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The Food Safety and Standards Act MCQs Set-7
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Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-7
1. Food Analyst report includes:
a. Only results
b. Method of sampling and analysis
c. Price of food
d. Marketing details
2. Appeal against Food Analyst report lies before:
a. Police Officer
b. Designated Officer
c. Manufacturer
d. Court directly
3. Before taking a sample for analysis, Food Safety Officer must give:
a. Oral warning
b. Written notice
c. No notice
d. Police report
4. Notice of sampling is given to:
a. Only manufacturer
b. Only court
c. Person from whom sample is taken and concerned person
d. Media
5. Food Safety Officer generally divides sample into:
a. Two parts
b. Three parts
c. Four parts
d. Five parts
6. Each part of sample must be:
a. Sold
b. Marked and sealed
c. Frozen only
d. Discarded
7. If person refuses to sign sample, Food Safety Officer shall:
a. Cancel sampling
b. Call witnesses for signature
c. Ignore sample
d. Arrest person immediately
8. One part of sample is sent to:
a. Police station
b. Food Analyst
c. Court
d. Manufacturer
9. Two parts of sample are sent to:
a. Designated Officer for safe custody
b. Retailer
c. Media
d. Import authority
10. One part may be sent to accredited laboratory if requested by:
a. Police officer
b. Food Business Operator
c. Judge
d. Consumer court
11. Accredited laboratory sample is sent under intimation to:
a. Manufacturer only
b. Designated Officer
c. Mayor
d. Court only
12. If test reports differ, final analysis is done by:
a. Police lab
b. Referral laboratory
c. Private company
d. Food business operator
13. Food Safety Officer must send sample to Food Analyst by:
a. Same day
b. Next working day
c. Within 7 days
d. Within 30 days
14. The sample is sent to Food Analyst for:
a. Storage
b. Sale approval
c. Analysis and report
d. Disposal
15. If sample part is lost or damaged, replacement is sent by:
a. Court
b. Designated Officer
c. Police Officer
d. Manufacturer
16. Replacement sample is sent on requisition of:
a. Food Analyst or Food Safety Officer
b. Consumer only
c. Media
d. Retailer
17. Seized food article must be produced before Designated Officer within:
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 15 days
18. Seized article is produced after receipt of:
a. Court order
b. Food Analyst report
c. Police report
d. Import license
19. If application is made, Designated Officer directs production of seized article:
a. Verbally
b. By written order
c. By phone call
d. Through media notice
20. Imported food samples are taken by:
a. Local police
b. Authorised officer of Food Authority
c. Retailer
d. Manufacturer
21. Imported food sample is sent to:
a. Local court
b. Notified laboratory Food Analyst
c. Customs officer only
d. Retail shop
22. Report for imported food sample is sent within:
a. 2 days
b. 5 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
23. Imported food analysis report is sent to:
a. Designated Officer
b. Authorised officer
c. Manufacturer
d. Police station
24. Procedure for Food Safety Officer and Food Analyst is decided by:
a. Court
b. Regulations
c. Police rules
d. Manufacturer
25. A person may render food injurious to health by:
a. Freezing food
b. Adding substances to food
c. Packaging food properly
d. Labeling food
26. Using an ingredient in food preparation is considered:
a. Safe practice
b. Operation that may render food injurious
c. Marketing activity
d. Storage method only
27. Abstracting constituents from food refers to:
a. Adding vitamins
b. Removing natural components of food
c. Cooking food
d. Selling food
28. Food may be rendered injurious by:
a. Only adding chemicals
b. Subjecting food to any process or treatment
c. Refrigeration only
d. Transportation only
29. These operations are considered offensive when done with knowledge that food:
a. Will be exported only
b. May be sold or consumed
c. Will be stored forever
d. Will be destroyed
30. In determining whether food is unsafe, consideration includes:
a. Color of packaging only
b. Normal conditions of use and handling
c. Brand popularity
d. Advertising method
31. Consumer information includes:
a. Only price
b. Label information and health warnings
c. Shop address only
d. Employee details
32. Safety assessment includes probable:
a. Fashion effects
b. Immediate, short-term, long-term health effects
c. Profit effects
d. Marketing effects only
33. Assessment also considers:
a. Weather conditions
b. Cumulative toxic effects
c. Transport cost
d. Shelf design
34. Particular health sensitivities relate to:
a. All consumers equally
b. Specific category of consumers
c. Only manufacturers
d. Only sellers
35. Food is not deemed unsafe if deterioration is due to:
a. Adulteration
b. Natural causes beyond human control
c. Mixing chemicals
d. Wrong labeling
36. “Injury” under this section includes:
a. Only permanent damage
b. Only financial loss
c. Any impairment, temporary or permanent
d. Only physical injury
37. While deciding penalty, Adjudicating Officer considers:
a. Weather conditions
b. Gain or unfair advantage from violation
c. Brand value
d. Packaging design
38. Loss caused or likely to be caused is:
a. Ignored
b. Considered while deciding penalty
c. Paid by government only
d. Not relevant
39. Repetitive nature of contravention means:
a. First-time offence only
b. Repeated violation by offender
c. Accident only
d. Legal compliance
40. Whether contravention was without knowledge is:
a. Always ignored
b. Considered in penalty determination
c. Always punished harshly
d. Not recorded
41. Penalty factors include:
a. Only profit
b. Any other relevant factor
c. Only food type
d. Only packaging
42. Under Section 50, selling food not as demanded results in penalty up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹2 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
43. Section 50 applies when food is not:
a. Properly cooked
b. Of nature, substance, or quality demanded
c. Properly priced
d. Properly stored only
44. The offence under Section 50 must be:
a. In consumer’s favour
b. To purchaser’s prejudice
c. Approved by authority
d. Reported by media
45. Persons under Section 31(2) for non-compliance are liable to penalty up to:
a. ₹5 lakh
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹25,000
d. ₹10,000
46. Penalty under Section 49 is decided by:
a. Police officer
b. Adjudicating Officer or Tribunal
c. Food vendor
d. Consumer court only
47. One key factor in penalty assessment is:
a. Colour of food
b. Amount of unfair advantage gained
c. Shop location
d. Advertisement style
48. Section 50 mainly protects:
a. Government revenue
b. Consumer interest against misrepresentation in food quality
c. Export policy
d. Agriculture policy
49. Penalty for sub-standard food may extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹2 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
50. Sub-standard food offence applies to:
a. Only manufacture
b. Only sale
c. Manufacture, storage, sale, distribution or import
d. Only export
51. Penalty for misbranded food may extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹3 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
52. Misbranded food provisions apply to:
a. Only packaged food
b. Manufacture, sale, storage, distribution or import
c. Only restaurants
d. Only exports
53. Under Section 52, Adjudicating Officer may direct:
a. Jail sentence only
b. Corrective action or destruction of food
c. Export approval
d. Price revision
54. Penalty for misleading advertisement may extend up to:
a. ₹3 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹20 lakh
55. Misleading advertisement includes:
a. Only pricing errors
b. False description or misleading nature/quality claims
c. Only packaging issues
d. Only storage errors
56. A false guarantee in advertisement is:
a. Allowed
b. Not relevant
c. An offence under Section 53
d. Mandatory
57. Accurate label composition:
a. Always removes liability
b. Never relevant
c. Does not prevent finding of contravention
d. Cancels penalty automatically
58. Section 53 covers:
a. Only verbal claims
b. Publication of advertisements
c. Only packaging design
d. Only export documents
59. Misbranding penalty includes food that is:
a. Fresh only
b. Misbranded in any form
c. Organic only
d. Frozen only
60. Who can be liable under Section 51–53 offences?
a. Only manufacturers
b. Any person involved including manufacturer, seller, distributor, importer
c. Only retailers
d. Only consumers
61. Penalty for food containing extraneous matter may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
62. Extraneous matter in food refers to:
a. Added vitamins only
b. Foreign or unwanted substances in food
c. Natural nutrients
d. Food packaging material only
63. Penalty for failure to comply with Food Safety Officer directions may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
64. Section 55 applies to:
a. Only consumers
b. Food business operator or importer
c. Only government officers
d. Only retailers
65. Failure to comply must be:
a. With reasonable ground
b. Without reasonable ground
c. Always intentional
d. Always accidental
66. Penalty for unhygienic or unsanitary food processing may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
67. Unhygienic conditions refer to:
a. Proper cleaning
b. Unsafe or unclean manufacturing conditions
c. Packaging errors only
d. Marketing defects
68. Section 54 applies when food contains:
a. Only preservatives
b. Extraneous matter
c. Only nutrients
d. Only additives
69. Liability under Sections 54–56 can apply to:
a. Only manufacturers personally
b. Any person directly or through another person
c. Only importers
d. Only wholesalers
70. Food Safety Officer’s directions are issued under:
a. Company policy
b. FSS Act, rules, regulations or orders
c. Consumer demand
d. Court judgment only
71. Penalty under Section 55 is related to:
a. Advertising violations
b. Non-compliance with Food Safety Officer directions
c. Misbranding only
d. Export issues
72. Section 56 focuses on:
a. Food pricing
b. Hygienic and sanitary conditions in food processing
c. Packaging design
d. Taxation
73. Penalty for possessing adulterant (not injurious to health) may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
74. Penalty for possessing adulterant (injurious to health) may extend up to:
a. ₹2 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹20 lakh
75. Section 57 applies to:
a. Only manufacturers
b. Importers, manufacturers, sellers, distributors or storers
c. Only retailers
d. Only consumers
76. Under Section 57, adulterant possession includes:
a. Only intentional use
b. Import, manufacture, storage, sale or distribution
c. Only packaging
d. Only labeling
77. In proceedings under Section 57, holding adulterant on behalf of another person is:
a. A valid defence
b. Not a defence
c. Always excused
d. Required to reduce penalty
78. If adulterant is injurious to health, penalty may extend up to:
a. ₹2 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹1 crore
79. Section 58 applies when:
a. Specific penalty is already provided
b. No specific penalty is provided in the Act
c. Only export cases occur
d. Only advertisement issues arise
80. Maximum penalty under Section 58 may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
81. Section 57 covers possession of:
a. Only food products
b. Adulterants
c. Only packaging material
d. Only additives
82. Adulterant injurious to health attracts:
a. Lower penalty than safe adulterant
b. Same penalty always
c. Higher penalty up to ₹10 lakh
d. No penalty
83. Section 58 is a:
a. Specific offence section
b. Residual penalty provision
c. Licensing section
d. Import regulation section
84. Liability under Section 57 can include:
a. Only direct possession
b. Indirect possession through another person
c. Only sale cases
d. Only export cases
85. Section 59 deals with punishment for:
a. Misbranding
b. Unsafe food
c. Advertising
d. Licensing
86. If unsafe food causes no injury, punishment includes imprisonment up to:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
87. If unsafe food causes no injury, fine may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
88. If unsafe food causes non-grievous injury, imprisonment may extend up to:
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 6 years
89. Fine for non-grievous injury under Section 59 may extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹2 lakh
c. ₹3 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
90. If unsafe food causes grievous injury, imprisonment may extend up to:
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
91. Fine for grievous injury under Section 59 may extend up to:
a. ₹3 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹1 lakh
92. If unsafe food results in death, minimum imprisonment is:
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
93. Maximum punishment for death due to unsafe food may extend to:
a. 10 years
b. Life imprisonment
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
94. Minimum fine for death caused by unsafe food is:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹25 lakh
95. Section 59 applies to:
a. Only manufacturers
b. Manufacturers, sellers, distributors, importers or storers
c. Only retailers
d. Only consumers
96. Injury under Section 59 includes:
a. Only permanent injury
b. Only financial loss
c. Non-grievous, grievous injury or death
d. Only minor discomfort
97. Retaining or removing seized items without permission is punishable with imprisonment up to:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
98. Maximum fine for interfering with seized items under Section 60 is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
99. Section 60 applies to:
a. Only food articles
b. Food, vehicles, equipment, labels or seized items
c. Only packaging material
d. Only imported goods
100. Providing false or misleading information knowingly is punishable with imprisonment up to:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
101. Maximum fine for false information under Section 61 is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
102. Section 61 applies when a person:
a. Provides correct documents
b. Provides false or misleading information knowingly
c. Refuses to sell food
d. Labels food properly
103. Obstructing a Food Safety Officer without reasonable excuse is punishable with imprisonment up to:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
104. Maximum fine for obstructing a Food Safety Officer is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
105. Section 62 also covers:
a. Food adulteration only
b. Impersonating or threatening a Food Safety Officer
c. Misbranding only
d. Licensing issues
106. All offences under Sections 60–62 require:
a. Only warning
b. Imprisonment and/or fine
c. Only cancellation of license
d. No punishment
107. Section 60 involves interference with:
a. Only documents
b. Seized items under the Act
c. Only advertisements
d. Only tax records
108. “Without reasonable excuse” applies mainly to:
a. Section 62 offences
b. Section 50 offences
c. Section 59 offences
d. Section 51 offences
109. Carrying out food business without licence is punishable with imprisonment up to:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
110. Maximum fine for running business without licence under Section 63 is:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹2 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
111. Section 63 applies to:
a. Only licensed operators
b. Persons required to obtain licence but operating without it
c. Only consumers
d. Only exporters
112. Exempted persons under Section 31(2) are:
a. Included in penalty
b. Not liable under Section 63
c. Always punished
d. Required to pay double fine
113. Under Section 64, subsequent offence means:
a. First-time offence
b. Repeated conviction of same offence
c. Minor violation
d. Administrative error
114. Punishment for subsequent offence may be:
a. Reduced penalty
b. Twice the original punishment (subject to maximum limit)
c. Only warning
d. Only fine of ₹1000
115. For continuing offences under Section 64, daily fine may extend up to:
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹50,000
c. ₹1 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
116. Under Section 64, licence of offender shall be:
a. Renewed
b. Cancelled
c. Ignored
d. Transferred
117. Court may publish offender’s name and offence:
a. Only with consent
b. At offender’s expense
c. Free of cost
d. Only in government records
118. Publication of conviction under Section 64 is:
a. Optional court direction
b. Mandatory in all cases
c. Done only by police
d. Done by media only
119. Expenses of publication are treated as:
a. Government subsidy
b. Part of cost of conviction recoverable as fine
c. Waived amount
d. Insurance claim
120. Section 63 mainly deals with:
a. Misbranding
b. Operating without licence
c. Food advertising
d. Food adulteration
121. Section 65 deals with:
a. Licensing of food business
b. Compensation for injury or death of consumer
c. Food advertising
d. Import rules
122. Minimum compensation in case of death is:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹3 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
123. Compensation for grievous injury may extend up to:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹2 lakh
c. ₹3 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
124. Compensation for other injuries may extend up to:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹2 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
125. Compensation in case of death must be paid within:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 15 days
126. Interim relief in case of death is paid within:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
127. Compensation under Section 65 is directed by:
a. Police officer
b. Adjudicating Officer or Court
c. Food inspector only
d. Manufacturer only
128. Section 65 applies when food causes:
a. Only misbranding
b. Injury or death to consumer
c. Only price increase
d. Only packaging defect
129. Publication of offender details may be ordered:
a. Only by police
b. At offender’s expense
c. Free of cost always
d. Only by media
130. Expenses of publication are treated as:
a. Government aid
b. Recoverable cost of conviction
c. Optional donation
d. Insurance claim
131. In case of grievous injury or death, authority may order:
a. Only warning
b. Cancellation of licence and recall of food
c. Only fine reduction
d. No action
132. In other cases (not grievous/death), authority may issue:
a. Export permit
b. Prohibition orders
c. Tax rebate
d. License renewal
133. When an offence is committed by a company, who is primarily liable?
a. Only the company
b. Every person in charge and responsible for business + company
c. Only shareholders
d. Only customers
134. A company under Section 66 includes:
a. Only corporations
b. Body corporate, firm, or association of individuals
c. Only government companies
d. Only partnerships
135. In a firm, “director” means:
a. CEO
b. Partner in the firm
c. Employee
d. Auditor
136. If company has different branches, responsibility lies with:
a. Any employee randomly
b. Head/person in-charge nominated for that branch/unit
c. Customers
d. Government officer
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-7