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The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-4
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1. Before removal under Section 38B, the person must be given:
a. No hearing
b. Reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. Immediate suspension
d. Police notice only
2. Section 38B applies to:
a. Only Member-Secretary
b. Chairperson and members (not Member-Secretary)
c. Only State Board members
d. Only forest officers
3. Section 38B(4) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 provides that a vacancy shall be filled by:
a. Promotion only
b. Fresh appointment
c. Election by members
d. Court order
4. The salaries and allowances of Chairperson, members and Member-Secretary are:
a. Fixed by Parliament
b. Determined by Supreme Court
c. Such as may be prescribed
d. Decided by State Government
5. The Authority may employ officers and employees:
a. Without any sanction
b. With prior approval of High Court
c. With previous sanction of Central Government
d. Only by election
6. The power to employ officers is exercised by the Authority for:
a. Personal purposes
b. Carrying out purposes of the Authority
c. Revenue collection only
d. Criminal investigation
7. Terms and conditions of service of officers and employees of the Authority are:
a. Fixed by Constitution
b. As may be prescribed
c. Decided by Supreme Court
d. Determined by District Magistrate
8. Under Section 38B(8), no act or proceeding of the Authority shall be invalid merely due to:
a. Lack of quorum only
b. Vacancy or defect in constitution
c. Delay in decision
d. Change of government policy
9. The validity of Authority proceedings cannot be challenged on ground of:
a. Political interference
b. Existence of vacancies
c. Media criticism
d. Public protest
10. Section 38B(6) requires prior sanction of:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. National Board
11. The Authority can employ officers and employees as it:
a. Wishes without restriction
b. Deems necessary
c. Parliament directs
d. Courts approve
12. Section 38B mainly deals with:
a. Service conditions and functioning of Central Zoo Authority
b. Hunting regulations
c. Sanctuary declaration
d. Trade in wildlife
13. Section 38C of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Functions of the Central Zoo Authority
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Hunting permits
d. Registration of arms
14. The Authority under Section 38C specifies minimum standards for:
a. Forest revenue collection
b. Housing, upkeep and veterinary care of zoo animals
c. Industrial safety
d. Tourism management
15. Evaluation and assessment of zoos is done with respect to:
a. Political guidelines
b. Standards or norms as may be prescribed
c. Local Panchayat rules
d. Court directions only
16. The Authority has the power to:
a. Recognise or derecognise zoos
b. Close National Parks
c. Issue arms licences
d. Conduct elections
17. Under Section 38C, endangered species may be identified for:
a. Trade purposes
b. Captive breeding
c. Hunting purposes
d. Industrial use
18. The Authority coordinates:
a. Acquisition, exchange and loaning of animals for breeding
b. Tax collection in zoos
c. Land acquisition proceedings
d. Criminal prosecution
19. Stud-books maintained under Section 38C relate to:
a. Zoo staff records
b. Endangered species bred in captivity
c. Forest revenue accounts
d. Tourist records
20. The Authority identifies priorities for:
a. Military use of forests
b. Display of captive animals in zoos
c. Mining operations
d. Urban planning
21. Training of zoo personnel is coordinated:
a. Only within India
b. Only outside India
c. In India and outside India
d. Only by private agencies
22. Technical and other assistance is provided by the Authority for:
a. Political campaigns
b. Proper management and scientific development of zoos
c. Industrial expansion
d. Arms regulation
23. Section 38C empowers the Authority to perform:
a. Only enumerated functions, no flexibility
b. Any function necessary for purposes of Act regarding zoos
c. Only functions ordered by courts
d. Only advisory functions
24. Section 38D of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Procedure of the Central Zoo Authority
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Hunting regulations
d. Trade in wildlife
25. The Authority shall meet:
a. Once in five years
b. As and when necessary
c. Only annually
d. Only on court direction
26. The Authority meets at such time and place as decided by:
a. Central Government
b. Chairperson
c. Member-Secretary
d. Parliament
27. The Authority regulates its:
a. Financial audit
b. Own procedure
c. Criminal procedure
d. Election process
28. Orders and decisions of the Authority are authenticated by:
a. Chairperson only
b. Member-Secretary or authorised officer
c. Supreme Court
d. State Government
29. Section 38E provides that Central Government may make grants and loans:
a. Without appropriation
b. After appropriation made by Parliament
c. Only by court order
d. Without any restriction
30. The fund constituted under Section 38E is called:
a. Wildlife Protection Fund
b. Central Zoo Authority Fund
c. Forest Development Fund
d. National Conservation Fund
31. The Central Zoo Authority Fund includes:
a. Only government grants
b. Grants, loans, fees and charges received by Authority
c. Only fines
d. Only donations from NGOs
32. The Fund may be applied for:
a. Personal use of officers
b. Salaries and expenses of Authority
c. Political campaigns
d. Industrial subsidies
33. The expenses from the Fund are for:
a. Functions under Chapter dealing with zoos
b. Only tourism projects
c. Only forest auctions
d. Private business support
34. Section 38E(4) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 requires the Authority to:
a. Maintain proper accounts and prepare annual statement of accounts
b. Conduct criminal trials
c. Issue hunting permits
d. Declare sanctuaries
35. The form of annual statement of accounts of the Authority is prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government in consultation with CAG
c. Supreme Court
d. National Board
36. The accounts of the Authority shall be audited by:
a. State Auditor
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. Finance Ministry only
d. Central Zoo Authority itself
37. The audit of the Authority’s accounts shall be conducted at:
a. Fixed 10-year intervals
b. Such intervals as specified by CAG
c. Monthly basis
d. Only once in lifetime
38. Expenditure incurred in audit of accounts shall be paid by:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Authority itself
d. Parliament
39. The CAG or his nominee has the same rights in audit as:
a. District Collector
b. Supreme Court Judge
c. CAG has in Government accounts audit
d. Police Commissioner
40. CAG’s audit powers include:
a. Demand production of books and accounts
b. Inspection of Authority offices
c. Access to vouchers and documents
d. All of the above
41. The audited accounts and report of the Authority are forwarded annually to:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. National Board
42. The accounts of the Authority are certified by:
a. Chief Minister
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General or authorised person
c. District Judge
d. Chairperson only
43. Section 38E ensures:
a. Financial autonomy without accountability
b. Proper audit and financial accountability of Authority
c. No auditing requirement
d. Only internal audit
44. Section 38F of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Annual report of the Authority
b. Hunting regulations
c. Sanctuary declaration
d. Arms registration
45. The annual report of the Authority is prepared:
a. Every five years
b. For each financial year
c. Every two years
d. Only on demand
46. The annual report must give:
a. Criminal records of staff
b. Full account of activities during previous financial year
c. Political decisions
d. Forest revenue only
47. The annual report is forwarded to:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. District Collector
48. Section 38G requires the Central Government to lay before Parliament:
a. Only audit report
b. Annual report and audit report
c. Only annual report
d. Only budget statement
49. Along with the reports, Parliament is also informed about:
a. Tourist statistics
b. Action taken on recommendations
c. Election results
d. Police reports
50. If recommendations are not accepted, reasons must be:
a. Hidden
b. Recorded and presented before Parliament
c. Given only to Supreme Court
d. Not disclosed
51. The reports are laid before:
a. State Legislature only
b. Each House of Parliament
c. District Courts
d. Gram Sabha
52. Annual report form and timing are:
a. Fixed by Supreme Court
b. Prescribed by rules
c. Decided by Chairperson only
d. Optional
53. Section 38G ensures:
a. Transparency and accountability to Parliament
b. Secret functioning of Authority
c. No reporting requirement
d. Only internal communication
54. Section 38H of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Recognition of zoos
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Arms registration
d. Hunting of animals
55. No zoo shall be operated without:
a. Police permission
b. Being recognised by the Authority
c. Court order
d. District approval
56. A zoo operating before the commencement of the 1991 Amendment may continue without recognition for:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Eighteen months
d. Two years
57. If application for recognition is made within the allowed period, the zoo may continue until:
a. Application is finally decided or withdrawn
b. Parliament decides
c. Police intervenes
d. State election
58. After refusal of recognition, zoo may continue for further:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
59. After 2002 Amendment, a zoo cannot be established without:
a. Public vote
b. Prior approval of Authority
c. Court permission
d. State Assembly approval
60. Application for recognition of zoo is made to:
a. Central Government
b. Authority in prescribed form and fee
c. Supreme Court
d. State Police
61. Recognition of a zoo specifies:
a. Political conditions
b. Conditions for operating zoo
c. Tax rules
d. Land acquisition rules
62. Recognition of zoo is granted only when Authority is satisfied regarding:
a. Commercial profit
b. Protection and conservation of wildlife and prescribed standards
c. Tourism revenue
d. Urban planning
63. Before rejecting an application for recognition, Authority must:
a. Conduct referendum
b. Give reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. Consult police only
d. No hearing required
64. Suspension or cancellation of recognition requires:
a. No reason
b. Reasons recorded and opportunity of hearing
c. Immediate action without hearing
d. Only police approval
65. Section 38H ensures regulation of:
a. Wildlife trade
b. Establishment and functioning of zoos
c. Forest revenue
d. Arms control
66. An appeal against refusal to recognise a zoo under Section 38H lies to:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. National Board
67. An appeal against suspension or cancellation of zoo recognition lies to:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. District Court
d. Parliament
68. Time limit for filing appeal under Section 38H(8) is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
69. Delay in filing appeal under Section 38H(8) may be condoned if:
a. Applicant requests orally
b. Central Government is satisfied of sufficient cause
c. Police approves
d. Zoo authority approves
70. Section 38I(1) provides that no zoo shall acquire or transfer wild animals of Schedules I and II without:
a. Court permission
b. Previous permission of Authority
c. State Government approval
d. Police approval
71. Under Section 38I(2), acquisition or transfer of animals is allowed only between:
a. Private individuals
b. Recognised zoos
c. Forest officers
d. Panchayats
72. Section 38I applies to:
a. Only wild animals of Schedule III
b. Wild and captive animals of Schedules I and II
c. Only domestic animals
d. Only birds
73. Section 38J prohibits:
a. Hunting in forests
b. Teasing or molesting animals in zoo
c. Trade in plants
d. Arms possession
74. Under Section 38J, feeding animals in a zoo by unauthorised persons is:
a. Allowed freely
b. Prohibited
c. Mandatory
d. Encouraged
75. Section 38J also prohibits:
a. Noise disturbance to animals in zoo
b. Construction of zoo buildings
c. Animal breeding
d. Scientific research
76. Littering the grounds of a zoo is:
a. Permitted
b. Prohibited
c. Optional
d. Encouraged
77. Sections 38H to 38J primarily regulate:
a. Zoos, their recognition, animal acquisition and public conduct
b. Forest taxation
c. Arms licensing
d. Sanctuary boundaries
78. Section 38K of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Definitions under the Tiger conservation chapter
b. Declaration of sanctuaries
c. Zoo regulation
d. Arms licensing
79. “National Tiger Conservation Authority” is constituted under:
a. Section 38K
b. Section 38L
c. Section 38V
d. Section 38X
80. “Steering Committee” under this Chapter is constituted under:
a. Section 38U
b. Section 38V
c. Section 38L
d. Section 38X
81. “Tiger Conservation Foundation” is established under:
a. Section 38U
b. Section 38V
c. Section 38X
d. Section 38K
82. “Tiger reserve State” means:
a. A State having no forests
b. A State having tiger reserve
c. A Union Territory only
d. A State without wildlife
83. “Tiger reserve” means areas notified under:
a. Section 35
b. Section 38V
c. Section 18
d. Section 38L
84. Section 38K primarily provides:
a. Penalties for hunting
b. Definitions related to tiger conservation chapter
c. Procedure for zoo recognition
d. Arms regulation near sanctuaries
85. Which of the following is NOT defined under Section 38K?
a. Tiger reserve
b. Steering Committee
c. National Zoo Authority
d. Tiger Conservation Foundation
86. The National Tiger Conservation Authority relates to:
a. Zoo management
b. Tiger conservation framework
c. Arms control
d. Plant protection
87. Section 38K forms part of which broader scheme of the Act?
a. Zoo regulation chapter
b. Tiger conservation administration framework
c. Sanctuary acquisition process
d. Hunting offences chapter
88. Section 38M of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Term of office and conditions of service of members of Tiger Conservation Authority
b. Declaration of tiger reserves
c. Recognition of zoos
d. Prohibition of hunting
89. A nominated member under Section 38L(2)(d) holds office for a period not exceeding:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
90. A member of the Tiger Conservation Authority may resign by:
a. Oral request to Chairperson
b. Writing under hand addressed to Central Government
c. Filing affidavit in court
d. Recommendation of State Government
91. A member may be removed if he is adjudicated as:
a. Minor
b. Insolvent
c. Witness
d. Trustee
92. Conviction involving which element may lead to removal of a member?
a. Economic loss
b. Moral turpitude
c. Simple negligence
d. Civil dispute
93. A member may be removed if he is declared:
a. Politically inactive
b. Of unsound mind by competent court
c. Socially inactive
d. Financially weak
94. Absence without leave from how many consecutive meetings can lead to removal?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
95. A member can be removed if he refuses to act or:
a. Becomes famous
b. Becomes incapable of acting
c. Gets transferred
d. Becomes retired
96. Removal on ground of abuse of position requires:
a. Police approval
b. Opinion of Central Government
c. Supreme Court order
d. State approval
97. Before removal under Section 38M, a member must be given:
a. No hearing
b. Reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. Only written notice without hearing
d. Parliamentary approval
98. Vacancy in office of member is filled by:
a. Election
b. Fresh appointment
c. Seniority promotion
d. Lottery system
99. A new member appointed in vacancy holds office for:
a. Fresh full term
b. Remainder of term of previous member
c. Indefinite period
d. One year only
100. Salaries and allowances of members are determined by:
a. Parliament directly
b. Supreme Court
c. As may be prescribed
d. State Government only
101. No act or proceeding of the Authority shall be invalid merely due to:
a. Change of Chairperson
b. Vacancy or defect in constitution
c. Lack of funds
d. Public protest
102. Which of the following is a member of the National Tiger Conservation Authority under Section 38L?
a. Secretary, Ministry of Panchayati Raj
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Attorney General of India
d. Governor of Reserve Bank of India
103. The Chairperson of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a member of:
a. Central Zoo Authority
b. National Tiger Conservation Authority
c. National Board for Wildlife only
d. State Wildlife Board only
104. The Chairperson of National Commission for Scheduled Castes is included in:
a. Tiger Conservation Authority
b. State Board for Wildlife
c. Zoo Advisory Committee
d. Steering Committee only
105. Which Ministry’s Secretary is included as a member under Section 38L?
a. Ministry of Defence
b. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c. Ministry of Railways
d. Ministry of Commerce
106. The Member-Secretary of the Tiger Conservation Authority is:
a. Chief Wildlife Warden
b. Inspector-General of Forests or equivalent rank officer
c. District Collector
d. Director of Zoo Authority
107. The Member-Secretary must have experience of at least:
a. 5 years in judiciary
b. 10 years in tiger reserve or wildlife management
c. 2 years in administration
d. 15 years in forest law
108. The Member-Secretary of the Authority is:
a. Appointed by Supreme Court
b. Notified by Central Government in Official Gazette
c. Appointed by State Government
d. Elected by Parliament
109. Which of the following is NOT a member under Section 38L?
a. Secretary, Ministry of Tribal Affairs
b. Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
110. Section 38L(3) provides that membership in Tiger Conservation Authority:
a. Disqualifies from Parliament
b. Does not disqualify from being chosen as Member of Parliament
c. Disqualifies from Rajya Sabha only
d. Restricts voting rights
111. The Tiger Conservation Authority includes representation from:
a. Only judiciary
b. Only forest officers
c. Multiple ministries and constitutional bodies
d. Only NGOs
112. The Inspector-General of Forests included in the Authority acts as:
a. Chairperson
b. Member-Secretary
c. Vice-Chairperson
d. Auditor
113. The composition under Section 38L reflects:
a. Judicial control only
b. Multi-sectoral governance for tiger conservation
c. Private sector dominance
d. Police administration structure
114. Section 38M of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Term of office and conditions of service of members of Tiger Conservation Authority
b. Declaration of tiger reserves
c. Recognition of zoos
d. Prohibition of hunting
115. A nominated member under Section 38L(2)(d) holds office for a period not exceeding:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
116. A member of the Tiger Conservation Authority may resign by:
a. Oral request to Chairperson
b. Writing under hand addressed to Central Government
c. Filing affidavit in court
d. Recommendation of State Government
117. A member may be removed if he is adjudicated as:
a. Minor
b. Insolvent
c. Witness
d. Trustee
118. Conviction involving which element may lead to removal of a member?
a. Economic loss
b. Moral turpitude
c. Simple negligence
d. Civil dispute
119. A member may be removed if he is declared:
a. Politically inactive
b. Of unsound mind by competent court
c. Socially inactive
d. Financially weak
120. Absence without leave from how many consecutive meetings can lead to removal?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
121. A member can be removed if he refuses to act or:
a. Becomes famous
b. Becomes incapable of acting
c. Gets transferred
d. Becomes retired
122. Removal on ground of abuse of position requires:
a. Police approval
b. Opinion of Central Government
c. Supreme Court order
d. State approval
123. Before removal under Section 38M, a member must be given:
a. No hearing
b. Reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. Only written notice without hearing
d. Parliamentary approval
124. Vacancy in office of member is filled by:
a. Election
b. Fresh appointment
c. Seniority promotion
d. Lottery system
125. A new member appointed in vacancy holds office for:
a. Fresh full term
b. Remainder of term of previous member
c. Indefinite period
d. One year only
126. Salaries and allowances of members are determined by:
a. Parliament directly
b. Supreme Court
c. As may be prescribed
d. State Government only
127. No act or proceeding of the Authority shall be invalid merely due to:
a. Change of Chairperson
b. Vacancy or defect in constitution
c. Lack of funds
d. Public protest
128. Section 38N of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Constitution of National Board
b. Officers and employees of Tiger Conservation Authority
c. Declaration of sanctuaries
d. Prohibition of hunting
129. The Tiger Conservation Authority may appoint officers and employees:
a. Without approval
b. With previous sanction of Central Government
c. With approval of State Government
d. With approval of Supreme Court
130. Officers and employees appointed under Section 38N are required for:
a. Revenue collection
b. Efficient discharge of functions of Authority
c. Criminal investigation
d. Tax administration
131. Employees of Project Tiger before constitution of Authority shall:
a. Be removed immediately
b. Continue in the Authority on same terms
c. Be transferred to police
d. Be terminated after one month
132. Employees of Project Tiger continue under Authority until:
a. One year
b. Three years
c. Six months if they opt not to join
d. Ten years
133. Continuation of Project Tiger employees is subject to:
a. New recruitment test
b. Same tenure and service conditions
c. Court approval
d. State election
134. Officers and employees of the Authority are appointed:
a. By State Governor
b. As may be prescribed
c. By District Collector
d. By Supreme Court
135. Section 38N ensures:
a. Judicial control over forests
b. Administrative staffing of Tiger Conservation Authority
c. Police control over sanctuaries
d. Private ownership of reserves
136. Employees opting not to join the Authority may continue only up to:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
137. Previous sanction for appointment under Section 38N is given by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. National Board
d. Parliament
138. Section 38O of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Recognition of zoos
b. Powers and functions of Tiger Conservation Authority
c. Declaration of sanctuaries
d. Arms regulation
139. The Tiger Conservation Authority approves:
a. Sanctuary boundaries
b. Tiger Conservation Plan under Section 38V(5)
c. Arms licences
d. Zoo budgets
140. The Authority may disallow ecologically unsustainable land use such as:
a. Agriculture and irrigation only
b. Mining, industry and other projects within tiger reserves
c. Tourism only
d. Forest fire control
141. The Authority lays down normative standards for:
a. Police stations
b. Tourism activities in tiger reserves
c. Court procedures
d. Land registration
142. Tourism guidelines by the Authority apply to:
a. Only urban areas
b. Buffer and core areas of tiger reserves
c. Private lands only
d. Industrial zones
143. The Authority is responsible for addressing:
a. Tax disputes
b. Human-wild animal conflict
c. Election disputes
d. Contract disputes
144. The working plan code includes emphasis on:
a. Industrial expansion
b. Co-existence in forest areas outside protected areas
c. Urban development
d. Mining approval
145. The Authority provides information regarding:
a. Banking system
b. Tiger population and conservation measures
c. Criminal records
d. Land revenue only
146. Which of the following is included in information to be provided by Authority?
a. Stock market reports
b. Disease surveillance and mortality survey
c. Road construction plans
d. Election data
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