircraft from service with effect from 27th December, 2019?
a. MIG-21
b. MIG-29
c. MIG-27
d. MIG-31
23. The following statements are related with Surena IV, humanoid robot:
1. It is built by University of Tehran.
2. It can detect 100 voice commands.
3. It can recognize 100 different objects.
4. It is able to walk 1 km in one hour.
Of these the correct statements are:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 1 and 2 only
24. Who has been named best footballer in the World while receiving the 'Ballon d'or Award' for the sixth time on 2nd December, 2019?
a. Cristiano Ronaldo
b. Luca Modric
c. Leonel Messi
d. Virgil van Dijk
25. 'Miss Universe 2019', Zozibini Tunzi belongs to which Country?
a. Jamaica
b. Mexico
c. Philippines
d. South Africa
26. Which of the following is an exception of the sources of income of Panchayats in U.P.?
a. Animal Tax
b. Local Trade Tax
c. Building Tax
d. None of the above
27. Which of the following types of equalities have been attempted by the Constitution makers through Article 17 and 18?
a. Economic equality
b. Social equality
c. Political equality
d. Religious equality
28. Match the following Boards with their headquarters:
List-I List - II
(Board) (Headquarter)
A. Coffee Board of India 1. Guntur
B. Tobacco Board 2. Hyderabad
C. National Fisheries
Development Board 3. Bengaluru
D. National Jute Board 4. Kolkata
Codes:
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 2 3 4 1
29. Which of the following Visa was brought with an objective to boost investment by the foreign nationals in US companies?
a. J-1
b. E-B5
c. H-3
d. H-1B
30. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(Country) (Capital)
a. Slovenia Vaduz
b. Austria Vienna
c. Slovakia Bratislava
d. Croatia Zagreb
31. Which one of the following coast is known as Mosquito coast?
a. Coastal area of Honduras and Nicargua along Caribbean sea
b. Coastal area of Nicargua along Pacific ocean
c. Coastal area of Honduras along Pacific ocean
d. Coastal area of Honduras and Nicargua along Pacific ocean
32. What was the Sex Ratio of India as per 2011 census?
a. 946 females per one thousand males
b. 945 females per one thousand males
c. 940 females per one thousand males
d. 933 females per one thousand males
33. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(States) (Population density as per
2011 census)
a. Bihar 1106
b. Uttar Pradesh 829
c. Tamil Nadu 555
d. Kerala 760
34. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Hathigumpha - Orissa
b. Eliora - Maharashtra
c. Bagh - Madhya Pradesh
d. Nagarjuna Pahari - West Bengal
35. Which one of the following rulers is NOT related with Mauryan Dynasty?
a. Chandragupta Maurya
b. Bimbisara
c. Ashok
d. Brihadratha
36. Who was the author of "Badshah Nama'?
a. Abul Fazal
b. Muhammad Kazim
c. Gulbadan Begum
d. Abdul Hamid Lahori
37. When Queen Elizabeth granted a Royal Charter to trade in the East, to East India Company?
a. 31 December 1609
b. 31 December 1606
c. 31 December 1600
d. 31 December 1601
38. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List - I List - II
A. Gaikwad 1. Gwalior
B. Holkar 2. Nagpur
C. Sindhia 3. Baroda
D. Bhonsle 4. Indore
Codes:
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 3 2 1 4
39. With reference to the Vaikom Satyagrah, which statement is/are correct?
1. It was started in Travancore.
2. It was against the Salt Tax in Kerala.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1 only
b. Both 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(Treaty) (Year)
a. Treaty of Surat 1775
b. Treaty of Madras 1769
c. Treaty of Basin 1803
d. Treaty of Lahore 1846
41. Who was the author of the book 'A History of the Arya Samaj'?
a. Lala Lajpat Rai
b. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
c. Swami Shradhanand
d. Pandit Lekh Ram
42. The last natural case of Smallpox was reported in 1977 from
a. Kenya
b. Nigeria
c. Somalia
d. Vietnam
43. Viewed from the space, the earth looks mainly
a. Blue
b. Brown
c. Yellow
d. Red
44. Match List - I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List – II
(Substances) (Use)
A. Eosin 1. Fungicide
B. Cellulose acetate 2. Artificial rain
C. Silver iodide 3. Motion picture films
D. Copper sulphate 4. Red ink
Codes:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 3 4 2
45. The terminal colour bands in a rainbow are
a. Blue and Red
b. Red and Violet
c. Green and Violet
d. Yellow and Blue
46. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(Tropical Cyclone) (Month and Year)
a. Fani April-May 2019
b. Bulbul November 2019
c. Vayu June 2019
d. Pabuk March 2019
47. Which of the following was the main theme of New Delhi World Book Fair, 2020?
a. New India
b. Gandhi: Writers' Writer
c. Kitab Kumbh
d. Digital Revolution
48. Which of the following Countries was designated by United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO) for World Tourism Day, 2019 celebration?
a. India
b. Turkey
c. United Arab Emirates
d. Mexico
49. On 19th December 2019, which Country has approved Fast Track Visa System with an objective of filling the vacant posts in its National Health Service by Foreign Doctors and Nurses?
a. Brazil
b. Poland
c. Britain
d. USA
50. Who was the youngest woman climate activist to address at COPA - 25 held during December 2-13, 2019?
a. Greta Thumberg (Sweden)
b. Lickypriya Kangujam (India)
c. Ridhima Pandey (India)
d. Shalvi Sakshi (Fizi)
LAW
51. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List - II
(Sections of Cr.P.C.) (Subject matter)
A. Section 272 1. Complaint
B. Section 2(d) 2. Language of the court
C. Section 321 3. Withdrawal of
complaint
D. Section 257 4. Withdrawal from
prosecution
Codes:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 2 1 4
52. In which case the Supreme Court has determined that under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, a married daughter having sufficient, independent and self means, is liable for maintenance of her parents?
a. Revati Bai v. Jageshwar
b. Vijaya Manohar Arbat v. Kashirao Rajaram
c. Sudeep Chawdhary v. Radha Chawdhary
d. Bhure v. Gomti Bai
53. Which of the following offences punishable under Sections of the Indian Penal Code are NOT compoundable under Section 320 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 298
b. Section 323
c. Section 427
d. Section 390
54. By which of the following Amendments the provisions of Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been revived in Uttar Pradesh?
a. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Uttar Pradesh Amendment) Act, 1976
b. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
c. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Uttar Pradesh Amendment) Act, 2018
d. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018
55. The investigation in relation to an offence under Section 376-DA of the Indian Penal Code shall be completed from the date on which the information was recorded by the officer-in-charge of the police station?
a. Within six months
b. Within three months
c. Within two months
d. Without unnecessary delay
56. In which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code the 'Victim Compensation Scheme' was incorporated?
a. Section 291-A
b. Section 357-A
c. Section 311-A
d. Section 436-A
57. Which Section is designed to cure to some extent the defects and irregularities in recording of confession or other statements of accused under Section 164 of Cr.P.C.?
a. Section 281
b. Section 461
c. Section 463
d. None of the above
58. Police officer's power to require attendance of persons acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case is mentioned in
a. Section 160(1) of Cr.P.C.
b. Section 160(2) of Cr.P.C.
c. Section 161(1) of Cr.P.C.
d. Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C.
59. The maximum sentence of imprisonment which may be given in summary trial is
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
60. The Court of Session is established by
a. The High Court
b. The State Government
c. The Central Government
d. The Governor of the State
61. In respect of cases instituted otherwise than on police report under which of the following Section charges are framed?
a. Section 240, Сг.Р.С.
b. Section 244, Сг.Р.С.
c. Section 246, Cr.P.C.
d. Section 248, Cr.P.C.
62. If a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, her sentence shall be commuted to imprisonment for life by the
a. Governor
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. President
63. One of the important principle of evidence law is that Evidence to be weighted and not numbered' is inherent in which of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Section 132
b. Section 134
c. Section 123
d. Section 135
64. Section 2 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was repealed by
a. Repealing Act, 1948
b. Repealing Act, 1945
c. Repealing Act, 1883
d. Repealing Act, 1938
65. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer with the help of the codes given below the lists:
List - I List - II
(Relevancy of the Facts) (Sections of Evidence Act)
A. Facts which shows the
preparation of Fact-in-issue 1. Section 9
B. Facts which are the result of
Fact-in issue 2. Section 8
C. Facts which are part of same
transaction 3. Section 7
D. Facts which are necessary to
explain or introduce
relevant facts 4. Section 6
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2 4
66. Possession is the Prima Facie evidence of ownership' this principle is described in
a. Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 113 of the Indian Evidence Act
d. Section 111 of the Indian Evidence Act
67. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides provisions for refreshing memory?
a. Section 159
b. Section 158
c. Section 155
d. Section 160
68. A spouse will be permitted to disclose the communication made during the marriage
a. With the consent of person who made it
b. In suits between the spouses
c. In prosecution between the spouses
d. All the above
69. Read the following statements carefully:
A. The presumption of legitimacy of child is governed by Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act.
B. Narendra Nath Pahari v. Ram Govind Pahari is a leading case on the legitimacy of a child born during the continuance of valid marriage.
Of the above:
a. (A) is true but (B) is false
b. (A) is false but (B) is true
c. Both (A) and (B) are true
d. Both (A) and (B) are false
70. "The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side." This provision is contained in which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
a. Section 101
b. Section 102
c. Section 110
d. Section 112
71. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?
a. Section 146
b. Section 119
c. Section 45-A
d. Section 113-A
72. 'Not Proved' under Indian Evidence Act means
a. Proved
b. Disproved
c. Neither proved nor disproved
d. Not proved before Advocate
73. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
a. Presumption as
to documents
thirty years old - Section 90 of I.E.A.
b. Burden of proving
that person is alive
who has not been
heard of for seven
years - Section 108 of I.E.A.
c. Dumb witnesses - Section 119 of I.E.A.
d. Presumption as
to dowry death - Section 113-A of I.E.A
74. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 facts forming part of the same transaction are known as
a. Plea of alibi
b. Admission
c. Res gestae
d. Dying declaration
75. The case of Palvinder Kaur v/s State of Punjab relates to which of the following?
a. Dying declaration
b. Confession
c. Relevancy of judgement
d. Entries in the books of account
76. Which of the following Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is related to 'Hicklin Test'?
a. Section 292
b. Section 291
c. Section 290
d. Section 299
77. Disclosure of identity of the victim of rape is punishable under
a. Section 326-A, Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Section 228-A, Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Section 228, Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. Section 376-E, Indian Penal Code, 1860
78. A distinction has been well explained by the Supreme Court in Nanakchand v. State of Punjab (A.I.R. 1955 SC 274) relating to which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code?
a. Between Section 378 and Section 383
b. Between Section 361 and Section 362
c. Between Section 350 and Section 380
d. Between Section 34 and Section 149
79. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 is being enforced
a. 21 April, 2018
b. 1 September, 2018
c. 21 July, 2018
d. 17 November, 2018
80. Which of the following is NOT a correct match?
(Offence) (Sections of Indian Penal Code)
a. Extortion Section 383
b. Dacoity Section 391
c. Robbery Section 389
d. Theft Section 378
81. The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by
a. First Law Commission
b. Second Law Commission
c. Third Law Commission
d. Sixteenth Law Commission
82. 'A' cuts down a tree on 'Z's ground without his permission and takes it away without 'Z's knowledge
a. It is a theft
b. It is an extortion
c. It is a dishonest misappropriation
d. It is a criminal trespass
83. 'A' meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He drives the bullock in a certain direction in order that he may dishonestly take the treasure. A has committed
a. Robbery
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Theft
d. None of the above
84. Making preparation to commit Dacoity is punishable in Indian Penal Code, 1860
a. Under Section 393
b. Under Section 395
c. Under Section 399
d. Under Section 396
85. Match the following:
List - I List - II
(Decided Cases) (Related Sections of
Indian Penal Code)
A. Barindra Kumar
Ghosh v. Emperor 1. Section 303
B. K. M. Nanavati
v. State of
Maharashtra 2. Section 34
C. Mitthu v. State
of Punjab 3. Distinguish between
Section 299 and 300
D. R v. Govind 4. Section 300
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 2 1 3 4
86. In which one of the following Sections of Indian Penal Code "Kidnapping or maiming a minor for purposes of begging" has been discussed?
a. Section 363
b. Section 364
c. Section 363-A
d. Section 364-A
87. The word "Valuable Security" is defined in Indian Penal Code under
a. Section 28
b. Section 29
c. Section 30
d. Section 31
88. 'A' causes 'Z' to go within a walled space and locks 'Z' in. 'A' shall be guilty of
a. Assault
b. Wrongful confinement
c. Wrongful restraint
d. None of the above
89. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
A. Section 81, IPC 1. Act of person of
unsound mind
B. Section 84, IPC 2. Act of causing
slight harm
C. Section 86, IPC 3. Defence of necessity
D. Section 95, IPC 4. Intoxication
Codes:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 3 2 4 1
90. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more person in furtherance of common object will constitute
a. Affray
b. Rioting
c. Assault
d. Unlawful assembly
91. 'A' intentionally causes 'Z's death partly by illegally omitting to give 'Z' food and partly by beating 'Z'. 'A' has committed the offence of
a. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
b. Attempt to commit murder
c. Murder
d. Grievous hurt
92. Mehboob Shah v/s King Emperor is a leading case on
a. Conspiracy
b. Common Intention
c. Wrongful Confinement
d. Common Object
93. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861, provides duties of Police Officers?
a. Section 10
b. Section 23
c. Section 18
d. Section 24
94. Which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the Police to regulate public assemblies and processions and licensing the same?
a. Section 32
b. Section 30
c. Section 28
d. Section 26
95. Punishment of "Withholding of increments or promotions" of Police Officers under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is effective from
a. 01-04-1945
b. 01-04-1944
c. 01-05-1944
d. 01-05-1945
96. Inspector General of Police can appoint additional Police near the railways with the consent of the following
a. District Magistrate
b. Railway Ministry
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police, Railway
97. Which Chapter of the U.P. Police Regulation is related to absconded offender?
a. Chapter 24
b. Chapter 19
c. Chapter 37
d. Chapter 18
98. Which of the following Para of the U.P. Police Regulation relates to post-mortem and procedure thereof?
a. Para 139
b. Para 140
c. Para 137
d. Para 138
99. Which one of the following Sections the Police Act, 1861 contains provisions relating to General Diary?
a. Section 44
b. Section 45
c. Section 46
d. Section 47
100. Village Chaukidar must attend at their Police Station on fixed dates for the purpose of reporting births and deaths
a. Once a month
b. Twice a month
c. Thrice a month
d. Once a year
101. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C., 1973 prohibits the male Police Officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?
a. Proviso of Section 41(1)
b. Proviso of Section 42(2)
c. Proviso of Section 46(1)
d. None of the above
102. Which of the following is NOT a correct match?
a. Information in
cognizable cases - Section 154 of Criminal
Procedure Code
b. Arrest by Magistrate - Section 43 of Criminal
Procedure Code
c. Arrest without
warrant by Police
Officer - Section 41 of Criminal
Procedure Code
d. Contents of charges - Section 211 of Criminal
Procedure Code
103. Which of the following case is related to Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
a. Ram Avtar v. State of U.P.
b. State of Karnataka v. Praveen Thogadia
c. Bhagwan Dutt v. Kamla Devi
d. Iqbal Ahmed v. State of U.P.
104. Which one of the following Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is applied when the officer-in-charge of a police station receive an information that a person has committed suicide?
a. Section 154
b. Section 147
c. Section 174
d. Section 181
105. For every district, a Public Prosecutor is appointed by
a. The District Magistrate, in consultation with the Sessions Judge
b. The State Public Service Commission
c. The State Government
d. The Central Government
106. The "Protection against double Jeopardy" is contained in which Section of Criminal Procedure Code?
a. Section 300
b. Section 302
c. Section 308
d. Section 304
107. Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term 'Cognizance'?
a. Section 2(C)
b. Section 190
c. Section 200
d. Not defined
108. What is true in relation to a First Information Report?
a. It is given to officer incharge of a police station
b. It is signed by the person giving
c. It may be oral or in writing
d. All the above
109. Power to suspend or remit sentences lies under Cr.P.C. with
a. High Court
b. Trial Court
c. Supreme Court
d. Appropriate Government
110. Which Section of Cr.P.C. empowers Court to alter or add to any charge at any time before judgement pronounced?
a. Section 214
b. Section 215
c. Section 216
d. Section 217
111. Who is empowered to remove nuisance under Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
a. District Magistrate
b. Judicial Magistrate First Class
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. None of the above
112. Match List - I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List - I List - II
(Subject matter) (Sections of Cr. P.C.)
A. Appeals from
convictions 1. Section 375
B. No Appeals in
petty cases 2. Section 378
C. Appeals in cases
of Acquittal 3. Section 376
D. No Appeals in certain
cases when accused
pleads guilty 4. Section 374
Codes:
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 14 2
113. According to Section 13 of Cr.P.C., Special Judicial Magistrate may be appointed for a term
a. Not exceeding one year
b. Not exceeding two years
c. Not exceeding three years
d. None of the above
114. According to Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the contents of the documents may be proved by
a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
115. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does NOT deal with criminal matters?
a. Section 27
b. Section 133
c. Section 53
d. Section 23
116. Evidence of character includes evidence of
a. Disposition only
b. Reputation only
c. General reputation and General disposition
d. Particular acts by which reputation or disposition were shown
117. 'A' wishes to prove a dying declaration by 'B'. 'A' must prove 'B's death. This provision of Indian Evidence Act relates to
a. Section 32 (1)
b. Section 103
c. Section 104
d. Section 105
118. Which of the following case is NOT related to Estoppel'?
a. Shri Krishna v. Kurukshetra University
b. Sharat Chandra Dey v. Gopal Chandra Laha
c. Express Newspaper Pvt. Limited v. Union of India
d. R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra
119. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(Subject matter) (Section of Ι.Ε.Α.)
a. Communication during
marriage Section 122
b. Evidence as to affairs
of States Section 123
c. Confidential communication
with Legal Advisor Section 128
d. Evidence of an accomplice Section 133
120. Which of the following is NOT primary evidence?
a. Printing
b. Lithography
c. Photography
d. Certified copies
121. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that "all documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court are called documentary evidence"?
a. Section 4
b. Section 61
c. Section 91
d. None of the above
122. A witness, who is unable to speak, may give his evidence in writing in the Open Court. The evidence so given shall be deemed to be
a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Oral evidence
123. The case of Pakla Narayan Swami v/s Emperor relates to
a. Doctrine of estoppel
b. Accomplice
c. Dying declaration
d. Cross-examination
124. Which one of the following is NOT defined under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
a. Court
b. Document
c. Evidence
d. Confession
125. 'A' is charged with travelling in a railway without ticket. The burden of proof that he had a ticket will lie on
a. Prosecution
b. Railway Administration
c. Ticket Examiner
d. 'A' himself
126. The offence of 'Voyeurism' is provided under Section
a. 354 of Indian Penal Code
b. 354-C of Indian Penal Code
c. 354-A of Indian Penal Code
d. 354-B of Indian Penal Code
127. 'A' makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds, after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. He has committed the offence of
a. Theft
b. Attempt of theft
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. All the above
128. False statement in connection with an election' is mentioned under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a. Section 171-G
b. Section 171-H
c. Section 171-D
d. Section 171-E
129. 'B' is drowning and insensible. 'A' in order to save his life, pulls him out of the water with a hook which injures him. 'A' is guilty of
a. Using criminal force
b. Voluntarily causing hurt
c. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt
d. No offence
130. When a man having sex with a woman even with her consent, man is said to commit rape, if the age of that woman is less than
a. 17 years
b. 19 years
c. 18 years
d. 16 years
131. In which of the following cases, doctrine of Mens rea' is NOT applicable?
a. Theft
b. Murder
c. Public nuisance
d. Thug
132. The maxim of 'doli incapax' under Indian Penal Code, is an exception to criminal liability in which of the following Sections?
a. Section 80
b. Section 82
c. Section 83
d. Section 88
133. Which of the following Section of Indian Penal Code deals with solitary confinement?
a. Section 71
b. Section 72
c. Section 73
d. Section 74
134. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India has held that Section 303 of Indian Penal Code is ultra vires of Article 14 and 21 of the Indian Constitution?
a. Mitthu v. State of Punjab
b. Keshoram v. State of Assam
c. Amrita v. State of Maharashtra.
d. Jaspal Singh v. State of Punjab
135. 'A' a Police Officer tortures 'Z' in order to induce 'Z' to confess that he committed a crime. 'A' is guilty of an offence under
a. Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code
b. Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code
c. Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code
d. Section 331 of the Indian Penal Code
136. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?
a. Mens rea - R v. Prince
b. Necessity - R v. Dudley and Stephens
c. Insanity - M 'Naghten's case
d. Intoxication - Basudeo v. State of PEPSU
137. In which one of the following Section of Indian Penal Code, "rash and negligent driving of vehicle on public way" is an offence?
a. Section 278
b. Section 279
c. Section 273
d. Section 280
138. 'A' finds a valuable ring not knowing to whom it belongs. 'A' sells it immediately without attempting to discover the owner. What offence had he committed?
a. Theft
b. Extortion
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. Dishonest misappropriation of property
139. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?
a. Abetment
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Theft
140. Match the following:
List-I List - II
A. Attempt to commit
culpable homicide 1. Section 351, IPC
B. Attempt to commit
suicide 2. Section 362, IPC
C. Assault 3. Section 308, IPC
D. Abduction 4. Section 309, IPC
Codes:
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 3 4 1 2
141. Director Public Prosecution v. Beard is a leading case on which one of the following?
a. Unsoundness of mind
b. Accident
c. Intoxication
d. Infancy
142. Assertion (A): 'A', a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his Superior Officer, in conformity with the commands of law. 'A' has committed no offence.
Reason (R): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true
143. If the term of rigorous imprisonment shall not exceed six months then the maximum period of solitary confinement shall be
a. Fifteen days
b. One month
c. Three months
d. Six months
144. Which one of the following Sections of the Police Act, 1861 has been repealed?
a. Section 44
b. Section 35
c. Section 28
d. Section 11
145. The statutory powers of the Inspector General of Police under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is subject to
a. Article 309 of the Constitution of India
b. Article 226 of the Constitution of India
c. Article 311 of the Constitution of India
d. Article 390 of the Constitution of India
146. No Police Officer shall engage in an employment other than his duties under the Police Act, 1861 unless expressly permitted to do so in writing by the
a. District Magistrate
b. Deputy Inspector-General of Police
c. Inspector-General of Police
d. Senior Superintendent of Police
147. Under which Sections of the Police Act, 1861, State Government is empowered to deploy additional Police force in a distressed or critical district?
a. Section 16
b. Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 11
148. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched as per U.P. Police Regulations?
a. Armed Police - Chapter 6
b. Mounted Police - Chapter 8
c. Village Police - Chapter 9
d. Investigations - Chapter 10
149. According to Para 170 of U.P. Police Regulations, Public Prosecutor will inspect "Malkhana"
a. Once in a year
b. Once in six months
c. Once in three months
d. Once in a month
150. Which of the following provision of U.P. Police Regulations is related with the Gang Register?
a. Para 250
b. Para 251
c. Para 252
d. Para 253