The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 Set-1

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1. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act was enacted in the year:

a. 1947

b. 1961

c. 1967

d. 1971

2. The official Act number of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is:

a. Act No. 35 of 1967

b. Act No. 36 of 1967

c. Act No. 37 of 1967

d. Act No. 38 of 1967

3. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act received Presidential assent on:

a. 26 January 1967

b. 15 August 1967

c. 30 December 1967

d. 31 December 1967

4. The long title of the UAPA Act initially aimed to prevent unlawful activities of:

a. States only

b. Associations only

c. Individuals only

d. Individuals and associations

5. The words “and for dealing with terrorist activities” in the long title indicate that the Act also deals with:

a. Economic offences

b. Cyber crimes

c. Terrorist activities

d. War crimes

6. The Preamble states that the Act also deals with matters:

a. Punitive in nature only

b. Incidental and connected thereto

c. Procedural in nature only

d. Related to constitutional remedies

7. Which body adopted Resolution 1373 (2001) referred to in the Preamble?

a. United Nations General Assembly

b. United Nations Human Rights Council

c. United Nations Security Council

d. International Court of Justice

8. Resolution 1373 (2001) was adopted in which meeting of the UN Security Council?

a. 4380th meeting

b. 4385th meeting

c. 4390th meeting

d. 4400th meeting

9. Resolution 1373 (2001) was adopted on:

a. 11 September 2001

b. 26 September 2001

c. 28 September 2001

d. 30 September 2001

10. Resolution 1373 (2001) was adopted under which Chapter of the UN Charter?

a. Chapter VI

b. Chapter VII

c. Chapter VIII

d. Chapter IX

11. Chapter VII resolutions of the UN Charter are significant because they are:

a. Advisory in nature

b. Recommendatory only

c. Binding on member States

d. Subject to ratification

12. Resolution 1373 (2001) requires States to take measures to combat:

a. Drug trafficking

b. International terrorism

c. Human trafficking

d. Organised crime

13. Which of the following UN Security Council Resolutions is the earliest mentioned in the Preamble?

a. Resolution 1333 (2000)

b. Resolution 1267 (1999)

c. Resolution 1363 (2001)

d. Resolution 1390 (2002)

14. Which of the following UN Security Council Resolutions is the latest mentioned in the Preamble?

a. Resolution 1735 (2006)

b. Resolution 1822 (2008)

c. Resolution 1617 (2005)

d. Resolution 1566 (2004)

15. The UN Security Council Resolutions mentioned require States to take action against:

a. Only terrorist organisations

b. Only individuals

c. Certain terrorists and terrorist organisations

d. Only non-State actors

16. One of the mandatory measures required by the UN resolutions is:

a. Confiscation of passports only

b. Freezing of assets and economic resources

c. Imposition of death penalty

d. Trial by military courts

17. The resolutions also require States to prevent:

a. Grant of citizenship

b. Entry into or transit through their territory

c. Diplomatic negotiations

d. Extradition proceedings

18. The UN resolutions mandate prevention of:

a. Sale of drugs

b. Supply of food and aid

c. Direct or indirect supply of arms and ammunition

d. Trade sanctions generally

19. The individuals and entities referred to are those:

a. Convicted by national courts

b. Listed in the Schedule

c. Declared by State Governments

d. Notified by Interpol

20. The Central Government acted under which statute to implement UN Security Council resolutions?

a. UAPA Act, 1967

b. UN (Security Council) Act, 1947

c. National Security Act, 1980

d. Defence of India Act

21. The relevant provision invoked by the Central Government was:

a. Section 3 of the UN Act, 1947

b. Section 2 of the UN Act, 1947

c. Section 5 of the UN Act, 1947

d. Section 10 of the UN Act, 1947

22. The Order issued by the Central Government in 2007 is titled:

a. Prevention of Terrorism Order, 2007

b. Anti-Terrorism Measures Order, 2007

c. Prevention and Suppression of Terrorism (Implementation of Security Council Resolutions) Order, 2007

d. Counter-Terrorism Order, 2007

23. The necessity to enact special provisions under UAPA arises to:

a. Replace IPC provisions

b. Give effect to UN resolutions and the 2007 Order

c. Centralise police powers

d. Suspend ordinary criminal law

24. The concluding phrase “Be it enacted by Parliament” signifies that the Act is enacted under:

a. Executive power

b. Judicial authority

c. Parliamentary legislative power

d. Presidential ordinance

25. The UAPA Act was enacted in the:

a. Sixteenth year of the Republic of India

b. Seventeenth year of the Republic of India

c. Eighteenth year of the Republic of India

d. Nineteenth year of the Republic of India

26. Section 1 of the UAPA Act deals with:

a. Definitions

b. Punishments

c. Short title, extent and application

d. Powers of Central Government

27. The short title of the Act as provided under Section 1(1) is:

a. The Prevention of Unlawful Activities Act, 1967

b. The Unlawful Activities Act, 1967

c. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967

d. The Anti-Terrorism Act, 1967

28. The year mentioned in the short title of the Act is:

a. 1947

b. 1950

c. 1967

d. 1971

29. The Act number associated with the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is:

a. Act No. 35 of 1967

b. Act No. 36 of 1967

c. Act No. 37 of 1967

d. Act No. 38 of 1967

30. According to Section 1(2), the territorial extent of the UAPA Act is:

a. Selected States only

b. Whole of India

c. Whole of India except J&K

d. India and neighbouring countries

31. Section 1(3) makes which of the following liable to punishment under the Act?

a. Only citizens of India

b. Only members of unlawful associations

c. Every person held guilty in India

d. Only public servants

32. Liability under Section 1(3) arises for:

a. Acts only

b. Omissions only

c. Acts and omissions

d. Intentions alone

33. Under Section 1(3), the act or omission must be:

a. Contrary to constitutional provisions

b. Contrary to IPC provisions

c. Contrary to the provisions of this Act

d. Declared unlawful by the State Government

34. For the purpose of punishment under Section 1(3), the person must be held guilty:

a. Anywhere in the world

b. Only by an Indian court

c. In India

d. By a military tribunal

35. Section 1(4) deals with offences committed:

a. Only within India

b. Only within territorial waters

c. Beyond India

d. In border areas

36. An offence committed beyond India will attract UAPA if it is:

a. Cognizable

b. Non-bailable

c. Punishable under this Act

d. Related to terrorism

37. A person committing an offence outside India punishable under UAPA shall be dealt with:

a. Under international law

b. Under extradition treaties only

c. According to the provisions of this Act

d. Under IPC provisions

38. Section 1(4) creates a legal fiction by treating an offence committed outside India as if it were committed:

a. In the offender’s home country

b. In the place of arrest

c. In India

d. In international waters

39. Section 1(5) of the Act extends its application to certain categories of persons. Which of the following is NOT included?

a. Citizens of India outside India

b. Persons in the service of the Government

c. Persons on Indian-registered ships and aircraft

d. Foreign diplomats stationed in India

40. Clause (a) of Section 1(5) applies the Act to:

a. All persons residing abroad

b. Citizens of India outside India

c. Foreign nationals in India

d. Stateless persons

41. Clause (b) of Section 1(5) applies to persons:

a. Employed by private entities

b. In the service of the Government

c. Working for international organisations

d. Retired government servants

42. The phrase “wherever they may be” in Section 1(5)(b) signifies:

a. Only within Indian territory

b. Only during duty hours

c. Irrespective of geographical location

d. Only during foreign posting

43. Clause (c) of Section 1(5) extends the Act to persons on:

a. Any ship or aircraft

b. Foreign-registered ships and aircraft

c. Ships and aircraft registered in India

d. Only military vessels

44. The application of UAPA to ships and aircraft under Section 1(5)(c) applies:

a. Only within Indian airspace and waters

b. Only in international waters

c. Wherever they may be

d. Only during emergencies

45. Section 1 of the UAPA Act establishes which type of jurisdiction?

a. Territorial jurisdiction only

b. Personal jurisdiction only

c. Extraterritorial jurisdiction

d. Concurrent jurisdiction

46. What does Section 2 of the Act deal with?

a. Powers of the Designated Authority

b. Definitions

c. Offences and penalties

d. Forfeiture of property

47. What does Section 2(1) deal with?

a. Powers of investigation

b. Cognizance of offences

c. Explanation of various terms used in the Act

d. Forfeiture procedure

48. Under Section 2(1)(a), what does “association” mean?

a. Only registered organizations

b. Only terrorist organizations

c. Any combination or body of individuals

d. Any government-recognized institution

49. Under Section 2(1)(b), “cession of a part of the territory of India” includes:

a. Only occupation by foreign powers

b. Admission of the claim of any foreign country to such part

c. Only internal secession movements

d. Only administrative reorganization

50. Under Section 2(1)(c), the term “Code” refers to:

a. Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

c. Constitution of India

d. National Investigation Agency Act, 2008

51. Under Section 2(1)(d), what is meant by “court”?

a. Only High Courts

b. Only District Courts

c. Criminal courts having jurisdiction to try offences under this Act, including Special Courts under sections 11 or 21 of the NIA Act, 2008

d. Civil Courts

52. Under Section 2(1)(e), who qualifies as a “Designated Authority”?

a. Any police officer of Inspector rank or above

b. Any officer of the State Government below Secretary rank

c. Central Government officer not below Joint Secretary or State Government officer not below Secretary, as notified

d. Any officer appointed by the High Court

53. Under Section 2(1)(ea), “economic security” includes:

a. Only financial stability

b. Only food and energy security

c. Financial, monetary, fiscal stability, security of production and distribution, food, livelihood, energy, ecological and environmental security

d. Only monetary security

54. Under Section 2(1)(eb), what does “Order” mean?

a. Any government directive

b. Prevention and Suppression of Terrorism (Implementation of Security Council Resolutions) Order, 2007, as amended

c. Rules framed under this Act

d. Orders by the Supreme Court in terrorism cases

55. Under Section 2(1)(ec), “person” includes all EXCEPT:

a. An individual

b. A company or firm

c. Only natural persons; excludes artificial juridical persons

d. Any agency, office, or branch controlled by the above

56. Under Section 2(1)(g), “proceeds of terrorism” includes:

a. Only cash obtained from terrorist acts

b. All kinds of properties derived from terrorist acts, or any property intended to be used for terrorism

c. Only property held by convicted terrorists

d. Only immovable property

57. Under Section 2(1)(h), “property” means:

a. Only physical property

b. Only movable property

c. Property and assets of every description, whether tangible, intangible, movable, immovable, corporeal, incorporeal, including electronic or digital instruments

d. Only immovable property

58. Under Section 2(1)(ha), “Schedule” refers to:

a. Timetable for prosecution of cases

b. Schedule attached to this Act

c. List of designated courts

d. Rules made by the Central Government

59. Under Section 2(1)(i), “secession of a part of the territory of India from the Union” includes:

a. Only military invasions

b. Only internal revolts

c. Assertion of any claim to determine whether such part will remain part of India

d. Only plebiscites

60. Under Section 2(1)(j), “State Government” in relation to a Union territory means:

a. Chief Minister of the Union territory

b. The Administrator of the Union territory

c. Lieutenant Governor

d. Any officer authorized by the Central Government

61. Under Section 2(1)(k), “terrorist act” has the meaning assigned in which section?

a. Section 14

b. Section 16

c. Section 15

d. Section 20

62. Under Section 2(1)(k), how are the expressions “terrorism” and “terrorist” construed?

a. According to general law

b. According to the meaning assigned to “terrorist act” in Section 15

c. As per the Indian Penal Code

d. As per the Companies Act

63. Under Section 2(1)(l), “terrorist gang” means:

a. Any association listed in the Schedule

b. Any association, other than a terrorist organisation, which is concerned with or involved in a terrorist act

c. Any unlawful association

d. Only registered organizations

64. Under Section 2(1)(m), “terrorist organisation” means:

a. Only an organisation banned by the State Government

b. Any gang involved in terrorism

c. An organisation listed in the Schedule or operating under the same name as a listed organisation

d. Any association with unlawful activity

65. Under Section 2(1)(n), “Tribunal” means:

a. Any District Court

b. The Tribunal constituted under Section 5

c. National Investigation Agency

d. High Court

66. Under Section 2(1)(o), “unlawful activity” in relation to an individual or association includes actions that:

a. Only disrupt local governance

b. Only incite criminal acts

c. Support cession/secession of part of India, question or disrupt sovereignty, or cause disaffection against India

d. Only involve financial fraud

67. Under Section 2(1)(p), “unlawful association” means any association:

a. That is banned by the government

b. Which has for its object any unlawful activity or encourages/undertakes punishable activities under IPC sections 153A/153B

c. Any terrorist gang

d. Only organisations listed in the Schedule

68. What is the proviso to Section 2(1)(p)(ii) regarding unlawful associations?

a. It applies to all Union territories

b. It does not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir

c. It applies only to metropolitan cities

d. It is applicable only for foreign nationals

69. Under Section 2(1)(q), words used but not defined in this Act and defined in the Code:

a. Shall have the meanings assigned in the Code of Criminal Procedure

b. Shall have meanings assigned in IPC

c. Shall be interpreted as per Constitution

d. Shall have their literal meanings only

70. Under Section 2(2), a reference to an enactment not in force in a particular area shall be construed as:

a. Reference to the corresponding law in force in that area

b. Non-applicable

c. Reference to Central Government notification

d. Reference to IPC only

71. Section 3 of the UAPA Act deals with:

a. Punishment for unlawful activities

b. Declaration of terrorist organisations

c. Declaration of an association as unlawful

d. Reference to Tribunal

72. Under Section 3(1), the power to declare an association as unlawful is vested in the:

a. State Government

b. Tribunal

c. Central Government

d. National Investigation Agency

73. The Central Government may declare an association unlawful if it is of the opinion that the association:

a. Is likely to become unlawful

b. Is, or has become, an unlawful association

c. Has committed any offence under IPC

d. Is against public order

74. The formation of opinion under Section 3(1) is based on:

a. Recommendation of the Tribunal

b. Judicial determination

c. Subjective satisfaction of the Central Government

d. Approval of Parliament

75. Declaration of an association as unlawful under Section 3(1) must be made by:

a. Executive order

b. Ordinance

c. Notification in the Official Gazette

d. Press release

76. Every notification issued under Section 3(1) shall specify:

a. Punishment prescribed

b. Duration of ban

c. Grounds on which it is issued

d. Names of office bearers

77. Apart from grounds, the notification shall also specify:

a. Judicial findings

b. Such other particulars as the Central Government considers necessary

c. Previous convictions

d. Evidence collected

78. The proviso to Section 3(2) permits the Central Government to withhold disclosure of facts if:

a. Disclosure affects investigation

b. Disclosure is against public interest

c. Disclosure affects foreign relations

d. Disclosure affects State security only

79. Under Section 3(3), a notification declaring an association unlawful shall have effect only after:

a. Parliamentary approval

b. Confirmation by the Tribunal

c. Expiry of appeal period

d. Publication in a newspaper

80. The Tribunal confirms the declaration by an order made under:

a. Section 3

b. Section 4

c. Section 5

d. Section 6

81. For the notification to take effect, the Tribunal’s order must be:

a. Communicated to the association

b. Filed in court

c. Published in the Official Gazette

d. Approved by the Central Government

82. As a general rule, a notification under Section 3 has effect only after:

a. Immediate publication

b. Tribunal confirmation and Gazette publication

c. Newspaper publication

d. Service on association

83. The proviso to Section 3(3) allows immediate effect of the notification if:

a. Tribunal recommends it

b. Parliament approves it

c. Circumstances exist necessitating immediate declaration

d. State Government requests it

84. For giving immediate effect, the Central Government must:

a. Seek prior judicial approval

b. Record reasons in writing

c. Issue a separate notification

d. Inform the State Government

85. Even when immediate effect is given, the notification remains:

a. Final and unchallengeable

b. Subject to any order under Section 4

c. Valid for six months only

d. Subject to State Government review

86. Section 3(4) mandates that the notification shall be published in:

a. At least two national newspapers

b. One daily newspaper having circulation in the concerned State

c. Any newspaper chosen by the association

d. Only the Official Gazette

87. The newspaper publication must be in the State where:

a. The offence was committed

b. The association was formed

c. The principal office of the association is situated

d. The Tribunal is located

88. Apart from publication, the notification shall also be:

a. Sent to the High Court

b. Served on the association

c. Displayed in police stations

d. Announced in Parliament

89. Service of notification on the association shall be done in such manner as:

a. Prescribed by CrPC

b. Directed by the Tribunal

c. The Central Government may think fit

d. Ordered by the High Court

90. Which of the following is NOT a prescribed mode of service under Section 3(4)?

a. Affixing on office premises

b. Serving principal office-bearers

c. Proclamation by beat of drum or loudspeaker

d. Service through registered post only

91. Clause (a) of Section 3(4) provides for service by:

a. Email

b. Courier

c. Affixing the notification on a conspicuous part of the office

d. Publishing on government website

92. Clause (b) of Section 3(4) allows service on:

a. Any member of the association

b. Principal office-bearers of the association

c. Legal counsel of the association

d. State Government representatives

93. Clause (c) of Section 3(4) provides for service by proclamation in the area where:

a. The offence occurred

b. Members reside

c. Activities of the association are ordinarily carried on

d. The Tribunal sits

94. Clause (d) of Section 3(4) permits service:

a. Only through courts

b. Only through police authorities

c. In such other manner as may be prescribed

d. Only electronically

95. Section 3 primarily balances which two considerations?

a. Federalism and separation of powers

b. National security and procedural safeguards

c. Speedy trial and punishment

d. Executive discretion and judicial supremacy

96. Section 4 of the UAPA Act deals with:

a. Constitution of Tribunal

b. Powers of Tribunal

c. Reference to Tribunal

d. Appeal against Tribunal order

97. Section 4 comes into operation when an association is declared unlawful under:

a. Section 2

b. Section 3(1)

c. Section 5

d. Section 9

98. Who is required to refer the notification declaring an association unlawful to the Tribunal?

a. State Government

b. Tribunal itself

c. Central Government

d. National Investigation Agency

99. The reference to the Tribunal must be made within how many days from the date of publication of the notification?

a. 15 days

b. 30 days

c. 45 days

d. 60 days

100. The time period of thirty days under Section 4(1) is calculated from the date of:

a. Issuance of notification

b. Service of notification

c. Publication of notification

d. Confirmation by Tribunal

101. The purpose of referring the notification to the Tribunal is to adjudicate whether:

a. The association has committed an offence

b. The notification is constitutionally valid

c. There is sufficient cause to declare the association unlawful

d. Punishment should be imposed

102. Upon receipt of reference under Section 4(1), the Tribunal is required to:

a. Immediately confirm the notification

b. Call upon the association to show cause

c. Conduct a summary trial

d. Frame charges

103. The notice issued by the Tribunal under Section 4(2) must be:

a. Oral

b. Electronic only

c. In writing

d. Through police authorities

104. The notice issued by the Tribunal calls upon the association to show cause within:

a. 15 days from receipt of notice

b. 30 days from receipt of notice

c. 30 days from service of notice

d. 60 days from publication

105. The show cause under Section 4(2) is against:

a. Arrest of members

b. Attachment of property

c. Declaration of the association as unlawful

d. Criminal prosecution

106. Under Section 4(3), whose cause can be considered by the Tribunal?

a. Only the association

b. Only office-bearers

c. Only members

d. Association, office-bearers, and members

107. After considering the cause shown, the Tribunal shall:

a. Dismiss the reference

b. Refer the matter back to Central Government

c. Hold an inquiry

d. Grant interim relief

108. The inquiry under Section 4(3) is to be conducted in the manner specified in:

a. Section 5

b. Section 7

c. Section 9

d. Section 11

109. During the inquiry, the Tribunal may call for further information from:

a. Only the Central Government

b. Only the association

c. Central Government, office-bearers, or members of the association

d. State Government only

110. The power to call for further information under Section 4(3) is:

a. Mandatory

b. Automatic

c. Discretionary

d. Subject to Central Government approval

111. The Tribunal must decide whether there is sufficient cause for declaring the association unlawful:

a. Before issuing notice

b. After inquiry

c. Only on affidavits

d. Only on government records

112. The Tribunal is required to make its order:

a. At its discretion without time limit

b. As expeditiously as possible

c. Only after six months

d. After consulting the High Court

113. The maximum time limit for the Tribunal to pass its order is:

a. Three months

b. Four months

c. Six months

d. One year

114. The six-month period is calculated from the date of:

a. Reference to Tribunal

b. Service of notice

c. Issue of notification under Section 3(1)

d. Commencement of inquiry

115. The Tribunal may pass which of the following orders?

a. Only confirm the declaration

b. Only cancel the declaration

c. Either confirm or cancel the declaration

d. Impose penalties

116. If the Tribunal confirms the declaration, it confirms the declaration made in:

a. Tribunal notice

b. Government order

c. Notification under Section 3

d. Inquiry report

117. If the Tribunal cancels the declaration, it cancels:

a. The inquiry proceedings

b. The notification declaring the association unlawful

c. Criminal cases against members

d. Future prohibitions

118. The phrase “such order as it may deem fit” indicates that the Tribunal’s power is:

a. Ministerial

b. Mechanical

c. Discretionary

d. Advisory

119. Section 4 reflects which constitutional principle most strongly?

a. Federalism

b. Natural justice

c. Parliamentary supremacy

d. Collective responsibility

120. Section 5 of the UAPA Act deals with:

a. Reference to Tribunal

b. Powers of Central Government

c. Constitution and powers of Tribunal

d. Appeal against Tribunal orders

121. The authority empowered to constitute the Tribunal under Section 5(1) is the:

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court

c. Central Government

d. Parliament

122. The Tribunal is constituted by the Central Government through:

a. Executive order

b. Ordinance

c. Notification in the Official Gazette

d. Parliamentary resolution

123. The Tribunal under Section 5 is constituted:

a. Permanently

b. For a fixed tenure

c. As and when necessary

d. For each State

124. The name of the Tribunal constituted under the Act is:

a. National Security Tribunal

b. Anti-Terrorism Tribunal

c. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Tribunal

d. Central Security Tribunal

125. The Tribunal consists of:

a. Three members

b. Two members

c. One person

d. Such number as prescribed

126. The person constituting the Tribunal is appointed by the:

a. Chief Justice of India

b. President of India

c. Central Government

d. Supreme Court Collegium

127. As per the proviso to Section 5(1), no person shall be appointed as presiding officer unless he is:

a. A District Judge

b. A Judicial Magistrate

c. A Judge of a High Court

d. A retired Supreme Court Judge

128. The qualification prescribed under the proviso to Section 5(1) is:

a. Directory

b. Discretionary

c. Mandatory

d. Recommendatory

129. Section 5(2) deals with:

a. Removal of presiding officer

b. Vacancy in the office of presiding officer

c. Resignation of presiding officer

d. Suspension of Tribunal proceedings

130. Section 5(2) applies when a vacancy occurs due to:

a. Temporary absence

b. Leave of presiding officer

c. Any reason other than temporary absence

d. Illness only

131. When a vacancy occurs, the Central Government shall:

a. Dissolve the Tribunal

b. Refer the matter to the High Court

c. Appoint another person as per Section 5

d. Suspend all proceedings

132. After filling the vacancy, the proceedings before the Tribunal may be continued from:

a. The beginning

b. The stage of reference

c. The stage at which the vacancy is filled

d. The notice stage

133. Section 5(3) obligates the Central Government to provide the Tribunal with:

a. Financial grants

b. Infrastructure only

c. Necessary staff

d. Legal advisors

134. The staff provided under Section 5(3) is meant for:

a. Administrative convenience

b. Assisting police investigation

c. Discharge of Tribunal’s functions under the Act

d. Advising the Central Government

135. Under Section 5(4), expenses incurred in connection with the Tribunal are to be defrayed out of the:

a. State Consolidated Fund

b. Contingency Fund of India

c. Consolidated Fund of India

d. Special security fund

136. Section 5(5) empowers the Tribunal to:

a. Frame criminal procedure

b. Regulate its own procedure

c. Override provisions of CrPC

d. Make rules for other authorities

137. The power to regulate its own procedure is:

a. Absolute

b. Subject to Section 9

c. Subject to approval of Central Government

d. Subject to CrPC

138. The Tribunal’s power to regulate procedure includes deciding:

a. Punishments

b. Place or places of sittings

c. Jurisdiction of courts

d. Appointment of staff

139. Section 5(6) grants the Tribunal powers equivalent to those of:

a. Criminal Court

b. Sessions Court

c. Civil Court under CPC, 1908

d. High Court

140. The civil court powers granted to the Tribunal are for the purpose of:

a. Issuing punishments

b. Making an inquiry under the Act

c. Hearing appeals

d. Granting bail

141. Which of the following is a power expressly mentioned under Section 5(6)?

a. Issuing warrants of arrest

b. Summoning and enforcing attendance of witnesses

c. Conducting criminal trials

d. Passing decrees

142. The Tribunal may examine witnesses:

a. Without oath

b. Only through affidavits

c. On oath

d. Only through cross-examination

143. The power of discovery and production under Section 5(6) extends to:

a. Documents only

b. Material objects only

c. Documents and material objects producible as evidence

d. Electronic records only

144. The Tribunal may receive evidence:

a. Only orally

b. Only documentary

c. On affidavits

d. Only through cross-examination

145. The Tribunal may requisition public records from:

a. Police stations only

b. Any court or office

c. Central Government only

d. State Government only

146. Issuing commissions for examination of witnesses is a power derived from:

a. CrPC

b. IPC

c. CPC, 1908

d. Evidence Act

147. Section 5(7) provides that proceedings before the Tribunal shall be deemed to be:

a. Administrative proceedings

b. Quasi-judicial proceedings

c. Judicial proceedings

d. Legislative proceedings

148. Proceedings are deemed judicial proceedings for the purposes of which IPC sections?

a. Sections 191 and 192

b. Sections 193 and 228

c. Sections 195 and 196

d. Sections 197 and 198

149. For the purposes of Section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code, the Tribunal is deemed to be a:

a. Criminal Court

b. Sessions Court

c. Civil Court

d. Special Court

150. The “Code” referred to in Section 5(7) is the:

a. Indian Penal Code

b. Code of Civil Procedure

c. Code of Criminal Procedure

d. Evidence Act

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