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The Food Safety and Standards Act MCQs Set-6
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Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-6
1. Designated Officer may prohibit:
a. Only exports
b. Sale of food violating the Act
c. Only imports
d. Advertising only
2. Food samples received from Food Safety Officer are:
a. Ignored
b. Sent for analysis
c. Destroyed
d. Sold
3. Designated Officer recommends prosecution for:
a. Civil disputes
b. Imprisonment cases
c. Marketing issues
d. Export matters
4. Prosecutions for fine cases are:
a. Only court handled
b. Sanctioned or launched by Designated Officer
c. Done by consumers
d. Done by exporters
5. Designated Officer maintains record of:
a. Imports only
b. Inspections and actions of Food Safety Officers
c. Only advertisements
d. Only exports
6. Complaints against FSO are:
a. Ignored
b. Investigated by Designated Officer
c. Sent to exporters
d. Handled by consumers
7. Food poisoning reporting helps in:
a. Tax collection
b. Public health surveillance
c. Export promotion
d. Price control
8. Main purpose of Section 35–36 is:
a. Promote food exports
b. Strengthen reporting and district-level enforcement of food safety
c. Reduce licensing
d. Increase taxes
9. Food Safety Officers are appointed by:
a. Central Government
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Court
d. Food Authority
10. Appointment of Food Safety Officers is made through:
a. Advertisement
b. Notification
c. Court order
d. Gazette of Parliament only
11. Food Safety Officers must possess:
a. Political experience
b. Qualifications prescribed by Central Government
c. Export licence
d. Business ownership
12. Food Safety Officers are appointed for:
a. Tax collection
b. Performing functions under the Act
c. Export promotion
d. Banking regulation
13. Food Safety Officers are assigned to:
a. International regions
b. Local areas
c. Foreign countries
d. Private companies
14. Functions of Food Safety Officers are governed by:
a. Company policy only
b. The Act, rules and regulations
c. Export laws only
d. Tax rules only
15. State Government may authorise:
a. Consumers
b. Officers with prescribed qualifications
c. Food vendors
d. Exporters
16. Authorised officers may perform functions of:
a. Court judge
b. Food Safety Officer
c. Commissioner only
d. Food analyst only
17. Jurisdiction of Food Safety Officer is:
a. Unlimited worldwide
b. Specified local area or jurisdiction
c. Only state capital
d. Only rural area
18. Qualifications for Food Safety Officers are prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. District Court
d. Food business operators
19. Food Safety Officers are part of:
a. Export department
b. Food safety enforcement system
c. Banking authority
d. Customs only
20. Commissioner appoints persons he:
a. Randomly selects
b. Thinks fit with prescribed qualifications
c. Gets from private firms only
d. Receives from courts
21. State-authorised officers can work within:
a. Any country
b. Specified jurisdiction
c. Any business globally
d. Unlimited authority
22. Food Safety Officers enforce:
a. Trade laws only
b. Food safety provisions under the Act
c. Banking laws
d. Labour laws
23. Main purpose of Section 37 is:
a. Establish appointment and jurisdiction of Food Safety Officers
b. Promote exports
c. Reduce inspections
d. Increase taxation
24. Food Safety Officer may take sample of:
a. Only medicines
b. Food intended for sale or human consumption
c. Clothes only
d. Furniture only
25. Sample may be taken when required as:
a. Advertisement
b. Evidence in proceedings under the Act
c. Tax record
d. Licence fee proof
26. Food Safety Officer may seize food that appears:
a. Expensive
b. In contravention of the Act
c. Imported
d. Popular
27. Seized food after sampling may be kept in:
a. Court custody
b. Safe custody of food business operator
c. Police station
d. Customs office
28. Samples taken by Food Safety Officer are sent to:
a. Commissioner
b. Food Analyst
c. Retail seller
d. Consumer court
29. Food business operator may be required to execute:
a. Mortgage deed
b. Bond equal to value of article
c. Export licence
d. Insurance policy
30. Food Safety Officer may inspect places where food is:
a. Manufactured or stored for sale
b. Only advertised
c. Only imported
d. Only exported
31. Food Safety Officer can take samples of:
a. Adulterants also
b. Vehicles only
c. Medicines only
d. Furniture only
32. Cost of sample taken shall be paid:
a. By consumer
b. To person from whom sample is taken
c. By court only
d. By exporter
33. Perishable food unfit for human consumption may be:
a. Exported
b. Destroyed after written notice
c. Repackaged
d. Auctioned
34. While inspecting premises, FSO follows provisions of:
a. Income Tax Act
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Companies Act
d. Motor Vehicles Act
35. Adulterants may be seized if:
a. Properly labelled
b. Possession cannot be satisfactorily explained
c. Exported legally
d. Approved by consumers
36. Books of account may be seized only with:
a. Court order only
b. Previous approval of superior authority
c. Vendor permission
d. Consumer consent
37. Food Safety Officer may inspect places where adulterants are:
a. Manufactured or kept
b. Advertised only
c. Exported only
d. Taxed only
38. Main purpose of Section 38 is:
a. To define powers of Food Safety Officers regarding inspection, seizure and sampling
b. To regulate banking
c. To control imports only
d. To appoint judges
39. While taking action under Section 38, Food Safety Officer shall:
a. Work alone always
b. Call one or more persons as witnesses
c. Inform media first
d. Take court permission every time
40. Signatures during action under Section 38 are taken from:
a. Only police officers
b. Persons present at the time of action
c. Consumers only
d. Judges only
41. Seized books of account must generally be returned within:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
42. Before returning seized documents, the Food Safety Officer may:
a. Destroy them
b. Take certified copies or extracts
c. Sell them
d. Publish them
43. Certification of copied documents is done by:
a. Food Analyst
b. Person from whom documents were seized
c. Consumer
d. Retailer
44. If a person refuses to certify copies and prosecution is instituted:
a. Documents are destroyed
b. Court-certified copies are taken before return
c. No action is taken
d. Licence is automatically cancelled
45. Burden of proving adulterant was not meant for adulteration lies on:
a. Food Analyst
b. Commissioner
c. Person from whose possession adulterant was seized
d. Consumer
46. Guidelines regarding powers of Food Safety Officer are issued by:
a. Central Government
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Supreme Court
d. Food seller
47. Guidelines issued by Commissioner are:
a. Optional
b. Binding
c. Temporary suggestions only
d. Applicable only to consumers
48. Powers of Food Safety Officer may be revoked by:
a. District Court
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Vendor
d. Food Analyst
49. Revocation of powers of Food Safety Officer may be for:
a. Lifetime only
b. Specified period
c. One day only
d. Unlimited area
50. Witnesses are called during actions under:
a. Only sub-section (1)
b. Sections involving seizure, sampling or destruction
c. Tax proceedings
d. Export inspections only
51. Seized documents include:
a. Books of account and related documents
b. Clothing only
c. Furniture only
d. Vehicles only
52. Court certification is needed when:
a. No prosecution exists
b. Person refuses certification and prosecution is instituted
c. Food is exported
d. Licence is renewed
53. Main purpose of Section 38(7)-(10) is:
a. To regulate witness procedure, return of documents, burden of proof and control over Food Safety Officers
b. To regulate imports only
c. To increase taxes
d. To appoint judges
54. A Food Safety Officer is liable if he:
a. Conducts lawful inspection
b. Vexatiously seizes food without reasonable ground
c. Takes valid samples
d. Issues proper notice
55. Penalty on Food Safety Officer under Section 39 may extend to:
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹50,000
c. ₹1 lakh
d. ₹5 lakh
56. Food Safety Officer is liable if he commits an act:
a. With court permission
b. Causing injury without reason to believe it necessary
c. During office hours only
d. Approved by vendor
57. False complaint against Food Safety Officer is punishable with:
a. Warning only
b. Fine
c. Imprisonment only
d. Licence cancellation only
58. Minimum fine for false complaint against Food Safety Officer is:
a. ₹5,000
b. ₹10,000
c. ₹50,000
d. ₹1 lakh
59. Maximum fine for false complaint against Food Safety Officer may extend to:
a. ₹25,000
b. ₹50,000
c. ₹75,000
d. ₹1 lakh
60. Under Section 40, purchaser may have food analysed by:
a. Police officer
b. Food Analyst
c. Commissioner only
d. Court
61. Purchaser must pay:
a. Tax
b. Prescribed analysis fees
c. Licence fee
d. Court fee only
62. Purchaser must inform the food business operator:
a. After analysis
b. At time of purchase about intention of analysis
c. After filing case
d. Never
63. If food is not in compliance with the Act, purchaser is entitled to:
a. Compensation only
b. Refund of analysis fees
c. Free licence
d. Export permit
64. Food Analyst shall provide analysis report within:
a. Any time
b. Period specified by regulations
c. One year
d. Seven years
65. If sample contravenes the Act, Food Analyst forwards report to:
a. Vendor
b. Designated Officer
c. Consumer court
d. Retailer
66. Section 42 procedure relates to:
a. Licensing
b. Prosecution
c. Export
d. Advertisement
67. Purchaser analysis right under Section 40 applies to:
a. Food Safety Officer
b. Purchaser other than Food Safety Officer
c. Only manufacturer
d. Only wholesaler
68. Main purpose of Sections 39–40 is:
a. To define liability of Food Safety Officers and rights of purchasers for food analysis
b. To regulate exports
c. To appoint judges
d. To control imports only
69. Under Section 41, Food Safety Officer may:
a. Only issue licences
b. Search any place and seize food or adulterant
c. Decide court cases
d. Collect taxes
70. Food Safety Officer may seize articles when:
a. Food is expensive
b. There is reasonable doubt of offence relating to food
c. Vendor refuses discount
d. Food is imported
71. After search and seizure, Food Safety Officer must inform:
a. Court
b. Designated Officer
c. Consumer only
d. Retail seller
72. Information regarding actions taken must be given:
a. Orally
b. In writing
c. By advertisement
d. Through newspaper
73. Search is not irregular merely because witnesses are:
a. Government officers
b. Not inhabitants of locality searched
c. Food Analysts
d. Police officers
74. Section 41 applies notwithstanding anything contained in:
a. Section 30
b. Section 31(2)
c. Section 50
d. Section 70
75. Food Safety Officer may search:
a. Only factories
b. Any place
c. Only restaurants
d. Only warehouses
76. Articles that may be seized include:
a. Furniture only
b. Food or adulterant
c. Vehicles only
d. Medicines only
77. The basis for search and seizure is:
a. Personal dislike
b. Reasonable doubt regarding food offence
c. Consumer demand
d. Advertisement complaint only
78. Provisions relating to search and seizure are guided by:
a. Companies Act
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Motor Vehicles Act
d. Income Tax Act
79. CrPC provisions apply to:
a. Banking only
b. Search, seizure, summon, investigation and prosecution
c. Export licences only
d. Tax collection only
80. Food Safety Officer acts under:
a. Customs Act only
b. Food Safety and Standards Act
c. Contract Act
d. Labour law
81. Witnesses during search:
a. Must always belong to same locality
b. Need not necessarily belong to same locality
c. Must be judges
d. Must be police officers only
82. Section 41 gives powers regarding:
a. Licensing only
b. Search, seizure, investigation and prosecution
c. Export regulation only
d. Taxation
83. Main purpose of Section 41 is:
a. To empower Food Safety Officers for search, seizure and investigation in food offences
b. To regulate imports only
c. To appoint Food Analysts
d. To control advertisements
84. Food Safety Officer is responsible for:
a. Tax collection
b. Inspection, drawing samples and sending them for analysis
c. Export promotion
d. Court judgments
85. Samples drawn by Food Safety Officer are sent to:
a. Retail seller
b. Food Analyst
c. Consumer court
d. Customs office
86. Food Analyst must send analysis report within:
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
87. Analysis report is sent to:
a. Designated Officer
b. Consumer only
c. Retailer only
d. Police station
88. Copy of Food Analyst report is also sent to:
a. Manufacturer
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. District Court
d. Vendor
89. Designated Officer scrutinises report to determine whether offence is punishable with:
a. Tax only
b. Imprisonment or fine only
c. Export restriction
d. Licence fee
90. In imprisonment cases, Designated Officer sends recommendation to:
a. Food Analyst
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Vendor
d. Consumer
91. Recommendation for prosecution must be sent within:
a. 3 days
b. 14 days
c. 1 month
d. 6 months
92. Offences punishable up to three years are tried by:
a. Supreme Court only
b. Court of ordinary jurisdiction
c. Panchayat
d. Consumer forum
93. Offences punishable exceeding three years are tried by:
a. Revenue Court
b. Special Court
c. Labour Court
d. Civil Court only
94. If no Special Court exists, serious offences are tried by:
a. Consumer court
b. Court of ordinary jurisdiction
c. Panchayat
d. Tax authority
95. Decision regarding prosecution is communicated by:
a. Commissioner of Food Safety
b. Vendor
c. Consumer
d. Food Analyst
96. Prosecution is launched by:
a. Food Safety Officer
b. Designated Officer and concerned Food Safety Officer
c. Consumer only
d. Retail seller
97. If sample was taken under Section 40, communication is also sent to:
a. Exporter
b. Purchaser
c. Retail association
d. Panchayat
98. Main purpose of Section 42 is:
a. To prescribe procedure for analysis and launching prosecution
b. To regulate imports
c. To control advertisements
d. To appoint judges
99. Food laboratories may be notified by:
a. State Government only
b. Food Authority
c. Supreme Court
d. Municipal authority
100. Laboratories recognised under Section 43 must be accredited by:
a. RBI
b. National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
c. UPSC
d. SEBI
101. Recognised laboratories are used for:
a. Export licensing
b. Analysis of food samples
c. Tax collection
d. Advertising
102. Samples are analysed by:
a. Retailers
b. Food Analysts
c. Consumers
d. Judges
103. Food Authority may establish:
a. Tax tribunals
b. Referral food laboratories
c. Banking institutions
d. Export councils
104. Referral food laboratories are recognised through:
a. Oral order
b. Notification
c. Advertisement
d. Circular only
105. Functions of referral food laboratories are entrusted by:
a. Municipal corporation
b. The Act and regulations
c. Police department
d. Export authority
106. Food Authority may frame regulations regarding:
a. Election procedures
b. Functions of laboratories
c. Banking transactions
d. Road transport
107. Regulations may specify:
a. Local areas of laboratory functions
b. Tax rates
c. Export duty
d. Insurance premium
108. Procedure for submission of food samples is specified by:
a. Vendors
b. Regulations framed by Food Authority
c. Consumers
d. Courts only
109. Laboratory reports shall be in:
a. Any random form
b. Forms specified by regulations
c. Oral statements only
d. Newspaper format
110. Fees for laboratory reports are:
a. Not payable
b. Specified by regulations
c. Fixed by vendors
d. Decided by consumers
111. Research institutions may also be:
a. Derecognised automatically
b. Notified by Food Authority
c. Controlled by consumers
d. Managed by courts
112. Section 43 mainly deals with:
a. Court procedure
b. Recognition and accreditation of laboratories
c. Food advertising
d. Tax collection
113. Main purpose of Section 43 is:
a. To ensure accredited laboratories and referral labs for food analysis
b. To regulate imports only
c. To appoint judges
d. To control prices
114. Food Authority may recognise organisations for:
a. Tax audits
b. Food safety audit
c. Banking audit
d. Export inspection
115. Food safety audit checks compliance with:
a. Motor vehicle laws
b. Food safety management systems
c. Labour laws
d. Banking standards
116. Recognition of food safety audit agencies is done by:
a. Commissioner only
b. Food Authority
c. Supreme Court
d. Municipal authority
117. Food Analysts are appointed by:
a. Food Authority
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. High Court
d. Central Vigilance Commission
118. Appointment of Food Analysts is made through:
a. Advertisement
b. Notification
c. Oral order
d. Circular only
119. Food Analysts must possess qualifications prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. District Court
d. Food business operator
120. Food Analysts are appointed for:
a. International trade only
b. Local areas assigned by Commissioner
c. Entire world
d. Banking zones
121. A person having financial interest in manufacture or sale of food:
a. Can always become Food Analyst
b. Cannot be appointed as Food Analyst
c. Is automatically selected
d. Needs court approval
122. Different Food Analysts may be appointed for:
a. Different tax zones
b. Different articles of food
c. Different courts
d. Different banks
123. Food safety audit agencies ensure compliance under:
a. Income Tax Act
b. This Act and related rules and regulations
c. Companies Act
d. Motor Vehicles Act
124. Financial interest restriction on Food Analysts ensures:
a. Export growth
b. Impartiality and fairness
c. Higher taxes
d. Faster licensing
125. Food Analysts work within:
a. Assigned local areas
b. International territory
c. Parliament only
d. Court premises only
126. Section 44 relates to:
a. Court procedure
b. Recognition of food safety audit agencies
c. Import duties
d. Banking regulations
127. Section 45 mainly deals with:
a. Appointment of Food Analysts
b. Taxation
c. Export licensing
d. Consumer disputes
128. Main purpose of Sections 44–45 is:
a. To recognise food safety audit agencies and appoint qualified Food Analysts
b. To regulate imports only
c. To appoint judges
d. To control advertisements
129. On receiving a food sample, the Food Analyst must first:
a. Destroy the sample
b. Compare seal with specimen impression
c. Send it to court
d. Return it immediately
130. If a sample container is broken, the Food Analyst must inform within:
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
131. The Food Analyst sends information about broken samples to:
a. Police Officer
b. Designated Officer
c. Mayor
d. Manufacturer
132. Food Analyst analyses samples received from:
a. Only courts
b. Food Safety Officer or authorised persons
c. Only police
d. Import department only
133. Time limit for sending analysis report is:
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 14 days
d. 30 days
134. Food Analyst sends report to Designated Officer when sample is received under:
a. Section 38 or 47
b. Section 10 only
c. Section 1 only
d. Section 90 only
135. When sample is purchased by a person, report is sent to:
a. Buyer only
b. Manufacturer only
c. Buyer and Designated Officer
d. Police only
136. If analysis cannot be completed in 14 days, Food Analyst must inform:
a. Prime Minister
b. Designated Officer and Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Court only
d. Police only
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-6