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The Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Conmmodities Act MCQs
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1. The Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 is designated as:
a. Act No. 5 of 1980
b. Act No. 7 of 1980
c. Act No. 9 of 1980
d. Act No. 12 of 1980
2. The Act received assent and was enacted on:
a. 26th January, 1980
b. 15th August, 1980
c. 12th February, 1980
d. 2nd October, 1980
3. The Act was enacted in the ______ Year of the Republic of India.
a. Twenty-ninth
b. Thirtieth
c. Thirty-first
d. Thirty-second
4. The primary purpose of the Act is to provide for:
a. Punishment for hoarding of commodities
b. Regulation of trade licenses
c. Detention in certain cases
d. Imposition of fines for price rise
5. The detention under the Act is aimed at preventing:
a. Tax evasion
b. Black marketing
c. Industrial disputes
d. Smuggling of gold
6. The Act also seeks to ensure maintenance of supplies of commodities that are:
a. Imported
b. Luxury goods
c. Essential to the community
d. Export-oriented
7. The phrase “for matters connected therewith” in the long title indicates that the Act:
a. Is limited strictly to detention
b. Extends to ancillary matters related to its purpose
c. Applies only during emergency
d. Overrides all other laws automatically
8. The Act was enacted by:
a. State Legislature
b. Parliament
c. President by Ordinance
d. Supreme Court direction
9. Section 1 of the Prevention of Black marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Power to detain
c. Short title, extent and commencement
d. Constitution of Advisory Board
10. The short title of the Act is:
a. The Essential Commodities Detention Act, 1980
b. The Prevention of Black-marketing Act, 1980
c. The Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980
d. The Maintenance of Essential Supplies Act, 1980
11. The Act extends to:
a. The whole of India
b. Only Union Territories
c. Only States
d. Selected States notified by the Central Government
12. The Act is deemed to have come into force on:
a. 12th February, 1980
b. 26th January, 1980
c. 15th October, 1979
d. 1st January, 1980
13. The commencement clause of the Act provides that it shall be deemed to have come into force on a date:
a. After its enactment
b. Prior to its enactment
c. On the date of Presidential assent
d. On the date of notification in the Gazette
14. The phrase “shall be deemed to have come into force” indicates:
a. Prospective operation only
b. Conditional enforcement
c. Retrospective commencement
d. Temporary enforcement
15. Section 2 of the Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980 deals with:
a. Powers of detention
b. Definitions
c. Advisory Board
d. Revocation of detention
16. The expression “appropriate Government” depends upon:
a. Place of arrest
b. Nature of commodity
c. Authority making the detention order
d. Residence of the detenue
17. Where a detention order is made by the Central Government, the “appropriate Government” shall be:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Central Government
d. Advisory Board
18. Where a detention order is made by an officer of the Central Government, the appropriate Government is:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. President of India
d. Administrator of Union Territory
19. Where a detention order is made by a State Government, the appropriate Government is:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Governor
d. District Magistrate
20. Where a detention order is made by an officer of a State Government, the appropriate Government shall be:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Advisory Board
d. High Court
21. The term “detention order” under the Act refers to an order made under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 4
c. Section 3
d.Section 5
22. A person detained under an order made by the Central Government shall be governed by which appropriate Government?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Both Central and State Government
d. Advisory Board
23. In relation to a Union Territory, “State Government” means:
a. Lieutenant Governor only
b. Chief Minister
c. Administrator thereof
d. President of India
24. Under Section 3(1), the power to make a detention order is vested in:
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Central Government, State Government, or specified empowered officers
d. District Magistrate in all cases
25. An officer of the Central Government must not be below the rank of:
a. Under Secretary
b. Deputy Secretary
c. Joint Secretary
d. Additional Secretary
26. An officer of a State Government empowered under Section 3 must not be below the rank of:
a. District Magistrate
b. Secretary to the Government
c. Joint Secretary
d. Commissioner
27. An officer can exercise power under Section 3 only if he is:
a. Elected by the Legislature
b. Authorized by the High Court
c. Specially empowered for the purposes of this section
d. Recommended by the Advisory Board
28. The satisfaction required for making a detention order under Section 3 is:
a. Judicial satisfaction
b. Objective judicial determination
c. Subjective satisfaction of the authority
d. Satisfaction of the Advisory Board
29. A detention order under Section 3 may be made to prevent a person from acting in any manner prejudicial to:
a. Public order
b. National security
c. Maintenance of supplies of commodities essential to the community
d. Sovereignty and integrity of India
30. Under the Explanation to Section 3(1), committing an offence punishable under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 amounts to:
a. Breach of contract
b. Acting in a prejudicial manner
c. Civil liability only
d. Administrative misconduct
31. Instigating another person to commit an offence under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 is covered under:
a. Clause (b) only
b. Clause (a) of the Explanation
c. Section 2
d. Section 5
32. Dealing in an essential commodity with a view to making gain that defeats the provisions of law falls under:
a. Preventive arrest under CrPC
b. Clause (b) of the Explanation
c. Judicial custody
d. Confiscation proceedings only
33. The term “essential commodity” referred to in Section 3 draws its definition from:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
d. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
34. The expression “acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies” includes acts that:
a. Indirectly defeat the provisions of the law
b. Are purely private in nature
c. Are unrelated to trade
d. Concern only export matters
35. Dealing in a commodity covered by any other law relating to control of production, supply or distribution is included under:
a. Clause (a) only
b. Clause (b)(ii)
c. Section 2(c)
d. Section 1(3)
36. Under Section 3(2), the officers additionally empowered to issue detention orders include:
a. Superintendent of Police and Collector
b. District Magistrates and Commissioners of Police
c. Chief Judicial Magistrates
d. Sessions Judges
37. A District Magistrate may exercise powers under Section 3(2) if:
a. Directed by the High Court
b. Approved by the Advisory Board
c. Satisfied as provided in sub-section (1)
d. Authorized by the President
38. A Commissioner of Police can exercise powers under Section 3(2):
a. In all districts
b. Only where such Commissioner has been appointed
c. Only during emergency
d. Only with judicial approval
39. The satisfaction required under Section 3(2) is the same as that under:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3(1)
d. Section 4
40. The power exercised by officers under Section 3(2) is:
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power
c. Delegated executive power
d. Appellate power
41. The authority of a District Magistrate under Section 3(2) is triggered by:
a. Recommendation of police
b. Registration of FIR
c. His satisfaction regarding prejudicial acts
d. Order of the State Legislature
42. Commissioners of Police derive their power under Section 3(2) by:
a. Automatic statutory vesting
b. Separate notification by Parliament
c. Express mention in the statute
d. Delegation by High Court
43. The phrase “may also” in Section 3(2) indicates that the power of District Magistrates and Commissioners of Police is:
a. Exclusive
b. Concurrent with authorities under sub-section (1)
c. Subordinate to Advisory Board
d. Temporary in nature
44. When an order is made under Section 3 by an officer mentioned in sub-section (2), he shall report the fact forthwith to:
a. Central Government
b. Advisory Board
c. State Government to which he is subordinate
d. High Court
45. The report under Section 3(3) must include:
a. Only the detention order
b. Grounds of detention and other relevant particulars
c. FIR copy only
d. Approval of Advisory Board
46. An order made by an officer under Section 3(2) shall not remain in force for more than:
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 12 days
d. 15 days
47. The detention order made by an officer under Section 3(2) shall continue beyond twelve days only if:
a. Confirmed by the Advisory Board
b. Approved by the Central Government
c. Approved by the State Government
d. Approved by the High Court
48. Where grounds of detention are communicated after five days but not later than ten days, the period of “twelve days” shall be substituted by:
a. Ten days
b. Fourteen days
c. Fifteen days
d. Twenty-one days
49. The modification extending the period from twelve to fifteen days operates subject to compliance with:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
50. Under Section 3(4), when an order is made or approved by the State Government, it shall report the fact within:
a. Five days
b. Seven days
c. Ten days
d. Twelve days
51. The State Government must report to the Central Government when:
a. Only when the Advisory Board directs
b. Only when the order is quashed
c. An order is made or approved under Section 3
d. Only when requested by the Central Government
52. When a detention order is made by an officer of the State Government not below the rank of Secretary specially empowered under Section 3(1), the reporting obligation to the Central Government lies on:
a. The detaining officer
b. The Advisory Board
c. The State Government
d. The District Magistrate
53. The report sent by the State Government to the Central Government must include:
a. Only the name of the detenue
b. Grounds and other particulars bearing on the necessity for the order
c. Court proceedings
d. Police case diary
54. The phrase “shall forthwith report” under Section 3(3) indicates that the reporting obligation is:
a. Optional
b. Directory
c. Mandatory and immediate
d. Subject to judicial approval
55. If the State Government does not approve the order within the prescribed period under Section 3(3), the detention order:
a. Continues automatically
b. Becomes permanent
c. Ceases to remain in force
d. Requires High Court approval
56. Section 4 of the Act deals with:
a. Approval of detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Revocation of detention
d. Constitution of Advisory Board
57. A detention order under Section 4 may be executed:
a. Only within the State where it is passed
b. Only within the district concerned
c. At any place in India
d. Only within Union Territories
58. The manner of execution of a detention order shall be in accordance with:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
59. Section 5 of the Act confers power to regulate:
a. Grounds of detention
b. Place and conditions of detention
c. Duration of detention
d. Judicial review of detention
60. A person detained under a detention order shall be liable to be detained in such place as specified by:
a. Advisory Board
b. High Court
c. Appropriate Government
d. District Magistrate
61. The conditions of detention may include provisions relating to:
a. Bail and bond
b. Maintenance, discipline and punishment for breaches of discipline
c. Trial procedure
d. Appeal mechanism
62. The appropriate Government may specify place and conditions of detention by:
a. Judicial order
b. General or special order
c. Legislative amendment
d. Presidential ordinance
63. Under Section 5(b), a detenue may be removed from one place of detention to another:
a. Only within the same district
b. Only within the same State
c. Within the same State or in another State
d. Only with High Court approval
64. The authority empowered to order removal from one place of detention to another is the:
a. Advisory Board
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Appropriate Government
d. Sessions Court
65. A State Government cannot remove a detenue from one State to another without:
a. Permission of the Central Government
b. Order of the Supreme Court
c. Consent of the Government of the other State
d. Recommendation of the District Magistrate
66. The proviso to Section 5 restricts removal between States by requiring:
a. Judicial sanction
b. Consent of the receiving State Government
c. Presidential approval
d. Parliamentary ratification
67. The power under Section 5 extends to regulating punishment for:
a. Offences under IPC
b. Breaches of detention discipline
c. Contempt of court
d. Economic offences
68. The liability of a detained person under Section 5 arises when:
a. FIR is registered
b. Advisory Board confirms detention
c. A detention order has been made
d. Charge-sheet is filed
69. Section 6 of the Act deals with:
a. Grounds of detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Validity of detention orders
d. Revocation of detention
70. A detention order shall not be invalid merely because the person to be detained is:
a. A foreign national
b. Outside the territorial jurisdiction of the authority making the order
c. Already in custody
d. A government servant
71. Under Section 6, territorial jurisdiction of the detaining authority affects the validity of the order:
a. Always
b. Only with court approval
c. In no case
d. Only in emergency
72. A detention order shall not become inoperative merely because the place of detention is:
a. Within the same district
b. Within the same State
c. Outside the territorial limits of the authority making the order
d. Not notified in the Gazette
73. Section 6 protects detention orders from challenge on the ground of:
a. Mala fide intention
b. Lack of evidence
c. Territorial limits of authority
d. Violation of Article 22
74. The expression “invalid or inoperative merely by reason” in Section 6 indicates that:
a. All defects are cured
b. Only territorial objections are excluded
c. Judicial review is barred
d. Advisory Board approval is unnecessary
75. If a person is outside the State when the detention order is made, the order under Section 6:
a. Automatically lapses
b. Requires Central Government approval
c. Remains valid
d. Must be reissued
76. Section 6 primarily addresses objections relating to:
a. Subjective satisfaction
b. Procedural delay
c. Territorial jurisdiction
d. Duration of detention
77. Section 7 of the Act deals with powers in relation to:
a. Advisory Board
b. Absconding persons
c. Revocation of detention
d. Conditions of detention
78. The power under Section 7(1) arises when the authority has reason to believe that the person:
a. Has filed an appeal
b. Has been acquitted
c. Has absconded or is concealing himself
d. Has challenged the order
79. The authority competent to act under Section 7(1) includes:
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Appropriate Government or officer mentioned in Section 3(2)
d. Advisory Board
80. Upon forming belief that the person has absconded, the authority may make a written report to:
a. Sessions Judge
b. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate only
c. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class
d. High Court
81. The Magistrate to whom the report is made must have jurisdiction in the place where the person:
a. Was arrested
b. Was last seen
c. Ordinarily resides
d. Carries on business
82. After such report, provisions of which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure apply?
a. Sections 41–44
b. Sections 70–75
c. Sections 82, 83, 84 and 85
d. Sections 190–204
83. Sections 82 to 85 of the CrPC relate to:
a. Bail provisions
b. Proclamation and attachment of property
c. Framing of charge
d. Compounding of offences
84. For the purposes of Section 7(1), the detention order is deemed to be:
a. A summons
b. A charge-sheet
c. A warrant issued by the Magistrate
d. A civil decree
85. The legal fiction created under Section 7 treats the detention order as a warrant for the limited purpose of applying:
a. IPC provisions
b. CrPC Sections 82–85
c. Evidence Act provisions
d. Civil Procedure Code
86. The belief required under Section 7(1) that a person has absconded must be based on:
a. Judicial finding
b. Reason to believe
c. Conclusive proof
d. Advisory Board recommendation
87. Under Section 7(1)(b), the direction to appear before an officer must be issued by:
a. Oral communication
b. Court summons
c. Order notified in the Official Gazette
d. Police notice
88. The order under Section 7(1)(b) shall specify:
a. Only the offence committed
b. The place of detention
c. The officer, place and period for appearance
d. The grounds of detention
89. If a person fails to comply with the direction under Section 7(1)(b), he shall be punishable unless he proves:
a. That he was unaware of the law
b. That compliance was impossible and he informed the officer within the specified period
c. That he intended to surrender later
d. That he had filed an appeal
90. The maximum term of imprisonment for failure to comply with an order under Section 7(1)(b) is:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
91. The punishment for non-compliance under Section 7(1)(b) may include:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment or fine or both
d. Community service
92. The burden to prove impossibility of compliance lies on the:
a. Appropriate Government
b. Prosecutor
c. Magistrate
d. Person concerned
93. The person must inform the specified officer of the reason for non-compliance:
a. At any time before arrest
b. Within the period specified in the order
c. Within thirty days
d. Before issuance of proclamation
94. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, every offence under Section 7(1)(b) shall be:
a. Bailable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Cognizable
d. Compoundable
95. The non obstante clause in Section 7(2) overrides provisions of the:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Evidence Act, 1872
96. The power to issue a direction to appear under Section 7(1)(b) is exercised when the person:
a. Is already in custody
b. Has challenged the detention
c. Has absconded or is concealing himself
d. Has been acquitted
97. Section 8 of the Act deals with:
a. Execution of detention orders
b. Grounds of detention to be disclosed
c. Revocation of detention
d. Powers of Advisory Board
98. When a person is detained, the authority making the order shall communicate the grounds:
a. Immediately within 24 hours
b. As soon as may be, ordinarily not later than five days
c. Within fifteen days
d. Only after Advisory Board approval
99. In exceptional circumstances, the grounds may be communicated within:
a. Seven days
b. Ten days
c. Twelve days
d. Fifteen days
100. Extension of time beyond five days requires:
a. Approval of the High Court
b. Consent of the Central Government
c. Reasons to be recorded in writing
d. Recommendation of Advisory Board
101. The date from which the five-day period is calculated is the date of:
a. Passing of detention order
b. Arrest
c. Detention
d. Approval by Government
102. The detenue must be afforded the earliest opportunity of making a representation to:
a. Advisory Board
b. High Court
c. Appropriate Government
d. District Magistrate
103. The right to make representation arises under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8(1)
c. Section 6
d. Section 5
104. The authority is not required to disclose facts which it considers to be:
a. Legally irrelevant
b. Confidential
c. Against public interest
d. Politically sensitive
105. The satisfaction regarding non-disclosure of facts under Section 8(2) is that of the:
a. Advisory Board
b. Appropriate Government
c. Detaining authority
d. High Court
106. Section 8(2) creates an exception to the obligation imposed under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8(1)
c. Section 6
d. Section 5
107. Section 9 of the Act deals with the constitution of:
a. Review Committee
b. Special Tribunal
c. Advisory Boards
d. Detention Commission
108. The authority empowered to constitute Advisory Boards under Section 9(1) is:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government and each State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
109. Advisory Boards shall be constituted:
a. Annually
b. Once every five years
c. Whenever necessary
d. Only during emergency
110. Every Advisory Board shall consist of:
a. Two members
b. Three members
c. Five members
d. Such number as prescribed
111. Members of the Advisory Board must be persons who:
a. Are serving police officers
b. Are advocates with ten years’ practice
c. Are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court
d. Are retired civil servants
112. Members of the Advisory Board are appointed by the:
a. President of India
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Appropriate Government
d. Governor
113. The Chairman of the Advisory Board shall be a person who:
a. Is a District Judge
b. Is or has been a Judge of a High Court
c. Is the senior-most member
d. Is nominated by the Central Government only
114. The Chairman of the Advisory Board is appointed by the:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Appropriate Government
d. President
115. In the case of a Union Territory, appointment of a person who is a Judge of a High Court of a State to the Advisory Board requires:
a. Approval of the President
b. Approval of the Supreme Court
c. Previous approval of the State Government concerned
d. Recommendation of the Governor
116. The composition requirement of three members is:
a. Directory
b. Optional
c. Mandatory
d. Subject to judicial discretion
117. Section 10 of the Act deals with:
a. Execution of detention
b. Revocation of detention
c. Reference to Advisory Board
d. Punishment for absconding
118. The appropriate Government shall refer the case to the Advisory Board in:
a. Selected cases only
b. Cases approved by High Court
c. Every case where a detention order has been made
d. Cases exceeding six months
119. The reference to the Advisory Board must be made within:
a. Two weeks from the date of order
b. Three weeks from the date of detention
c. Four weeks from the date of approval
d. One month from the date of order
120. The period of three weeks under Section 10 is calculated from the date of:
a. Passing of detention order
b. Approval by Government
c. Detention of the person
d. Constitution of Advisory Board
121. The appropriate Government shall place before the Advisory Board:
a. Only the detention order
b. Only the grounds of detention
c. Grounds of detention and representation, if any
d. Police investigation report
122. If the detenue has made a representation, it must be placed before the:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Advisory Board
d. District Magistrate
123. Where the detention order has been made by an officer under Section 3(2), the appropriate Government shall also place before the Advisory Board:
a. Approval of Central Government
b. Report of such officer under Section 3(3)
c. Copy of FIR
d. Charge-sheet
124. The Advisory Board referred to in Section 10 must be constituted under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 11
125. The obligation under Section 10 to refer the case to the Advisory Board is:
a. Discretionary
b. Optional
c. Mandatory
d. Subject to court order
126. The words “Save as otherwise expressly provided” indicate that Section 10 operates:
a. Without any exception
b. Subject to other express provisions of the Act
c. Only during emergency
d. Only after Central approval
127. Under Section 11(1), the Advisory Board shall submit its report to:
a. The High Court
b. The Central Government
c. The Appropriate Government
d. The Detaining Authority
128. The period of seven weeks mentioned in Section 11(1) is calculated from:
a. The date of arrest
b. The date of reference to the Advisory Board
c. The date of detention of the person concerned
d. The date of approval of detention
129. Under Section 11(1), the Advisory Board may call for further information from:
a. Only the Appropriate Government
b. Only the person concerned
c. The Appropriate Government or any person called for the purpose through the Appropriate Government or from the person concerned
d. Any person directly without routing through the Government
130. The Advisory Board shall hear the person concerned in person:
a. In every case
b. Only if directed by the Appropriate Government
c. If it considers it essential so to do or if the person concerned desires to be heard
d. Only in cases exceeding three months
131. The phrase “after considering the materials placed before it” appears:
a. After calling for further information
b. Before calling for further information
c. After submitting the report
d. After hearing the person concerned
132. The report of the Advisory Board must specify:
a. Grounds of detention
b. Reasons for satisfaction of Government
c. In a separate part thereof, its opinion as to whether or not there is sufficient cause for detention
d. Recommendations regarding release conditions
133. Under Section 11(2), the Advisory Board must specify:
a. Only whether there is sufficient cause for detention
b. Whether or not there is sufficient cause for detention
c. Whether detention is illegal
d. Whether compensation is payable
134. The requirement that the opinion be specified “in a separate part thereof” appears in:
a. Section 11(1)
b. Section 11(2)
c. Article 22(4)
d. Section 10
135. The Advisory Board submits its report:
a. After hearing in all cases
b. After considering materials and after calling for such further information as it may deem necessary
c. Only after Government approval
d. Without any obligation to seek further material
136. The power to decide whether further information is necessary rests with:
a. The Appropriate Government
b. The Detaining Authority
c. The Advisory Board
d. The High Court
137. When members of the Advisory Board differ in opinion, whose view is treated as the Board’s opinion?
a. Chairman’s opinion
b. Government’s opinion
c. Majority opinion of members
d. Opinion of senior-most member
138. If the Advisory Board consists of three members and their opinions differ, which opinion prevails?
a. Minority opinion
b. Majority opinion
c. Government’s direction
d. Detaining authority’s opinion
139. A person against whom a detention order is made is allowed to appear before the Advisory Board:
a. Through any advocate of choice
b. Only through a government lawyer
c. Only through a family member
d. Not through any legal practitioner
140. The restriction on appearance by a legal practitioner applies to matters connected with:
a. Trial before criminal court
b. Appeal before High Court
c. Reference to Advisory Board proceedings
d. Police investigation
141. Which part of the Advisory Board’s report is NOT confidential?
a. Entire report
b. Evidence portion
c. Opinion portion specifying sufficiency of cause
d. Names of members
142. The proceedings of the Advisory Board are:
a. Public proceedings
b. Confidential
c. Open to media
d. Available on request
143. Which statement is correct regarding confidentiality under Section 11?
a. Entire report must always be disclosed
b. Nothing is confidential
c. Only the opinion part may be disclosed
d. Only evidence part may be disclosed
144. The prohibition on legal practitioner appearance means:
a. The detainee cannot be heard at all
b. The detainee cannot present documents
c. The detainee cannot be represented by a lawyer before the Board
d. The detainee cannot file representation
145. When the Advisory Board reports that there is sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government may:
a. Automatically release the person
b. Confirm the detention order and continue detention for such period as it thinks fit
c. Refer the matter to court
d. Cancel the detention
146. If the Advisory Board finds no sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government must:
a. Seek reconsideration
b. Confirm detention for a limited period
c. Revoke the detention order and release the person forthwith
d. Wait for court approval
147. The power to confirm a detention order after a favorable Advisory Board report lies with:
a. Advisory Board
b. Judiciary
c. Appropriate Government
d. Detaining officer
148. The phrase “for such period as it thinks fit” indicates that the appropriate Government has:
a. No discretion regarding duration
b. Discretion to decide the detention period after confirmation
c. Power only to extend indefinitely
d. Authority limited to seven weeks
149. When the Advisory Board reports lack of sufficient cause, the Government’s duty is:
a. Discretionary
b. Optional
c. Mandatory
d. Conditional on court order
150. Which authority decides whether detention continues after the Advisory Board’s favorable opinion?
a. Police authority
b. Advisory Board
c. Appropriate Government
d. High Court
151. The word “forthwith” in Section 12(2) implies release must be:
a. After administrative review
b. After 24 hours
c. Without delay
d. After court approval
152. Which statement correctly distinguishes Section 12(1) and Section 12(2)?
a. Both provide discretionary powers
b. Both require confirmation of detention
c. One grants discretion; the other imposes a mandatory duty
d. Both apply only to central government
153. If the Advisory Board finds sufficient cause, detention continues:
a. Automatically for maximum statutory period
b. Only if court approves
c. Only if Government confirms order
d. Only if police recommend
154. Which of the following best reflects the legal effect of an unfavorable Advisory Board report?
a. Detention continues until appeal
b. Detention becomes void unless confirmed
c. Detention order must be revoked and detainee released immediately
d. Government may ignore the report
155. The maximum period for which a person may be detained after confirmation of a detention order under Section 12 is:
a. Three months from confirmation
b. Six months from date of detention
c. Six months from confirmation
d. One year from detention
156. The proviso to Section 13 preserves which power of the appropriate Government?
a. Power to extend detention beyond six months
b. Power to revoke or modify detention earlier
c. Power to punish detainee
d. Power to transfer detainee abroad
157. A detention order may be revoked or modified:
a. Only after Advisory Board recommendation
b. Only before confirmation
c. At any time
d. Only after six months
158. Section 14 is stated to be without prejudice to which provision?
a. Section 3 of the Act
b. Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
c. Section 13 of the Act
d. Article 22 of Constitution
159. If a detention order is made by an officer of a State Government, it may be revoked by:
a. Only that officer
b. Only State Government
c. Only Central Government
d. State Government or Central Government
160. A detention order made by an officer of the Central Government or by a State Government may be revoked by:
a. Only the issuing authority
b. Only State Government
c. Central Government
d. Advisory Board
161. Which statement correctly reflects the Central Government’s power under Section 14?
a. It cannot interfere with State detention orders
b. It may revoke or modify any detention order mentioned in Section 14
c. It can act only after court approval
d. It can act only before confirmation
162. The revocation or expiry of a detention order prevents a fresh detention order:
a. Always
b. Only for six months
c. Never, if fresh facts arise
d. Unless court permits
163. A fresh detention order against the same person can be made only when:
a. Same facts continue
b. Advisory Board recommends
c. Fresh facts arise after revocation or expiry
d. Six months pass
164. Who must be satisfied that a fresh detention order should be made on new facts?
a. Judiciary only
b. Advisory Board only
c. Central Government or State Government or authorized officer
d. Police officer
165. Which of the following best describes the legal effect of revocation of a detention order?
a. Permanent bar on future detention
b. Temporary suspension only
c. No bar to fresh detention if new facts arise
d. Automatic release with immunity
166. The phrase “notwithstanding” in Section 14 mainly indicates:
a. Limitation of power
b. Override of usual authority restrictions
c. Judicial review requirement
d. Mandatory court supervision
167. Section 14 primarily deals with:
a. Maximum detention period
b. Procedure before Advisory Board
c. Revocation, modification, and fresh detention orders
d. Grounds of detention
168. The power to temporarily release a detained person lies with:
a. Advisory Board
b. Court
c. Appropriate Government
d. Police officer
169. A person detained under a detention order may be temporarily released:
a. Only without conditions
b. Only with conditions
c. Either without conditions or with conditions accepted by him
d. Only after court permission
170. The appropriate Government may cancel temporary release:
a. Only after violation of condition
b. Only with court approval
c. At any time
d. Only after six months
171. While granting temporary release, the Government may require the person to:
a. Deposit property
b. Enter into a bond with or without sureties
c. Pay fine in advance
d. Report to police daily
172. The purpose of requiring a bond under Section 15 is to ensure:
a. Payment of taxes
b. Due observance of release conditions
c. Court appearance
d. Criminal trial attendance
173. A person temporarily released must surrender:
a. Only if Government sends notice
b. Only if police request
c. At time, place, and authority specified in the release or cancellation order
d. Whenever convenient
174. Failure to surrender without sufficient cause is punishable with:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to two years or fine or both
c. Imprisonment for six months only
d. Warning only
175. If a released person violates any condition imposed or bond terms, the legal consequence is:
a. Immediate fresh detention order only
b. Bond automatically renewed
c. Bond forfeiture and liability to pay penalty
d. No consequence
176. Who is liable to pay penalty when a bond is forfeited under Section 15?
a. Only detainee
b. Only surety
c. Any person bound by the bond
d. Government
177.Which statement correctly reflects the nature of temporary release under Section 15?
a. It permanently cancels detention order
b. It suspends detention for a specified period
c. It converts detention into bail
d. It ends legal proceedings
178. Conditions imposed during temporary release become binding when:
a. Government announces them
b. Court approves them
c. The detained person accepts them
d. Police enforce them
179. The requirement to surrender applies when:
a. Only release period ends
b. Only cancellation order issued
c. Either release order or cancellation order specifies it
d. Court orders separately
180. Section 16 primarily provides protection to whom?
a. Only police officers
b. Only Central Government
c. Central Government, State Government, and any person acting under the Act
d. Only judicial authorities
181. Legal protection under Section 16 applies to actions:
a. Done negligently
b. Done maliciously
c. Done in good faith under the Act
d. Done without authority
182. Which of the following proceedings is barred if action is taken in good faith under the Act?
a. Only civil suits
b. Only criminal prosecutions
c. Suits, prosecutions, or other legal proceedings
d. Only administrative inquiries
183. Protection under Section 16 is available when the act is:
a. Successfully completed only
b. Intended to be done in good faith
c. Ordered by court
d. Approved by Parliament
184. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for protection under Section 16?
a. Action must relate to the Act
b. Action must be done in good faith
c. Action must be legally correct in result
d. Action must be in pursuance of the Act
185. If an act is done maliciously under the guise of this Act, Section 16 protection will:
a. Always apply
b. Apply only if Government approves
c. Not apply because good faith is absent
d. Apply after court review
186. Section 17 repeals which prior law?
a. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
b. National Security Act, 1980
c. Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Ordinance, 1979
d. Preventive Detention Act, 1950
187. The Ordinance repealed by Section 17 was enacted in which year?
a. 1975
b. 1978
c. 1979
d. 1980
188. The repeal under Section 17 affects actions taken under the repealed Ordinance in what way?
a. They become void
b. They lapse automatically
c. They remain valid and are deemed under this Act
d. They require court approval