PCPNDT ACT, 1994 MCQs Set-1

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1. The Preamble of the Act titled “THE PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES (REGULATION AND PREVENTION OF MISUSE) ACT, 1994” primarily provides for—

a. Regulation of medical termination of pregnancy

b. Prohibition of sex selection, before or after conception, and regulation of prenatal diagnostic techniques

c. Establishment of genetic laboratories only

d. Control of population growth measures

2. The Act seeks to regulate prenatal diagnostic techniques for the purposes of detecting—

a. Only genetic abnormalities and chromosomal abnormalities

b. Only metabolic disorders and congenital malformations

c. Genetic abnormalities, metabolic disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, certain congenital malformations, or sex-linked disorders

d. Only sex-linked disorders

3. The misuse sought to be prevented under the Act relates specifically to—

a. Illegal medical practices

b. Unauthorized genetic testing

c. Sex determination leading to female foeticide

d. Unregistered clinics performing diagnostics

4. This Act was enacted by Parliament in the—

a. Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India

b. Forty-Fifth Year of the Republic of India

c. Forty-sixth Year of the Republic of India

d. Forty-third Year of the Republic of India

5. The Act also extends to matters—

a. Strictly limited to diagnostic procedures

b. Connected therewith or incidental thereto

c. Relating only to criminal liability

d. Concerning international medical standards

6. The enactment date of “THE PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES (REGULATION AND PREVENTION OF MISUSE) ACT, 1994” is—

a. 2nd October, 1994

b. 1st January, 1995

c. 15th August, 1994

d. 20th September, 1994

7. The “THE PRE-NATAL DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUES (REGULATION AND PREVENTION OF MISUSE) ACT, 1994” is designated as—

a. Act No. 57 of 1994

b. Act No. 56 of 1994

c. Act No. 58 of 1994

d. Act No. 55 of 1994

8. Section 1 of the Act deals with—

a. Definitions and interpretations

b. Short title, extent and commencement

c. Registration of genetic clinics

d. Prohibition of advertisements

9. This Act may be called the—

a. Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994

b. Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation) Act, 1994

c. Pre-conception and Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994

d. Genetic Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994

10. The Act extends to—

a. The whole of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir

b. The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

c. Only Union Territories

d. Selected States as notified

11. The Act shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may appoint by notification in the—

a. State Gazette

b. Official Gazette

c. Central Registry

d. Parliamentary Bulletin

12. The commencement of the Act is dependent upon—

a. Approval of Parliament

b. Decision of the Supreme Court

c. Notification by the Central Government in the Official Gazette

d. Resolution of State Governments

13. Section 2 of the Act deals with—

a. Registration of clinics

b. Definitions

c. Offences and penalties

d. Powers of Appropriate Authority

14. “Appropriate Authority” means the Appropriate Authority appointed under—

a. Section 7

b. Section 10

c. Section 17

d. Section 20

15. “Board” means the—

a. State Supervisory Board constituted under section 7

b. Central Supervisory Board constituted under section 7

c. National Medical Board constituted under section 10

d. Advisory Board constituted under section 16

16. “Conceptus” means—

a. Only embryo after eight weeks

b. Any product of conception from implantation till birth

c. Any product of conception at any stage of development from fertilization until birth including extra embryonic membranes as well as the embryo or foetus

d. Only foetus after fifty-seventh day

17. “Embryo” means a developing human organism after fertilization till the end of—

a. Six weeks (forty-two days)

b. Seven weeks (forty-nine days)

c. four weeks (twenty- eight days)

d. Eight weeks (Fifty-six days)

18. “Foetus” means a human organism during the period of its development beginning on the—

a. Fifty-sixth day following fertilization

b. Fifty-seventh day following fertilization or creation and ending at birth

c. Sixtieth day following fertilization

d. Forty-ninth day following fertilization

19. In the definition of “foetus”, the period excludes—

a. Time prior to fertilization

b. Time after birth

c. Any time in which its development has been suspended

d. Time before implantation only

20. “Genetic Counseling Centre” means—

a. A place only for conducting tests

b. A place for surgical procedures

c. A laboratory for sample analysis

d. An institute, hospital, nursing home or any place which provides for genetic counselling to patients

21. “Genetic Clinic” means a place used for—

a. Only genetic counselling

b. Conducting pre-natal diagnostic procedures

c. Conducting post-natal treatment

d. Storage of medical records

22. As per the Explanation to clause (d), “Genetic Clinic” includes—

a. Only fixed hospitals

b. Only government institutions

c. A vehicle where ultrasound or imaging equipment capable of determining sex of the foetus or portable equipment with potential for sex detection or selection is used

d. Only diagnostic laboratories

23. “Genetic Laboratory” includes a place where facilities are provided for—

a. Conducting surgeries

b. Conducting analysis or tests of samples received from Genetic Clinic for pre-natal diagnostic test

c. Providing counselling services

d. Maintaining patient records only

24. As per the Explanation to clause (e), “Genetic Laboratory” includes—

a. A place where ultrasound or imaging equipment capable of determining sex of the foetus or portable equipment with potential for sex detection or selection is used

b. A place having only blood testing facilities

c. Only pathology labs

d. Only government approved labs

25. “Gynaecologist” means a person who possesses—

a. A diploma in obstetrics

b. A graduate degree in medicine

c. A post-graduate qualification in gynaecology and obstetrics

d. A certificate in reproductive health

26. “Medical geneticist” includes a person who possesses—

a. Only a post-graduate degree in medicine

b. A degree or diploma in genetic science in specified fields or requisite experience after prescribed qualifications

c. Only experience in obstetrics

d. Only a diploma in radiology

27. For being a “Medical geneticist”, the required experience is not less than—

a. One year

b. Three years

c. One years

d. Two years

28. The experience for “Medical geneticist” must be after obtaining—

a. Only a diploma in genetics

b. Any medical qualification not necessarily recognized

c. Any one of the medical qualifications recognised under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956 or a post-graduate degree in biological sciences

d. Only MBBS degree

29. “Paediatrician” means a person who possesses—

a. A diploma in child health

b. A post-graduate qualification in paediatrics

c. Any medical degree with experience

d. A certificate in neonatology

30. “Pre-natal diagnostic procedures” includes procedures such as—

a. Only surgical interventions

b. Only laboratory testing

c. Ultrasonography, foetoscopy, and taking or removing samples of amniotic fluid, chorionic villi, blood or any other tissue or fluid

d. Only imaging techniques

31. “Pre-natal diagnostic procedures” include procedures on—

a. A man or a woman for being sent to a Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic

b. Only embryos

c. Only pregnant women

d. Only foetus after development

32. The purpose of “pre-natal diagnostic procedures” includes—

a. Only treatment of diseases

b. Selection of sex before or after conception

c. Only post-natal care

d. General health screening

33. “Pre-natal diagnostic techniques” includes—

a. Only diagnostic tests

b. Only procedures conducted in laboratories

c. All pre-natal diagnostic procedures and pre-natal diagnostic tests

d. Only imaging procedures

34. “Pre-natal diagnostic test” means—

a. Only blood test of pregnant woman

b. Only imaging without analysis

c. Only genetic screening after birth

d. Ultrasonography or any test or analysis of specified samples to detect specified abnormalities or diseases

35. “Pre-natal diagnostic test” is conducted to detect—

a. Only chromosomal abnormalities

b. Only genetic disorders

c. Genetic or metabolic disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital anomalies, haemoglobinopathies or sex-linked diseases

d. Only congenital anomalies

36. “Prescribed” means—

a. Prescribed by the Central Government orders

b. Prescribed by regulations

c. Prescribed by rules made under this Act

d. Prescribed by courts

37. A “registered medical practitioner” means a person who—

a. Possesses any medical degree

b. Possesses recognised medical qualification and whose name is entered in a State Medical Register

c. Is registered with a private hospital

d. Has experience in medical field

38. “Regulations” means—

a. Regulations framed by the Board under this Act

b. Orders passed by courts

c. Rules made by the Central Government

d. Guidelines issued by hospitals

39. “Sex selection” includes—

a. Only determination of sex after conception

b. Any procedure or technique only after fertilization

c. Only surgical methods for sex determination

d. Any procedure, technique, test or administration or prescription or provision to ensure or increase probability of a particular sex

40. “Sonologist or imaging specialist” means a person who—

a. Only possesses diploma in radiology

b. Possesses any recognised medical qualification or a post-graduate qualification in ultrasonography or imaging techniques or radiology

c. Only operates ultrasound machines

d. Has experience in pathology

41. “State Board” means—

a. Only State Supervisory Board

b. Only Union territory Board

c. Any advisory board of State

d. State Supervisory Board or a Union territory Supervisory Board constituted under Section 16A

42. “State Government” in relation to a Union territory with Legislature means—

a. The Chief Minister of that Union territory

b. The Governor appointed by the President

c. The Administrator appointed by the President under article 239 of the Constitution

d. The Central Government

43. Section 3 of the Act provides for—

a. Prohibition of advertisements

b. Regulation of Genetic Counselling Centres, Genetic Laboratories and Genetic Clinics

c. Constitution of Board

d. Offences and penalties

44. On and from the commencement of this Act, no Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic shall conduct activities relating to pre-natal diagnostic techniques unless—

a. Approved by State Government

b. Supervised by a registered practitioner

c. Registered under this Act

d. Licensed by a private authority

45. A Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic is prohibited from—

a. Conducting or associating with or helping in conducting activities relating to pre-natal diagnostic techniques without registration

b. Conducting research activities

c. Employing qualified persons

d. Maintaining records

46. No Genetic Counselling Centre or Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic shall employ or take services of any person who—

a. Is not a government employee

b. Does not possess qualifications as may be prescribed

c. Is not locally resident

d. Is not approved by court

47. The prohibition on employment applies to persons engaged—

a. Only on payment basis

b. Only on honorary basis

c. Both on honorary basis or on payment

d. Only on contractual basis

48. No medical geneticist, gynaecologist, paediatrician, registered medical practitioner or any other person shall conduct pre-natal diagnostic techniques—

a. Without patient consent

b. Without court approval

c. Without supervision of Central Government

d. At a place other than a place registered under this Act

49. The prohibition under clause (3) extends to—

a. Only direct conduct of techniques

b. Only assistance through institutions

c. Conducting or causing to be conducted or aiding in conducting by himself or through any other person

d. Only private practice

50. Section 3A of the Act provides for—

a. Regulation of clinics

b. Prohibition of sex-selection

c. Registration of laboratories

d. Maintenance of records

51. Under Section 3A, sex-selection is prohibited to be conducted by—

a. Only registered medical practitioners

b. Only specialists in infertility

c. Any person, including a specialist or a team of specialists in the field of infertility

d. Only unqualified persons

52. No person shall conduct or cause to be conducted or aid in conducting sex selection—

a. Only by himself

b. Only through institutions

c. By himself or by any other person

d. Only with prior permission

53. The prohibition of sex-selection applies on—

a. Only women

b. Only men

c. Woman or man or both

d. Only pregnant women

54. Sex-selection is prohibited in relation to—

a. Only embryo and foetus

b. Only gametes

c. Tissue, embryo, conceptus, fluid or gametes derived from either or both

d. Only conceptus

55. The prohibition under Section 3A extends to sex selection conducted—

a. Only on a pregnant woman

b. On a woman or a man or on both

c. Only on infertile couples

d. Only on minors

56. Section 3A prohibits sex selection on which of the following materials?

a. Only embryo and foetus

b. Only gametes

c. Any tissue, embryo, conceptus, fluid or gametes derived from either or both

d. Only conceptus after fertilization

57. The expression “including a specialist or a team of specialists in the field of infertility” in Section 3A signifies that—

a. Only specialists are prohibited

b. Specialists are exempted from prohibition

c. The prohibition applies to all persons without exception

d. Only teams of specialists are liable

58. The manner of committing the prohibited act under Section 3A includes—

a. Only direct performance by a person

b. Only indirect assistance

c. Conducting, causing to be conducted, or aiding in conducting by himself or by any other person

d. Only supervision of the procedure

59. Under Section 3A, sex selection is prohibited when carried out—

a. Only after conception

b. Only before conception

c. Without restriction as to stage or subject, covering specified persons and materials

d. Only during pregnancy

60. Which of the following situations would amount to “sex selection” within the meaning of the Act?

a. Conducting ultrasonography to detect congenital abnormalities

b. Prescribing a method intended to increase the probability of a child of a particular sex before conception

c. Genetic testing for metabolic disorders

d. Routine antenatal check-up

61. A fertility specialist advises a couple on a technique intended to ensure the birth of a male child. Which of the following is correct?

a. Permissible if done before conception

b. Permissible with consent of both partners

c. Prohibited irrespective of stage or method

d. Permissible if no equipment is used

62. Which of the following best reflects the scope of prohibition relating to sex selection?

a. Limited only to procedures conducted on a pregnant woman

b. Applies only to post-conception diagnostic techniques

c. Extends to any method influencing sex determination, whether before or after conception

d. Applies only to laboratory-based techniques

63. A person indirectly assists another in selecting the sex of an embryo through advice or facilitation. Under the scheme of the Act, such conduct—

a. Is not covered as no direct act is done

b. Is punishable only if money is involved

c. Falls within the prohibition as aiding or causing sex selection

d. Is permitted if done outside a clinic

64. Section 3B of the Act provides for—

a. Regulation of pre-natal diagnostic procedures

b. Prohibition on sale of ultrasound machines, etc., to unregistered entities

c. Constitution of Supervisory Boards

d. Maintenance of records

65. Under Section 3B, the prohibition on sale applies to—

a. Only manufacturers of medical equipment

b. Only registered dealers

c. Any person

d. Only importers of machines

66. Which of the following equipment is covered under the prohibition in Section 3B?

a. Only ultrasound machines

b. Only scanners

c. Ultrasound machine or imaging machine or scanner or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of foetus

d. Only portable diagnostic devices

67. The prohibition under Section 3B operates where the sale is made to—

a. Any hospital

b. Only private clinics

c. Any Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory, Genetic Clinic or any other person not registered under the Act

d. Only government institutions

68. Section 4 of the Act provides for—

a. Prohibition of advertisements

b. Regulation of pre-natal diagnostic techniques

c. Constitution of Appropriate Authority

d. Offences and penalties

69. Under Section 4(1), no place, including a registered Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic, shall be used for conducting pre-natal diagnostic techniques except—

a. With prior court approval

b. For purposes specified in clause (2) and after satisfying conditions in clause (3)

c. Only in government hospitals

d. With consent of spouse

70. Pre-natal diagnostic techniques shall be conducted only for the purpose of detection of—

a. Any disease as decided by the doctor

b. Only genetic disorders

c. Specified abnormalities including chromosomal abnormalities, genetic metabolic diseases, haemoglobinopathies, sex-linked genetic diseases, congenital anomalies or as specified by the Central Supervisory Board

d. Only congenital anomalies

71. Which of the following is NOT a condition under Section 4(3) for conducting pre-natal diagnostic techniques?

a. Age of pregnant woman above thirty-five years

b. Exposure to teratogenic agents

c. Consent of husband is mandatory

d. Family history of genetic disease or deformities

72. Under Section 4(3), the qualified person must be satisfied—

a. For reasons to be recorded in writing

b. Without recording reasons

c. Orally

d. Only through medical reports

73. The proviso to Section 4(3) requires that the person conducting ultrasonography shall—

a. Take prior approval from authority

b. Maintain partial records

c. Keep complete record in the clinic in prescribed manner

d. Only inform the patient

74. Any deficiency or inaccuracy in records of ultrasonography shall amount to contravention of—

a. Section 3 only

b. Section 4 only

c. Section 5 or Section 6 unless contrary is proved

d. Section 20 only

75. Under Section 4(4), no person including a relative or husband shall seek or encourage pre-natal diagnostic techniques except—

a. With written consent

b. For purposes specified in clause (2)

c. For family balancing

d. With approval of doctor

76. Section 4(5) prohibits seeking or encouraging—

a. Only diagnostic procedures

b. Only genetic counselling

c. Only laboratory testing

d. Any sex-selection technique on a woman or a man or both

77. Section 5 of the Act provides for—

a. Regulation of clinics

b. Written consent of pregnant woman and prohibition of communicating the sex of foetus

c. Prohibition of advertisements

d. Registration of authorities

78. Under Section 5(1), pre-natal diagnostic procedures shall not be conducted unless the person—

a. Obtains oral consent of the pregnant woman

b. Has explained all known side and after effects of such procedures to the pregnant woman

c. Takes approval from Appropriate Authority

d. Ensures presence of relatives

79. The written consent of the pregnant woman under Section 5(1) must be—

a. In the language which she understands and in the prescribed form

b. In any language convenient to the doctor

c. Only in English

d. Not mandatory if procedure is urgent

80. Under Section 5(1), after obtaining written consent, the person shall—

a. Give a copy of such written consent to the pregnant woman

b. Submit it to authority immediately

c. Keep it confidential only

d. Display it in clinic

81. Section 5(2) prohibits communication of the sex of the foetus—

a. Only to the pregnant woman

b. Only to relatives

c. To the pregnant woman or her relatives or any other person by words, signs or in any other manner

d. Only through written communication

82. Section 6 of the Act provides for—

a. Regulation of consent

b. Determination of sex prohibited

c. Registration of clinics

d. Constitution of Boards

83. Under Section 6(a), which entities are prohibited from conducting pre-natal diagnostic techniques for determining the sex of a foetus?

a. Only unregistered clinics

b. Only Genetic Clinics

c. Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic

d. Only government hospitals

84. The prohibition under Section 6(a) applies to conducting or causing to be conducted pre-natal diagnostic techniques including—

a. Only foetoscopy

b. Only blood tests

c. Only genetic sampling

d. Ultrasonography

85. Section 6(b) extends the prohibition to—

a. Only registered practitioners

b. Any person conducting or causing to be conducted pre-natal diagnostic techniques for sex determination

c. Only laboratory technicians

d. Only specialists in genetics

86. Section 6(c) prohibits—

a. Only determination of sex after conception

b. Only use of diagnostic machines

c. Causing or allowing selection of sex before or after conception by any means

d. Only communication of sex

87. Section 7 of the Act provides for—

a. Registration of Genetic Clinics

b. Constitution of Central Supervisory Board

c. Prohibition of sex selection

d. Maintenance of records

88. The Central Supervisory Board is constituted by—

a. State Government

b. Appropriate Authority

c. Central Government

d. Parliament

89. The Central Supervisory Board is constituted to—

a. Grant licenses to clinics

b. Exercise powers and perform functions conferred under the Act

c. Conduct investigations

d. Adjudicate disputes

90. The Chairman of the Central Supervisory Board is—

a. Secretary, Department of Health

b. Minister in charge of Ministry or Department of Family Welfare

c. Director General of Health Services

d. Member of Parliament

91. The Vice-Chairman of the Board is—

a. Director General of Health Services

b. Joint Secretary in Family Welfare

c. Secretary to the Government of India in charge of Department of Family Welfare

d. Minister of Law and Justice

92. Under clause (c), the Central Government appoints three members to represent—

a. Only Health Ministry

b. Women and Child Development, Legal Affairs/Legislative Department, and Indian System of Medicine and Homoeopathy

c. Finance, Defence and Education Ministries

d. Only Law Ministry

93. The Director General of Health Services of the Central Government is included in the Board as—

a. Chairman

b. Vice-Chairman

c. Ex-officio member

d. Member-Secretary

94. Under clause (e), ten members are appointed by the Central Government consisting of—

a. Two from each of five specified categories

b. Five from medical field only

c. Ten from government departments

d. Only women representatives

95. Which of the following is NOT among the categories under clause (e)?

a. Eminent social scientists

b. Representatives of women welfare organisations

c. Eminent engineers

d. Eminent paediatricians

96. The number of women Members of Parliament in the Board is—

a. Three

b. Two

c. Four

d. Five

97. Of the women Members of Parliament in the Board—

a. All are elected by the House of the People

b. Two are elected by the Council of States

c. Two are elected by the House of the People and one by the Council of States

d. All are nominated by the President

98. Under clause (g), the Central Government appoints how many members to represent States and Union territories?

a. Four

b. Three

c. Five

d. Five

99. The appointment of members under clause (g) is made—

a. Without consultation

b. On recommendation of Central Government only

c. On recommendation of the State Government or Union territory

d. By election

100. The Member-Secretary of the Board shall be—

a. Any officer of Central Government

b. A Member of Parliament

c. A medical practitioner

d. An officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent in charge of Family Welfare

101. Section 8 of the Act provides for—

a. Functions of the Board

b. Terms of office of members

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Registration of clinics

102. The term of office of a member appointed under clause (e) or clause (f) of sub-section (2) of section 7, other than an ex-officio member, shall be—

a. One year

b. Two years

c. five years

d. Three years

103. The term of office of a member appointed under clause (g) of sub-section (2) of section 7, other than an ex-officio member, shall be—

a. Three years

b. Two years

c. Five years

d. One years

104. A casual vacancy in the office of a member shall be filled by—

a. Election by the Board

b. Appointment by the Chairman

c. Central Government by making a fresh appointment

d. Nomination by State Government

105. A member appointed to fill a casual vacancy shall hold office—

a. For a fresh full term

b. For two years

c. For the remainder of the term of the person replaced

d. At the pleasure of the Chairman

106. The Vice-Chairman shall perform functions—

a. As prescribed by rules only

b. Assigned by the Central Government

c. Assigned by the Chairman from time to time

d. As decided by majority of Board

107. The procedure to be followed by the members in discharge of their functions shall be—

a. Determined by the Chairman

b. Prescribed

c. Decided by the Central Government

d. Left to discretion of members

108. Section 9 of the Act provides for—

a. Constitution of Board

b. Meetings of the Board

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Registration of clinics

109. The Board shall meet at such time and place and observe such rules of procedure (including quorum) as may be—

a. Directed by the Chairman

b. Prescribed by the Central Government

c. Provided by regulations

d. Decided by majority of members

110. As per the proviso to Section 9(1), the Board shall meet at least once in—

a. Six months

b. Three months

c. One year

d. Two years

111. At the meetings of the Board, the presiding authority shall be—

a. Any member chosen by the Central Government

b. Chairman, and in his absence, the Vice-Chairman

c. Member-Secretary only

d. Senior-most member

112. If both the Chairman and Vice-Chairman are unable to attend, the meeting shall be presided over by—

a. Member-Secretary

b. A person nominated by Central Government

c. Any other member chosen by members present

d. Senior-most ex-officio member

113. Questions before the Board shall be decided by—

a. Unanimous decision

b. Chairman alone

c. Majority of votes of members present and voting

d. Central Government direction

114. In case of equality of votes, the presiding authority shall have—

a. No vote

b. Only original vote

c. Power to adjourn only

d. A second or casting vote

115. Members other than ex-officio members shall receive allowances—

a. As fixed by Chairman

b. From Central Government

c. Only if approved by Parliament

d. From the Board as may be prescribed

116. Section 10 of the Act provides for—

a. Meetings of the Board

b. Vacancies, etc., not to invalidate proceedings of the Board

c. Functions of the Board

d. Registration of clinics

117. Under Section 10, no act or proceeding of the Board shall be invalid merely by reason of—

a. Lack of quorum

b. Any vacancy in, or any defect in the constitution of, the Board

c. Absence of Chairman

d. Non-publication of agenda

118. Proceedings of the Board shall not be invalid merely due to—

a. Delay in meetings

b. Defect in appointment of a person acting as a member of the Board

c. Non-attendance of members

d. Disagreement among members

119. An irregularity in the procedure of the Board will not invalidate proceedings if—

a. It is approved by Central Government

b. It is minor in nature

c. It does not affect the merits of the case

d. It is recorded in minutes

120. Section 10 collectively protects proceedings of the Board from invalidation on grounds relating to—

a. Only procedural delays

b. Substantive illegality

c. Vacancy, defective constitution or appointment, and procedural irregularity not affecting merits

d. Financial irregularities

121. Section 11 of the Act provides for—

a. Meetings of the Board

b. Temporary association of persons with the Board for particular purposes

c. Vacancies in the Board

d. Registration of clinics

122. Under Section 11(1), the Board may associate with itself—

a. Only government officers

b. Only members of Parliament

c. Any person whose assistance or advice it may desire

d. Only medical experts

123. The manner and purposes for such association under Section 11(1) shall be—

a. Determined by the Chairman

b. Prescribed by rules

c. Determined by regulations

d. Decided by Central Government

124. A person associated with the Board under Section 11(1) shall have the right to—

a. Vote at meetings

b. Take part in discussions relevant to that purpose

c. Act as Chairman

d. Decide agenda of meetings

125. Such associated person shall—

a. Be treated as a permanent member

b. Have voting rights in meetings

c. Not be a member for any other purpose and shall not have a right to vote

d. Replace absent members

126. Section 12 of the Act provides for—

a. Meetings of the Board

b. Appointment of officers and other employees of the Board

c. Functions of the Board

d. Registration of clinics

127. Under Section 12(1), the Board may appoint officers and other employees—

a. Only through direct recruitment

b. Only on deputation

c. On deputation or otherwise, as it may consider necessary

d. Only with approval of Parliament

128. The power of the Board to appoint officers and employees is subject to—

a. Directions of Chairman

b. Regulations made in this behalf

c. Orders of State Government

d. Approval of courts

129. The proviso to Section 12(1) requires that appointment of certain categories of officers shall be subject to—

a. Approval of State Government

b. Recommendation of Board members

c. Consent of Chairman

d. Approval of the Central Government

130. Under Section 12(2), the conditions of service and remuneration of officers and employees shall be—

a. Determined by Central Government

b. Fixed by Chairman

c. Specified in the regulations

d. Decided by majority of Board

131. Section 13 of the Act provides for—

a. Appointment of employees

b. Authentication of orders and other instruments of the Board

c. Meetings of the Board

d. Disqualifications of members

132. All orders and decisions of the Board shall be authenticated by the signature of—

a. Chairman or any other member authorised by the Board

b. Any officer of the Board

c. Member-Secretary only

d. Central Government officer

133. All other instruments issued by the Board shall be authenticated by the signature of—

a. Chairman only

b. Any member of the Board

c. Member-Secretary or any other officer authorised in like manner by the Board

d. Director General of Health Services

134. Section 14 of the Act provides for—

a. Qualifications of members

b. Disqualifications for appointment as member

c. Functions of the Board

d. Meetings of the Board

135. A person shall be disqualified for being appointed as a member if he has been—

a. Accused of an offence

b. Convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offence involving moral turpitude, in the opinion of the Central Government

c. Charged with a civil wrong

d. Under investigation

136. A person is disqualified under Section 14 if he is—

a. An undischarged insolvent

b. A discharged insolvent

c. A government servant

d. Retired from service

137. Disqualification arises where a person is—

a. Mentally weak

b. Under medical treatment

c. Physically disabled

d. Declared of unsound mind by a competent court

138. A person shall be disqualified if he has been—

a. Suspended from private service

b. Removed or dismissed from service of Government or a Corporation owned or controlled by the Government

c. Transferred from service

d. Warned by employer

139. Disqualification is attracted where, in the opinion of the Central Government, a person has—

a. Academic deficiency

b. Financial or other interest in the Board likely to affect prejudicially the discharge of his functions as a member

c. No experience

d. Foreign connections

140. A person shall be disqualified if, in the opinion of the Central Government, he has been associated with—

a. Public welfare schemes

b. Medical research

c. Use or promotion of pre-natal diagnostic technique for determination of sex or any sex selection technique

d. Government advisory bodies

141. Section 15 of the Act provides for—

a. Disqualifications of members

b. Eligibility of member for reappointment

c. Meetings of the Board

d. Functions of the Board

142. Under Section 15, a person ceasing to be a member shall—

a. Not be eligible for reappointment

b. Be eligible for reappointment subject to prescribed terms and conditions

c. Be eligible only after a gap of one term

d. Require approval of Parliament

143. The proviso to Section 15 restricts that a member, other than an ex-officio member, shall not be appointed for more than—

a. Two consecutive term

b. One consecutive terms

c. Three consecutive terms

d. Four consecutive terms

144. Section 16 of the Act provides for—

a. Powers of Appropriate Authority

b. Functions of the Board

c. Registration of clinics

d. Disqualifications of members

145. The Board shall advise the Central Government on policy matters relating to—

a. Only medical education

b. Hospital administration

c. Only public health funding

d. Use of pre-natal diagnostic techniques, sex selection techniques and against their misuse

146. The Board is required to review and monitor—

a. Only functioning of hospitals

b. Implementation of the Act and rules made thereunder and recommend changes

c. Only financial matters

d. Only State policies

147. One of the functions of the Board is to create public awareness against—

a. Medical negligence

b. Hospital malpractice

c. Genetic disorders

d. Pre-conception sex selection and pre-natal determination of sex of foetus leading to female foeticide

148. The Board shall lay down—

a. Code of conduct for persons working at Genetic Counselling Centres, Genetic Laboratories and Genetic Clinics

b. Rules for courts

c. Guidelines for police authorities

d. Financial regulations

149. The Board shall oversee the performance of—

a. Only Central Government departments

b. Various bodies constituted under the Act and take steps for proper and effective implementation

c. Only private clinics

d. Only laboratories

150. The Board may perform—

a. Only functions expressly mentioned

b. Only advisory functions

c. Any other functions as may be prescribed under the Act

d. Only regulatory functions

151. Section 16A of the Act provides for—

a. Functions of the Central Board

b. Constitution of State Supervisory Board and Union territory Supervisory Board

c. Registration of clinics

d. Disqualifications of members

152. Under Section 16A(1), the State Supervisory Board or Union territory Supervisory Board shall be constituted by—

a. Parliament

b. Central Government only

c. Each State and Union territory having Legislature

d. Appropriate Authority

153. One of the functions of the State/UT Supervisory Board is to—

a. Grant registration to clinics

b. Create public awareness against pre-conception sex selection and pre-natal determination of sex of foetus leading to female foeticide in the State

c. Conduct medical tests

d. Issue licenses to doctors

154. The State/UT Supervisory Board shall review—

a. Activities of hospitals

b. Activities of Appropriate Authorities functioning in the State and recommend appropriate action against them

c. Financial records of clinics

d. Only government schemes

155. The State/UT Supervisory Board is required to monitor—

a. Implementation of provisions of the Act and rules and make suitable recommendations to the Board

b. Only court proceedings

c. Only private institutions

d. Only medical colleges

156. The Board shall send consolidated reports—

a. Only to State Government

b. Only to Appropriate Authority

c. To the Board and the Central Government as may be prescribed

d. Only to courts

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