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The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-1
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1. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 was enacted to provide protection for:
a. Domestic animals only
b. Wild animals, birds and plants
c. Agricultural produce only
d. Marine trade only
2. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 is:
a. Act No. 25 of 1972
b. Act No. 53 of 1972
c. Act No. 47 of 1972
d. Act No. 63 of 1972
3. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 came into force on:
a. 15th August, 1972
b. 26th January, 1972
c. 9th September, 1972
d. 2nd October, 1972
4. The primary object of the Act is to ensure:
a. Industrial growth
b. Agricultural security
c. Ecological and environmental security
d. Trade security
5. The Act provides for protection of:
a. Only wild animals
b. Only birds
c. Only plants
d. Wild animals, birds and plants
6. Matters connected with protection under the Act include:
a. Only taxation matters
b. Ancillary or incidental matters
c. Election matters
d. Service matters
7. The long title of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 indicates that the Act is connected with:
a. Environmental protection
b. Commercial taxation
c. Industrial licensing
d. Banking regulation
8. The purpose of the Act is best described as:
a. Encouraging wildlife trade
b. Conserving ecological balance
c. Promoting hunting activities
d. Regulating municipal areas
9. Which of the following is specifically mentioned in the Act’s objective?
a. Ecological security
b. Electoral security
c. Financial security
d. Military security
10. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 mainly deals with:
a. Protection and conservation of wildlife
b. Regulation of factories
c. Protection of monuments
d. Regulation of contracts
11. Section 1 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Hunting of animals
c. Short title, extent and commencement
d. Penalties
12. The short title of the Act is:
a. Wildlife Conservation Act, 1972
b. Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
c. Forest Protection Act, 1972
d. Animal Protection Act, 1972
13. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 extends to:
a. Whole of India
b. Only Union Territories
c. Only forest areas
d. Whole of India without exception
14. The commencement of the Act is made by:
a. State Legislature notification
b. High Court order
c. Central Government notification
d. Parliament resolution
15. The Central Government may appoint:
a. Same commencement date only for all provisions
b. Different dates for different provisions
c. No commencement date
d. Dates only for States
16. Different dates under Section 1(3) may be appointed for:
a. Different provisions of the Act
b. Different States or Union territories
c. Both A and B
d. Courts only
17. The Act comes into force:
a. Automatically on enactment
b. On publication in newspaper
c. On dates appointed by notification
d. After approval of State Government only
18. Under Section 1(3), the notification regarding commencement is issued by:
a. Governor
b. President
c. Central Government
d. Chief Wildlife Warden
19. Section 1(2) specifically refers to the:
a. Penalty clause
b. Extent of the Act
c. Definition clause
d. Power of arrest
20. Different commencement dates may be appointed for:
a. Different courts only
b. Different wildlife sanctuaries only
c. Different States or Union territories
d. Different judges only
21. Section 2 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Penalties
b. Definitions
c. Hunting
d. Sanctuaries
22. Under Section 2(1), “animal” includes:
a. Amphibians, birds, mammals and reptiles
b. Only mammals
c. Only reptiles
d. Domestic cattle only
23. In the case of birds and reptiles, “animal” also includes:
a. Feathers only
b. Skin only
c. Eggs
d. Nests only
24. “Animal article” means an article made from:
a. Domestic animals only
b. Any captive animal or wild animal other than vermin
c. Plants only
d. Minerals only
25. “Animal article” includes:
a. Wooden objects only
b. Articles made from imported ivory
c. Agricultural tools only
d. Leather from domestic cattle only
26. Under Section 2(4), “Board” means:
a. National Green Tribunal
b. State Pollution Control Board
c. State Board for Wild Life
d. Forest Settlement Board
27. A “captive animal” means an animal specified in:
a. Schedule I to IV
b. Schedule V only
c. Schedule VI only
d. No Schedule
28. A captive animal is one which is:
a. Wild and free only
b. Captured or kept or bred in captivity
c. Used only for transport
d. Kept only in forests
29. “Chief Wild Life Warden” means:
a. Any forest guard
b. Person appointed under section 4
c. District Magistrate
d. Collector only
30. Under Section 2(7A), “circus” means an establishment where animals are kept or used mainly for:
a. Farming
b. Racing
c. Performing tricks or manoeuvres
d. Scientific research only
31. Under Section 2(10), “commencement of this Act” in relation to a State means:
a. Passing of the Act by Parliament
b. Commencement of the Act in that State
c. Gazette publication only
d. Enforcement by courts only
32. Under Section 2(10)(b), commencement in relation to any provision means:
a. Repeal of that provision
b. Amendment of that provision
c. Commencement of that provision in the concerned State
d. Judicial interpretation of that provision
33. A “dealer” under Section 2(11) means a person carrying on business of:
a. Buying or selling captive animals or animal articles
b. Selling agricultural goods only
c. Transporting passengers only
d. Mining operations only
34. The definition of “dealer” includes:
a. Only licensed shopkeepers
b. A person undertaking business in any single transaction
c. Government servants only
d. Export officers only
35. “Director” means the person appointed as:
a. Director of Forests
b. Director of National Parks
c. Director of Wild Life Preservation
d. Director of Environment
36. “Forest officer” means an officer appointed under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Indian Forest Act, 1927
d. Environment Protection Act only
37. “Forest produce” shall have the same meaning as given under:
a. Wildlife Protection Act only
b. Indian Forest Act, 1927
c. Motor Vehicles Act
d. Evidence Act
38. “Habitat” includes:
a. Only water bodies
b. Only vegetation
c. Land, water or vegetation which is natural home of wild animal
d. Zoos only
39. “Hunting” includes:
a. Only killing of wild animals
b. Killing or poisoning and every attempt to do so
c. Farming activities only
d. Grazing cattle only
40. Under Section 2(16), hunting also includes:
a. Disturbing eggs or nests of wild birds or reptiles
b. Watering plants
c. Cultivation of crops
d. Construction of roads
41. Under Section 2(17), “land” includes:
a. Only agricultural land
b. Canals, rivers, streams and lakes
c. Buildings only
d. Roads only
42. “Land” under the Act also includes:
a. Marshes and wetlands
b. Factories only
c. Railway tracks only
d. Markets only
43. Under Section 2(17), land includes lakes whether:
a. Public only
b. Natural only
c. Artificial or natural
d. Seasonal only
44. “Licence” means:
a. A court order
b. A licence granted under the Act
c. A forest map
d. A police certificate
45. “Livestock” includes:
a. Buffaloes, cows and goats
b. Only poultry
c. Wild animals in Schedule I
d. Tigers and elephants
46. “Livestock” does not include:
a. Ducks and geese
b. Farm animals
c. Animals specified in Schedules I to V
d. Sheep and horses
47. “Manufacturer” means a person who manufactures articles from:
a. Minerals only
b. Animals or plants specified in Schedules I to V and VI
c. Domestic crops only
d. Timber only
48. “Meat” includes:
a. Only flesh of animals
b. Blood, bones, eggs and flesh of wild or captive animals
c. Only cooked food
d. Plant products only
49. “National Board” means:
a. National Green Tribunal
b. National Board for Wild Life
c. Central Pollution Board
d. Forest Research Board
50. “Notification” under the Act means:
a. An oral direction
b. A court decree
c. A notification published in the Official Gazette
d. A newspaper report
51. Under Section 2(24), “person” includes:
a. Government only
b. Company only
c. A firm
d. Court only
52. “Protected area” under the Act includes:
a. National Park and Sanctuary only
b. Conservation reserve and community reserve only
c. National Park, sanctuary, conservation reserve and community reserve
d. Zoo only
53. “Protected area” is notified under sections:
a. 18, 35, 36A and 36C
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 50 and 51 only
d. 10 and 12 only
54. “Prescribed” means:
a. Directed by court
b. Prescribed by rules made under the Act
c. Approved by police
d. Declared by municipality
55. “Recognised zoo” means:
a. Any private zoo
b. A zoo recognised under section 38H
c. Circus only
d. Forest area only
56. “Reserve forest” means forest declared reserved under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Indian Forest Act, 1927
c. Environment Protection Act only
d. Motor Vehicles Act
57. “Sanctuary” means an area declared as sanctuary under:
a. Chapter IV of the Act
b. Chapter I only
c. Constitution of India
d. CrPC
58. “Specified plant” means:
a. Any agricultural crop
b. Any medicinal herb
c. Any plant specified in Schedule VI
d. Timber trees only
59. In relation to a Union territory, “State Government” means:
a. Chief Minister
b. Governor
c. Administrator appointed under Article 239
d. District Magistrate
60. “Taxidermy” means:
a. Hunting wild animals
b. Curing, preparation or preservation or mounting of trophies
c. Breeding animals
d. Export of wildlife products
61. “Uncured trophy” means:
a. Trophy preserved through taxidermy
b. Trophy which has not undergone taxidermy
c. Agricultural produce
d. Forest land
62. “Uncured trophy” includes:
a. Freshly killed wild animal
b. Ambergris and musk
c. Other animal products
d. All of the above
63. Under Section 2(33), “vehicle” means:
a. Only motor vehicles
b. Conveyance used on land only
c. Conveyance used on land, water or air
d. Railway engines only
64. Which of the following is included within “vehicle” under the Act?
a. Elephant
b. Camel
c. Mule
d. All of the above
65. “Vermin” means:
a. Domestic animals
b. Wild animals specified in Schedule V
c. Animals in Schedule I
d. Captive birds only
66. “Weapon” includes:
a. Firearms and explosives
b. Nets and traps
c. Poison and snares
d. All of the above
67. A weapon under the Act also includes any instrument capable of:
a. Anaesthetizing animals
b. Decoying animals
c. Injuring or killing animals
d. All of the above
68. “Wild animal” means:
a. Any domestic animal
b. Animals specified in Schedules I to IV and found wild in nature
c. Only zoo animals
d. Farm animals only
69. “Wild life” includes:
a. Only animals
b. Only vegetation
c. Any animal, aquatic or land vegetation forming part of habitat
d. Only forests
70. Under Section 2, aquatic vegetation forms part of:
a. Agricultural land only
b. Habitat and wild life
c. Taxidermy only
d. Reserve forest only
71. “Wild Life Warden” means:
a. Any forest officer
b. Person appointed under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 4
c. District Magistrate
d. Zoo Director
72. Under the Act, a Wild Life Warden is appointed under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4(1)(b)
d. Section 10
73. “Zoo” means an establishment where:
a. Domestic animals are sold
b. Captive animals are kept for exhibition to the public
c. Crops are cultivated
d. Timber is stored
74. A zoo under the Act may be:
a. Only stationary
b. Only mobile
c. Either stationary or mobile
d. Temporary only
75. “Zoo” includes:
a. Circus
b. Rescue centres
c. Both A and B
d. Licensed dealer establishments only
76. Which of the following is specifically included within the definition of “zoo”?
a. Circus
b. Court premises
c. Reserve forest
d. Farm house
77. Rescue centres are included within the definition of:
a. Sanctuary
b. National Park
c. Zoo
d. Habitat
78. An establishment of a licensed dealer in captive animals is:
a. Included in zoo
b. Excluded from zoo
c. Treated as sanctuary
d. Treated as national park
79. Captive animals in a zoo are mainly kept for:
a. Agricultural purposes
b. Public exhibition
c. Military training
d. Transport
80. The definition of “zoo” under Section 2(39) excludes:
a. Circus
b. Rescue centres
c. Licensed dealer’s establishment
d. Mobile establishments
81. Under Section 3(1), the Central Government may appoint:
a. Director of Wild Life Preservation
b. Other officers and employees
c. Both A and B
d. Judges only
82. The Director appointed under Section 3 is called:
a. Director of Forests
b. Director of Wild Life Preservation
c. Director of Environment
d. Director of National Parks
83. The Director performs duties under:
a. Directions of the High Court
b. Directions of the State Government
c. Directions of the Central Government
d. Directions of local authority
84. Under Section 3(2), the Central Government may issue:
a. Judicial orders only
b. General or special directions
c. Municipal notifications only
d. Police warrants only
85. Officers and employees appointed under Section 3 are required to:
a. Assist the Director
b. Assist the Governor
c. Assist the Collector
d. Assist private dealers
86. Under Section 4(1), the State Government may appoint:
a. Chief Wild Life Warden
b. Wild Life Wardens
c. Honorary Wild Life Wardens
d. All of the above
87. The Chief Wild Life Warden is appointed by:
a. Central Government
b. Supreme Court
c. State Government
d. National Board
88. Under Section 4(2), the Chief Wild Life Warden is subject to:
a. Directions of Parliament only
b. General or special directions of the State Government
c. Directions of Collector only
d. Directions of National Board only
89. The Wild Life Warden and Honorary Wild Life Warden are subordinate to:
a. Director of Wild Life Preservation
b. Collector
c. Chief Wild Life Warden
d. National Board
90. Honorary Wild Life Wardens are appointed under:
a. Section 4(1)(bb)
b. Section 3(1)(a)
c. Section 5A
d. Section 18
91. Section 5A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting
b. Sanctuaries
c. Constitution of the National Board for Wild Life
d. Penalties
92. The National Board for Wild Life is constituted by:
a. State Government
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. National Green Tribunal
93. The Chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life is:
a. President of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Minister of Environment
d. Chief Justice of India
94. The Vice-Chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life is:
a. Minister in-charge of Forests and Wild Life
b. Director of Wild Life Preservation
c. Chief of Army Staff
d. Cabinet Secretary
95. Under Section 5A(1)(c), the National Board includes:
a. One Member of Parliament
b. Two Members of Parliament
c. Three Members of Parliament
d. Five Members of Parliament
96. Out of the three Members of Parliament on the Board:
a. All are from Rajya Sabha
b. Two are from House of the People and one from Council of States
c. All are from Lok Sabha
d. One from Lok Sabha and two from Rajya Sabha only
97. The Director of Wild Life Preservation acts as:
a. Chairperson
b. Vice-Chairperson
c. Member-Secretary of the National Board
d. Treasurer
98. The National Board includes representatives from:
a. Non-governmental organizations
b. Conservationists and environmentalists
c. Both A and B
d. Judiciary only
99. Members other than ex officio members are entitled to:
a. Salary only
b. Pension only
c. Allowances for expenses incurred in duties
d. No benefits
100. Under Section 5A(4), office of a member of the National Board shall:
a. Be deemed an office of profit
b. Not be deemed an office of profit
c. Be a judicial office
d. Require resignation from Parliament
101. Section 5B of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Appointment of Director
b. Constitution of State Board
c. Standing Committee of the National Board
d. Hunting of animals
102. The Standing Committee is constituted by:
a. State Government
b. National Board
c. Supreme Court
d. Chief Wild Life Warden
103. The Standing Committee is constituted for:
a. Declaring sanctuaries only
b. Exercising powers and performing duties delegated by the National Board
c. Conducting criminal trials
d. Levying taxes
104. The Standing Committee shall consist of:
a. Chairperson only
b. Vice-Chairperson and Member-Secretary only
c. Vice-Chairperson, Member-Secretary and nominated members
d. Judges and police officers only
105. The maximum number of nominated members in the Standing Committee is:
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Ten
d. Fifteen
106. Members of the Standing Committee are nominated by:
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Vice-Chairperson
d. Chief Justice of India
107. The nominated members of the Standing Committee are chosen from amongst:
a. Members of Parliament only
b. Members of the National Board
c. State Governments only
d. Judges only
108. Under Section 5B(3), the National Board may constitute:
a. Committees
b. Sub-committees
c. Study groups
d. All of the above
109. Committees or study groups are constituted for:
a. Political purposes
b. Proper discharge of functions assigned to the National Board
c. Revenue collection only
d. Judicial review only
110. The Standing Committee exercises powers:
a. Directly under the Constitution
b. Delegated to it by the National Board
c. Given by the High Court
d. Given by local authorities
111. Section 5C of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Appointment of officers
b. Functions of the National Board
c. Hunting licences
d. Penalties
112. The duty of the National Board is to promote:
a. Industrial development
b. Urban expansion
c. Conservation and development of wild life and forests
d. Mining activities
113. The National Board promotes conservation by:
a. Measures it thinks fit
b. Court directions only
c. Orders of local authorities only
d. Municipal regulations only
114. Under Section 5C(2)(a), the National Board may frame policies regarding:
a. Wildlife conservation
b. Control of poaching
c. Illegal trade of wildlife and its products
d. All of the above
115. The National Board advises:
a. Central Government only
b. State Governments only
c. Both Central and State Governments
d. Courts only
116. The National Board may make recommendations regarding:
a. National parks and sanctuaries
b. Other protected areas
c. Restriction of activities in protected areas
d. All of the above
117. Under Section 5C(2)(c), the National Board may carry out:
a. Revenue surveys only
b. Impact assessment of projects on wildlife or habitat
c. Criminal investigation only
d. Election surveys only
118. The National Board reviews from time to time:
a. Industrial growth
b. Wildlife conservation progress in the country
c. Taxation policies
d. Population census only
119. The National Board may suggest:
a. Measures for improvement in wildlife conservation
b. Amendments to Constitution only
c. Criminal punishments only
d. Military reforms only
120. The National Board shall prepare and publish a status report on wildlife at least:
a. Every year
b. Once in two years
c. Once in five years
d. Once in ten years
121. Section 6 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting
b. Constitution of State Board for Wild Life
c. National Parks
d. Penalties
122. The State Government shall constitute the State Board for Wild Life within:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
123. The Chairperson of the State Board for Wild Life is:
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. Chief Secretary
d. Chief Wild Life Warden
124. In a Union Territory, the Chairperson of the State Board may be:
a. Administrator or Chief Minister
b. Collector only
c. Lieutenant Governor only
d. Chief Justice only
125. The Vice-Chairperson of the State Board is:
a. Minister in-charge of Forests and Wild Life
b. Chief Secretary
c. Director of Tourism
d. Inspector-General of Police
126. Under Section 6(1)(c), the State Board includes:
a. Three members of the State Legislature
b. Five judges
c. Two police officers only
d. Members of Parliament only
127. The State Government may nominate persons from among:
a. Conservationists, ecologists and environmentalists
b. Judges only
c. Military officers only
d. Industrialists only
128. Among the nominated persons under clause (e), at least two representatives must belong to:
a. Scheduled Castes
b. Scheduled Tribes
c. Minority communities only
d. Armed Forces
129. The State Board includes an officer of the State Police Department not below the rank of:
a. Superintendent
b. Deputy Superintendent
c. Inspector-General
d. Constable
130. A representative of the Armed Forces on the State Board shall not be below the rank of:
a. Colonel
b. Major
c. Brigadier
d. Captain
131. Under Section 6(1)(l), the State Board includes:
a. Director, Department of Animal Husbandry
b. Director of Revenue
c. Director of Education
d. Director of Industries
132. Under Section 6(1)(m), the State Board includes:
a. Director of Tourism
b. Director, Department of Fisheries
c. Director of Police
d. Director of Agriculture
133. An officer nominated by the Director, Wild Life Preservation is included in the State Board under:
a. Clause (k)
b. Clause (n)
c. Clause (q)
d. Clause (r)
134. The State Board includes a representative of:
a. Wild Life Institute of India, Dehradun
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. Election Commission
d. National Human Rights Commission
135. The State Board also includes a representative of:
a. Botanical Survey of India
b. Finance Commission
c. UPSC
d. NITI Aayog
136. Which scientific body’s representative is included in the State Board?
a. Zoological Survey of India
b. Bar Council of India
c. Medical Council of India
d. Railway Board
137. The Member-Secretary of the State Board for Wild Life is:
a. Chief Minister
b. Director of Fisheries
c. Chief Wild Life Warden
d. Inspector-General of Police
138. The term of office of non ex officio members shall be:
a. As prescribed
b. Permanent
c. Five years fixed
d. Decided by courts
139. The manner of filling vacancies under Section 6(2) shall be:
a. Determined by Parliament only
b. As prescribed
c. Decided by Governor only
d. Determined by judiciary
140. Members other than ex officio members are entitled to:
a. Salary only
b. Pension only
c. Allowances for expenses incurred in performance of duties
d. No benefits
141. Under Section 7(1), the State Board for Wild Life shall meet at least:
a. Once a month
b. Once a year
c. Twice a year
d. Four times a year
142. The place of meeting of the State Board is directed by:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Chief Wild Life Warden
d. National Board
143. Under Section 7(2), the Board shall regulate:
a. Only voting procedure
b. Its own procedure including quorum
c. Judicial procedure only
d. Police procedure only
144. Proceedings of the Board shall not become invalid merely because of:
a. Vacancy in the Board
b. Defect in constitution of the Board
c. Irregularity not affecting merits of the case
d. All of the above
145. Section 8 deals with:
a. Hunting licences
b. Duties of State Board for Wild Life
c. National Parks
d. Penalties
146. The State Board for Wild Life advises:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. State Government
d. Central Bureau of Investigation
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