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The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-7
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1. Section 49A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Zoo management
b. Definitions in Chapter dealing with trade in wildlife
c. Hunting permits
d. Sanctuary declaration
2. Under Section 49A(a), “Scheduled animal” means:
a. Any domestic animal
b. Animal specified in Schedule I or Part II of Schedule II
c. Only endangered species notified by State
d. Only zoo animals
3. Under Section 49A(b), “Scheduled animal article” includes:
a. Only live animals
b. Articles made from Scheduled animals including parts used in them
c. Only forest produce
d. Only plants
4. Which of the following is excluded from “Scheduled animal article”?
a. Tiger skin
b. Peacock tail feather and articles made therefrom
c. Deer horn
d. Elephant tusk
5. Snake venom under Section 49A is:
a. Included in scheduled animal article
b. Specifically excluded
c. Always prohibited for definition purpose
d. Treated as forest produce
6. Under Section 49A(c), “specified date” in relation to scheduled animal means:
a. Date of notification by court
b. Date of expiry of two months from commencement of Amendment Act, 1986
c. Date of hunting
d. Date of licence issue
7. For animals added to Schedule later, “specified date” is:
a. Immediate date of addition
b. Two months from date of such addition or transfer
c. One year from addition
d. No fixed date
8. The concept of “specified date” is mainly relevant for:
a. Taxation
b. Transitional compliance for scheduled animals/articles
c. Forest land acquisition
d. Tourism regulation
9. Section 49A primarily provides:
a. Licensing rules
b. Interpretation clauses for wildlife trade restrictions
c. Hunting exemptions
d. Sanctuary rules
10. “Scheduled animal article” includes:
a. Only raw meat
b. Articles in which whole or part of scheduled animal has been used
c. Only live animals
d. Only plants
11. Section 49B of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Sanctuary management
b. Prohibition of dealings in trophies and animal articles derived from scheduled animals
c. Zoo licensing
d. Hunting permits
12. Under Section 49B(1), after the specified date, no person shall:
a. Keep pets
b. Carry on business as dealer/manufacturer of scheduled animal articles
c. Enter forest area
d. Buy domestic animals
13. Section 49B prohibits business as:
a. Farmer of crops
b. Taxidermist dealing with scheduled animals or their parts
c. Forest guard
d. Tourist guide
14. Under Section 49B, dealing in ivory imported into India is:
a. Fully permitted
b. Prohibited as per clause (ia)
c. Allowed without restriction
d. Regulated only by State rules
15. Section 49B prohibits:
a. Cooking or serving meat derived from scheduled animals in eating-houses
b. Cooking vegetables
c. Serving fish
d. Serving dairy products
16. The term “eating-house” in Section 49B has meaning derived from:
a. Section 27
b. Section 44 Explanation
c. Section 38H
d. Section 49A
17. Under Section 49B(1), dealing in captive scheduled animals is:
a. Allowed freely
b. Prohibited as a business activity
c. Allowed with State permission only
d. Allowed for research only
18. Section 49B applies from:
a. Date of notification by State Government
b. Specified date under Section 49A
c. Date of arrest
d. Date of hunting
19. Under Section 49B(2), existing licence under Section 44:
a. Becomes unlimited permission
b. Does not permit continuation of prohibited business after specified date
c. Becomes permanent ownership right
d. Converts into hunting licence
20. Main objective of Section 49B is:
a. Promote wildlife trade regulation relaxation
b. Completely prohibit commercial exploitation of scheduled animal derivatives
c. Allow ivory trade
d. Encourage eating-house businesses
21. Section 49C of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting of wild animals
b. Declaration by dealers
c. Constitution of Wildlife Board
d. Protection of sanctuaries
22. Under Section 49C(1), declaration must be made within:
a. 7 days from specified date
b. 15 days from specified date
c. 30 days from specified date
d. 60 days from specified date
23. Declaration under Section 49C is to be made to:
a. Magistrate of the district
b. Police Commissioner
c. Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer
d. Central Government
24. Under Section 49C, dealers are required to declare stocks of:
a. Only live animals
b. Only forest produce
c. Scheduled animal articles, animals, parts and trophies
d. Only imported animals
25. “Stocks” under Section 49C includes:
a. Only current trade goods
b. Only manufactured goods
c. Stocks as at the end of specified date
d. Only future purchases
26. Which of the following is included in declaration under Section 49C?
a. Scheduled animal articles
b. Scheduled animals and their parts
c. Trophies and uncured trophies
d. All of the above
27. Section 49C applies to persons carrying on business referred under:
a. Section 48A
b. Section 49A
c. Section 49B(1)
d. Section 50
28. “Uncured trophies” under Section 49C refers to:
a. Fully processed animal trophies
b. Unprocessed or partially preserved animal remains
c. Artificial trophies
d. Domestic animal products
29. The purpose of Section 49C is primarily to:
a. Promote wildlife trade
b. Regulate and record wildlife stock with dealers
c. Allow unrestricted trade in animals
d. Remove penalties for dealers
30. Declaration under Section 49C must include:
a. Only animals in transit
b. Only live domestic animals
c. Stock at end of specified date
d. Future business plans
31. Under Section 49C(2), on receipt of declaration, the Chief Wild Life Warden may:
a. Immediately confiscate all stocks without inquiry
b. Take all or any measures specified in Section 41
c. Only register the dealer’s name
d. Issue licence for trade
32. The provisions of Section 41 apply under Section 49C(2):
a. Absolutely and independently
b. Only for criminal trial
c. So far as may be applicable
d. Not at all applicable
33. Under Section 49C(3), a person may retain stock items for:
a. Commercial sale
b. Export purposes
c. Bona fide personal use
d. Government supply
34. Certificate of ownership under Section 49C(3) is issued by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Central Government
c. Chief Wild Life Warden with prior approval of Director
d. Police Commissioner
35. Before issuing certificate of ownership, authority must be satisfied about:
a. Market value of items
b. Lawful possession of items
c. Export permission
d. Commercial demand
36. Identification marks under Section 49C(3) are affixed:
a. Randomly
b. Only on request of dealer
c. In prescribed manner
d. By police authority
37. Items covered under certificate of ownership must be required for:
a. Industrial use
b. Commercial trade
c. Bona fide personal use
d. Auction purposes
38. As per proviso to Section 49C(3), such items cannot be kept in:
a. Residential houses
b. Government offices
c. Commercial premises
d. Warehouses only
39. Under Section 49C(4), it is prohibited to:
a. Store wildlife articles
b. Sell trophies
c. Obliterate or counterfeit identification marks
d. Apply for ownership certificate
40. Appeal against refusal of ownership certificate under Section 49C(5) is governed by:
a. Section 46(2), (3) and (4)
b. Section 50 only
c. CrPC provisions only
d. No appeal lies
41. Under Section 49C(6), transfer of item includes:
a. Only sale
b. Only inheritance
c. Gift, sale or otherwise transfer
d. Only government acquisition
42. A person transferring such item must report within:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
43. Section 50 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Declaration by dealers
b. Power of entry, search, arrest and detention
c. Constitution of Wildlife Board
d. Hunting permissions
44. Under Section 50(1), powers may be exercised if the officer has:
a. Suspicion only
b. Written complaint only
c. Reasonable grounds for believing an offence has been committed
d. Prior court order only
45. Which of the following officers is NOT mentioned under Section 50(1)?
a. Director
b. Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Police officer not below rank of Sub-Inspector
d. District Judge
46. Under Section 50(1), the power of entry, search and arrest is available:
a. Only after conviction
b. Only during trial
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
d. Only with magistrate permission
47. Under Section 50(1)(a), an officer may require production of:
a. Only livestock
b. Only forest permits
c. Wildlife articles and related documents
d. Only land records
48. Section 50(1)(a) includes requirement to produce:
a. Only vehicles
b. Captive animals and wild animals
c. Only government property
d. Only tax receipts
49. Which of the following is included in items for inspection under Section 50(1)(a)?
a. Meat and trophy
b. Specified plants and derivatives
c. Animal articles
d. All of the above
50. Under Section 50(1)(a), officer may ask for:
a. Political documents
b. Licences or permits under the Act
c. Bank statements
d. Educational certificates
51. The term “notwithstanding anything contained in any other law” in Section 50 indicates:
a. Limited power
b. Subordinate power
c. Overriding effect of this provision
d. Temporary power only
52. Power under Section 50(1) can be exercised by:
a. Only Central Government
b. Only Magistrate
c. Authorized forest and police officers of specified rank
d. Only village head
53. Under Section 50(1)(c), an officer may seize:
a. Only domestic animals
b. Only forest land records
c. Wildlife articles and related items involved in offence
d. Only licensed goods
54. Which of the following can be seized under Section 50(1)(c)?
a. Captive animal and wild animal
b. Animal article, meat, trophy or uncured trophy
c. Specified plant or its derivative
d. All of the above
55. Section 50(1)(c) allows seizure of:
a. Only items owned by government
b. Only items voluntarily surrendered
c. Items in respect of which offence appears to have been committed
d. Only illegal weapons
56. Along with wildlife articles, Section 50(1)(c) also permits seizure of:
a. Only cash
b. Trap, tool, vehicle, vessel or weapon used in offence
c. Only documents
d. Only land property
57. Under Section 50(1)(c), arrest without warrant is permitted when:
a. Accused confesses guilt
b. Officer is satisfied person will appear and answer charge
c. Court issues order
d. Police complaint is filed only
58. Arrest under Section 50(1)(c) is:
a. With warrant only
b. Without warrant
c. Only after trial
d. Only with magistrate approval
59. Under Section 50(1)(c), detention of accused is allowed:
a. Never permitted
b. Only for identification
c. If arrest is made under suspicion of offence
d. Only for 1 hour
60. The proviso under Section 50(1)(c) relates to:
a. Hunters in forests
b. Fishermen near sanctuaries or National Parks
c. Tourists in zoos
d. Forest officials
61. As per proviso, distance mentioned for fishermen is:
a. 5 kilometres
b. 10 kilometres
c. 15 kilometres
d. 20 kilometres
62. The proviso protects fishing tackle or net when:
a. Used for commercial fishing
b. Used in all waters
c. Fisherman inadvertently enters sanctuary waters without commercial fishing intent
d. Used for hunting animals
63. Under Section 50(3A), custody of seized captive or wild animal may be given on execution of:
a. Simple affidavit
b. Bond for production of animal when required
c. Cash payment only
d. Written apology
64. The bond under Section 50(3A) is executed for production of animal before:
a. Forest Guard
b. Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Magistrate having jurisdiction
d. Central Government
65. Custody under Section 50(3A) can be granted by an officer not below rank of:
a. Forest Guard
b. Range Officer
c. Assistant Director of Wild Life Preservation or Assistant Conservator of Forests
d. District Collector
66. Under Section 50(4), detained persons or seized things must be taken:
a. To Police Station only
b. To Forest Office only
c. Forthwith before a Magistrate
d. To Central Government office
67. While taking detained person or seized things before Magistrate, intimation must be given to:
a. Panchayat
b. Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer
c. Supreme Court
d. Local MLA
68. Under Section 50(5), failure to produce required items without reasonable cause results in:
a. Civil liability only
b. No offence
c. Offence under the Act
d. Warning only
69. Section 50(6) deals with disposal of:
a. Vehicles only
b. Meat, uncured trophy, specified plants or derivatives
c. Land records
d. Weapons only
70. Disposal under Section 50(6) may be arranged by:
a. Police Inspector
b. Magistrate only
c. Assistant Director of Wild Life Preservation or authorised gazetted officer
d. Village head
71. Under Section 50(7), assistance to officers is:
a. Optional
b. Only for government employees
c. Mandatory duty of any person approached
d. Required only during daytime
72. Section 50(7) assistance is required for:
a. Political investigation
b. Prevention or detection of offence and seizure under the Act
c. Tax collection
d. Land acquisition
73. Under Section 50(3A), custody bond is linked to:
a. Final conviction
b. Production of animal before Magistrate when required
c. Sale of animal
d. Transfer of ownership
74. Section 50(4) ensures seized persons or things are dealt with:
a. By private arbitration
b. According to law
c. By village council
d. By forest contractor
75. Under Section 51(1), contravention of provisions of the Act is punishable with:
a. Only warning
b. Imprisonment up to 1 year only
c. Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or both
d. Only fine without imprisonment
76. Maximum fine under Section 51(1) may extend to:
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹15,000
c. ₹25,000
d. ₹50,000
77. Section 51(1) applies to breach of:
a. Only forest rules
b. Only government orders
c. Provisions of Act, rules, orders, licence or permit conditions
d. Only hunting rules
78. Which provision is excluded from general penalty under Section 51(1)?
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter VA and Section 38J
c. Section 50
d. Section 49C
79. Offence relating to Schedule I animals under Section 51 attracts minimum imprisonment of:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
80. Maximum imprisonment for offences relating to Schedule I animals may extend up to:
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
81. Minimum fine for offences relating to Schedule I animals is:
a. ₹1,000
b. ₹5,000
c. ₹10,000
d. ₹25,000
82. Enhanced punishment under Section 51 applies when offence relates to:
a. Only domestic animals
b. Only forest produce
c. Hunting in sanctuary or National Park or Schedule I animals
d. Only permits
83. For second or subsequent offence under Section 51, minimum imprisonment is:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
84. Under Section 51(1A), contravention of Chapter VA is punishable with:
a. Only fine
b. Imprisonment up to 2 years
c. Imprisonment 3–7 years and fine not less than ₹10,000
d. Only warning
85. Section 51(1B) relates to contravention of:
a. Section 50
b. Section 49C
c. Section 38J
d. Section 41
86. Maximum imprisonment under Section 51(1B) for first offence is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
87. For second or subsequent offence under Section 51(1B), imprisonment may extend up to:
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
88. Under Section 51(2), the Court may order forfeiture of:
a. Only cash
b. Only licence
c. Wildlife articles, animals and tools used in offence
d. Only land property
89. Under Section 51(2), Court may also cancel:
a. Passport
b. Driving licence
c. Licence or permit under the Act
d. Voter ID
90. Under Section 51(3), cancellation of licence or forfeiture is:
a. Instead of punishment
b. In addition to any other punishment
c. Only alternative punishment
d. Not a punishment
91. Under Section 51(3), forfeiture/cancellation is:
a. Exclusive remedy
b. In addition to other punishment for the offence
c. Only for minor offences
d. Only for first offence
92. Section 51(4) empowers the Court to cancel licence under:
a. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
b. Arms Act, 1959
c. Forest Act, 1927
d. IPC
93. The Arms Act referred in Section 51(4) is:
a. 1956
b. 1959
c. 1962
d. 1972
94. Court may cancel Arms licence if offence is committed with:
a. Any vehicle
b. Any weapon unrelated to offence
c. Arm used in committing offence under Wildlife Act
d. Any property
95. After conviction under Section 51(4), person shall not be eligible for Arms licence for:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
96. The period of disqualification from Arms licence is counted from:
a. Date of FIR
b. Date of arrest
c. Date of conviction
d. Date of appeal
97. Power under Section 51(4) is exercised by:
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate/Court trying offence
c. Forest Guard
d. State Government only
98. Section 51(4) mainly deals with:
a. Wildlife trade regulation
b. Arms licence consequences after wildlife offence
c. Hunting permits
d. Forest reservation
99. Disqualification under Section 51(4) applies to:
a. Any government job
b. Arms licence eligibility
c. Voting rights
d. Property ownership
100. Section 51A applies to bail conditions in cases relating to:
a. Only petty forest offences
b. Schedule III animals only
c. Schedule I, Part II of Schedule II, and offences in National Parks/Sanctuaries
d. Only licensing offences
101. Section 51A overrides provisions of:
a. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Indian Penal Code, 1860
102. Under Section 51A, bail restrictions apply when accused has been:
a. Never arrested before
b. Previously convicted under this Act
c. Only fined earlier
d. Only warned earlier
103. Under Section 51A(a), before granting bail, opportunity must be given to:
a. District Magistrate
b. Forest Officer
c. Public Prosecutor
d. Police Commissioner
104. If Public Prosecutor opposes bail, Court must be satisfied that:
a. Accused is poor
b. Accused is influential
c. There are reasonable grounds for believing accused is not guilty
d. FIR is false in all cases
105. Under Section 51A, Court must also be satisfied that accused:
a. Will not leave country
b. Will not influence witnesses only
c. Is not likely to commit any offence while on bail
d. Will pay fine
106. Section 51A applies specifically to offences involving:
a. Domestic animals only
b. Minor forest produce
c. Hunting in National Parks/Sanctuaries and Schedule I/II Part II offences
d. Transport offences
107. The phrase “notwithstanding anything contained in CrPC” in Section 51A means:
a. CrPC applies fully
b. CrPC is ignored completely
c. Section 51A has overriding effect over CrPC
d. Bail is always automatic
108. Section 51A imposes:
a. No restriction on bail
b. Mandatory bail in all cases
c. Additional strict conditions for bail
d. Only procedural guidelines
109. Primary objective of Section 51A is to:
a. Encourage bail in wildlife offences
b. Relax punishment provisions
c. Restrict bail in serious wildlife offences
d. Abolish bail system
110. Section 52 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Bail conditions
b. Attempts and abetment
c. Penalties for hunting
d. Licensing provisions
111. Under Section 52, attempt to contravene the Act is treated as:
a. No offence
b. Minor offence only
c. Actual contravention of the provision
d. Civil wrong only
112. Under Section 52, abetment of contravention is:
a. Not punishable
b. Treated as deemed contravention
c. Punishable only with warning
d. Separate civil liability only
113. Section 52 applies to contravention of:
a. Only rules made under the Act
b. Only orders made under the Act
c. Provisions of Act, rules, or orders made thereunder
d. Only hunting provisions
114. Section 52 creates liability for:
a. Only completed offences
b. Only negligent acts
c. Attempts and abetment also
d. Only strict liability cases
115. Section 53 of the Act deals with:
a. Bail conditions
b. Wrongful seizure
c. Licensing of arms
d. Wildlife sanctuaries
116. Under Section 53, wrongful seizure must be:
a. Accidental and reasonable
b. Vexatious and unnecessary
c. Done with court order
d. Approved by Magistrate
117. Punishment for wrongful seizure under Section 53 includes:
a. Only warning
b. Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine or both
c. Life imprisonment
d. Only suspension
118. Maximum fine under Section 53 may extend to:
a. ₹100
b. ₹500
c. ₹1000
d. ₹5000
119. Section 53 applies to persons exercising powers under:
a. Motor Vehicles Act
b. Wildlife (Protection) Act
c. Forest Rights Act
d. Arms Act
120. Wrongful seizure under Section 53 occurs when seizure is done:
a. For investigation only
b. On proper legal grounds
c. On pretence of Section 50 powers but without justification
d. With magistrate permission
121. Primary intent of Section 53 is to:
a. Encourage seizure powers
b. Protect misuse of seizure powers
c. Increase penalties for wildlife trade
d. Promote hunting control
122. Section 54 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Bail provisions
b. Power to compound offence
c. Wrongful seizure
d. Penalties for hunting
123. Under Section 54(1), power to compound offence is exercised by officers empowered by:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central or State Government by notification
c. District Magistrate only
d. Police Commissioner only
124. The authority empowered under Section 54 may accept:
a. Only apology
b. Only wildlife articles
c. Payment of money by way of composition of offence
d. Only written undertaking
125. Composition of offence under Section 54 is allowed on:
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Final conviction
c. Reasonable suspicion of commission of offence
d. Appeal stage only
126. After payment under Section 54(2), the accused:
a. Is again investigated
b. Must appear in court
c. Is discharged if in custody
d. Is sentenced to fine
127. After compounding under Section 54(2), further proceedings:
a. Must continue
b. May be initiated again
c. Shall not be taken
d. Are transferred to High Court
128. Under Section 54(3), the officer compounding offence may:
a. Grant bail
b. Cancel licence or permit under the Act
c. Reduce punishment
d. Increase fine
129. If the officer is not empowered to cancel licence, he may:
a. Ignore the issue
b. Approach empowered officer for cancellation
c. Send case to police
d. Close the case
130. Maximum amount for composition under Section 54(4) is:
a. ₹5,000
b. ₹10,000
c. ₹25,000
d. ₹50,000
131. Section 54 proviso states that offences with minimum imprisonment under Section 51:
a. Can always be compounded
b. Cannot be compounded
c. Must be reduced to fine only
d. Are optional to compound
132. Purpose of Section 54 is to:
a. Increase imprisonment
b. Allow settlement of minor wildlife offences
c. Abolish prosecution
d. Encourage hunting cases
133. On compounding, the effect is:
a. Full trial continues
b. Automatic conviction
c. Discharge and closure of proceedings
d. Appeal mandatory
134. Section 55 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Bail conditions
b. Cognizance of offences
c. Penalties for hunting
d. Search and seizure
135. Under Section 55, no court shall take cognizance except on complaint of:
a. Any private person directly
b. Only police officers
c. Specified authorities under the Act
d. Any NGO without restriction
136. Under Section 55(a), complaint may be made by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Director of Wild Life Preservation or authorised officer
c. Any forest contractor
d. Village Panchayat
137. Under Section 55(aa), cognizance may be taken on complaint of:
a. Central Zoo Authority Member-Secretary
b. State Police Chief
c. District Judge
d. Wildlife NGOs only
138. Section 55(ab) relates to:
a. National Parks Authority
b. Tiger Conservation Authority Member-Secretary
c. Forest Survey of India
d. Animal Husbandry Department
139. Under Section 55(ac), complaint may be made by:
a. Director of concerned tiger reserve
b. Local MLA
c. Village head
d. Private citizen
140. Under Section 55(b), complaint may be made by:
a. Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised State officer
b. District Collector only
c. Police Inspector only
d. Central Government only
141. Complaints under Section 55(b) are subject to:
a. No conditions
b. Conditions specified by State Government
c. Approval of Supreme Court
d. Public voting
142. Under Section 55(bb), cognizance may be taken on complaint by:
a. Zoo officer-in-charge for violation of Section 38J
b. Forest guard
c. Animal keeper
d. Local citizen
143. Under Section 55(c), a private person can file complaint only after giving notice of:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
144. Notice under Section 55(c) must state:
a. Only name of accused
b. Alleged offence and intention to make complaint
c. Only date of incident
d. Only location of forest
145. Section 55 primarily restricts cognizance to:
a. Any court directly
b. Only specified authorities or notified complainants
c. Only civil courts
d. Only High Court
146. Section 58B of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 primarily provides:
a. Punishment provisions
b. Definitions applicable to the Chapter
c. Bail provisions
d. Hunting regulations
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