Free MCQs
The Food Safety and Standards Act MCQs Set-5
14 min read
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-5
1. FBO must not:
a. Inform authorities
b. Prevent or discourage cooperation with authorities
c. Withdraw unsafe food
d. Follow regulations
2. Food recall applies when food is:
a. Certified organic
b. Possibly unsafe for consumers
c. Properly labelled
d. Exported safely
3. Competent authorities must be informed:
a. After one month
b. Immediately
c. Only on request
d. After court order
4. Food recall procedures are:
a. Optional
b. Mandatory under suspicion of non-compliance or risk
c. Only advisory
d. Industry-controlled
5. Objective of food recall is to:
a. Increase sales
b. Prevent, reduce or eliminate risk to consumers
c. Promote exports
d. Reduce regulation
6. Food recall guidelines are specified by:
a. Courts
b. Food Authority regulations
c. Police department
d. Farmers
7. FBO responsibility includes:
a. Ignoring unsafe food
b. Withdrawal of unsafe food from market
c. Delaying action
d. Selling discounted unsafe food
8. Cooperation during recall is:
a. Discouraged
b. Legally required
c. Optional
d. Restricted
9. Main purpose of Section 28 is:
a. Promote branding
b. Ensure quick removal of unsafe or non-compliant food from market
c. Increase food imports
d. Reduce inspections
10. Enforcement of the Food Safety and Standards Act is the responsibility of:
a. Only Central Government
b. Food Authority and State Food Safety Authorities
c. Only courts
d. Only police department
11. Food Authorities are responsible for:
a. Setting food prices
b. Ensuring FBOs comply with legal requirements at all stages
c. Export promotion only
d. Tax collection
12. Monitoring by authorities includes:
a. Only retail inspection
b. Verification of compliance by FBOs at all stages
c. Only import checks
d. Only packaging checks
13. Food authorities maintain systems for:
a. Financial auditing
b. Control, surveillance and monitoring of food safety
c. Police investigations
d. Export licensing
14. Public communication by authorities relates to:
a. Food safety and risk
b. Political campaigns
c. Tax policies
d. Banking systems
15. Food Safety Officers are responsible for:
a. Only advisory work
b. Enforcement of Act within their area
c. Only food export
d. Only licensing companies
16. Enforcement responsibility of Food Safety Officers applies when:
a. Duty is not assigned to another authority
b. Only during emergencies
c. Only for exports
d. Only for imports
17. Regulations specify:
a. Food prices
b. Which officers enforce provisions and in which areas
c. Tax rates
d. Salary structures
18. Authorities may share:
a. Personal data
b. Assistance and information for enforcement purposes
c. Trade secrets freely
d. Political opinions
19. Commissioner of Food Safety has powers equal to:
a. Police Commissioner
b. Food Safety Officer
c. Court judge
d. Customs officer
20. Designated Officer must:
a. Follow same procedure as Food Safety Officer
b. Ignore regulations
c. Work independently of Act
d. Only issue licenses
21. Enforcement includes:
a. Only legal drafting
b. Execution of Act provisions
c. Only advisory roles
d. Only inspection of exports
22. Food safety surveillance is part of:
a. Enforcement system
b. Banking regulation
c. Trade policy only
d. Tax system
23. Authorities at state level are:
a. Independent of Food Authority
b. State Food Safety Authorities
c. Private bodies
d. Consumer groups
24. Main objective of Section 29 is:
a. Promote food exports
b. Establish enforcement framework for food safety compliance
c. Reduce regulation
d. Increase food prices
25. The Commissioner of Food Safety is appointed by:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Food Authority
d. High Court
26. The main purpose of appointing the Commissioner of Food Safety is:
a. Export promotion
b. Efficient implementation of food safety laws in the State
c. Tax collection
d. Price control
27. The Commissioner may prohibit food activities in the interest of:
a. Trade expansion
b. Public health
c. Industry profit
d. Tourism
28. Prohibition order by Commissioner can apply to:
a. Only imported food
b. Whole State or any area/part of it
c. Only urban areas
d. Only rural markets
29. Maximum period of prohibition order is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
30. Commissioner of Food Safety conducts surveys to check:
a. Tax compliance
b. Compliance of food industry with standards
c. Export performance
d. Pricing policies
31. Training programmes by Commissioner are for:
a. Only consumers
b. Food safety personnel and food chain stakeholders
c. Only exporters
d. Only farmers
32. Commissioner ensures implementation of standards with:
a. Bias towards industry
b. Objectivity, accountability and transparency
c. Secrecy
d. Flexibility without rules
33. Commissioner of Food Safety can:
a. Issue criminal judgments
b. Sanction prosecution for offences with imprisonment
c. Close courts
d. Pass tax laws
34. Commissioner may delegate powers to:
a. Central Government only
b. Subordinate officers
c. Private companies
d. Consumers
35. Which power cannot be delegated by Commissioner?
a. Conduct surveys
b. Appoint Designated Officer, Food Safety Officer and Food Analyst
c. Training programmes
d. Enforcement actions
36. Delegation of powers is:
a. Unrestricted
b. Subject to conditions and restrictions
c. Prohibited
d. Permanent only
37. Commissioner ensures implementation is:
a. Random
b. Uniform and efficient
c. Industry-driven
d. Export-oriented only
38. Training programmes aim to:
a. Reduce inspections
b. Generate awareness on food safety
c. Increase imports
d. Promote advertising
39. Main objective of Section 30 is:
a. Establish State-level enforcement leadership for food safety
b. Control food pricing
c. Promote exports
d. Reduce regulation
40. No person can commence food business without:
a. Registration only
b. Licence
c. Advertisement approval
d. Export permit
41. The requirement of licence does NOT apply to:
a. Large manufacturers
b. Petty manufacturers and petty retailers
c. Importers
d. Export houses
42. Petty food operators are required to:
a. Obtain export licence
b. Register themselves
c. Pay heavy tax
d. Obtain court permission
43. Application for food business licence is made to:
a. Food Authority
b. Designated Officer
c. Police Officer
d. Collector
44. The Designated Officer may:
a. Only reject application
b. Grant or refuse licence with reasons
c. Approve without scrutiny
d. Transfer licence cases to consumers
45. Refusal of licence must be:
a. Oral
b. With reasons recorded in writing
c. Without explanation
d. Based on demand
46. Licence can be refused if:
a. Business is profitable
b. Necessary in interest of public health
c. Business is small
d. Applicant is new
47. If licence is not issued within two months:
a. Applicant must wait indefinitely
b. Applicant may start business
c. Application is cancelled automatically
d. Business is illegal
48. In case of delay, authority may issue:
a. Tax notice
b. Improvement notice under Section 32
c. Arrest warrant
d. Export restriction
49. Registration is required for:
a. Only exporters
b. Petty and small food operators
c. Only importers
d. Only large industries
50. Licensing system is handled by:
a. Central Government
b. Designated Officer
c. Court
d. Police
51. Licence application must include:
a. Personal photographs only
b. Particulars and prescribed fees
c. Export data
d. Stock price
52. Objective of licensing is:
a. Increase exports
b. Ensure safe and wholesome food
c. Reduce competition
d. Increase taxes
53. Licence refusal requires:
a. Verbal notice
b. Written order with reasons
c. Media announcement
d. No explanation
54. Main purpose of Section 31 is:
a. Regulate food business through licensing and registration
b. Promote unregulated trade
c. Control pricing
d. Increase imports
55. Every food licence is issued in:
a. Any oral format
b. Form and conditions specified by regulations
c. Court order format
d. Tax invoice format
56. A single licence may cover:
a. Only one product
b. Multiple articles of food and establishments in same area
c. Only export goods
d. Only import goods
57. Separate licence is required when premises are:
a. In the same building
b. In different areas
c. In same street
d. Under same owner
58. If food business operates in multiple areas:
a. One licence is sufficient
b. Separate applications and licences are required
c. No licence is needed
d. Only registration is required
59. Appeal against refusal of licence lies with:
a. Court
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Police
d. Central Government
60. Licence validity period is:
a. Fixed by law only
b. As specified by regulations
c. Lifetime automatically
d. 1 month only
61. If renewal application is made before expiry:
a. Licence expires immediately
b. Licence continues until decision is made
c. New licence is required immediately
d. Business must stop
62. Licence may be:
a. Only granted
b. Suspended or cancelled
c. Permanent without conditions
d. Non-transferable only
63. Licence benefit after death continues for:
a. 1 year
b. 3 months or longer allowed period
c. 1 month only
d. Indefinitely
64. After death of licence holder, business continues for:
a. Only legal heirs after court order
b. Personal representative or family member
c. Government nominee only
d. No one
65. Extension beyond 3 months may be granted by:
a. Police officer
b. Designated Officer
c. Court only
d. Bank
66. Appeal against licence rejection is filed to:
a. Food Authority directly
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Local police
d. Municipality
67. Licence conditions are:
a. Fixed by owner
b. Specified by regulations
c. Optional
d. Based on market demand
68. Single licence can cover:
a. Only one business activity
b. One or more food articles
c. Only retail sale
d. Only manufacturing
69. Main objective of these provisions is:
a. Simplify licensing and ensure regulated food safety compliance
b. Remove licensing system
c. Promote unregulated trade
d. Increase exports
70. An improvement notice is issued by:
a. Food Authority
b. Designated Officer
c. Police Officer
d. Court
71. An improvement notice is served when there is:
a. Profit increase
b. Reasonable ground of non-compliance
c. Export demand
d. Consumer complaint only
72. An improvement notice must state:
a. Food prices
b. Grounds of non-compliance
c. Export details
d. Staff salaries
73. Improvement notice specifies:
a. Measures to ensure compliance
b. Marketing strategy
c. Tax liability
d. Advertising plan
74. Time given to comply with improvement notice is:
a. Minimum 7 days
b. Not less than 14 days
c. 1 day
d. 30 days only
75. Failure to comply with improvement notice may lead to:
a. Tax exemption
b. Suspension of licence
c. Export permission
d. Bonus approval
76. Continued failure to comply may result in:
a. Licence renewal
b. Cancellation of licence
c. Advertisement approval
d. Price reduction
77. Cancellation of licence requires:
a. No hearing
b. Opportunity to show cause
c. Police approval
d. Consumer vote
78. Licence may be suspended immediately if:
a. Profit is low
b. Public health requires it with recorded reasons
c. Export demand increases
d. Business expands
79. Appeal against improvement notice lies with:
a. Court only
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Food seller association
d. Local panchayat
80. Appeal can be made against:
a. Only tax notices
b. Improvement notice and licence actions
c. Only advertisements
d. Only exports
81. Time limit for appeal is:
a. 1 month
b. 15 days
c. 60 days
d. No limit
82. Appeal period may end earlier if:
a. Export rises
b. Period in improvement notice expires earlier
c. Court extends it
d. Government orders
83. Making a complaint is deemed as:
a. Advertisement
b. Bringing an appeal
c. Licence application
d. Withdrawal request
84. Main purpose of Section 32 is:
a. Promote exports
b. Ensure correction of non-compliance through enforcement and appeals
c. Increase taxes
d. Reduce inspections
85. A prohibition order under Section 33 can be passed when:
a. Food prices increase
b. A food business operator is convicted of an offence and health risk exists
c. Export demand rises
d. Licence is renewed
86. Before imposing a prohibition order, the court must:
a. Ignore hearing
b. Give opportunity of being heard
c. Only consult police
d. Consult consumers only
87. A prohibition order may include:
a. Tax exemption
b. Ban on use of process or treatment in food business
c. Export permission
d. Price control
88. The court can prohibit use of premises or equipment for:
a. Non-food business only
b. Food business purposes
c. Banking purposes
d. Transport purposes
89. Prohibition may extend to:
a. Only one product
b. Any food business of same class or description
c. Only exports
d. Only imports
90. Court may also prohibit:
a. Advertising
b. Participation in management of food business
c. Hiring staff
d. Pricing decisions
91. Prohibition order is served by:
a. Food Safety Officer
b. Police Inspector
c. Court clerk
d. Consumer forum
92. Copy of prohibition order must be:
a. Kept confidential
b. Affixed at conspicuous place on premises
c. Sent to newspapers only
d. Hidden for inspection
93. Violation of prohibition order leads to:
a. Reward
b. Fine up to ₹3 lakh
c. Licence renewal
d. Warning only
94. Lifting of prohibition order requires:
a. Consumer approval
b. Certificate from Food Safety Officer
c. Court appeal only
d. Export clearance
95. Application for lifting prohibition must be decided within:
a. 1 month
b. 14 days (determination period)
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
96. If certificate is refused, reasons must be:
a. Hidden
b. Communicated to food business operator
c. Published in ads only
d. Ignored
97. Food Safety Officer issues certificate with approval of:
a. Designated Officer
b. Police
c. Court
d. Consumer group
98. Prohibition order is linked to:
a. Civil disputes
b. Criminal conviction and health risk
c. Export promotion
d. Tax violations
99. Main purpose of Section 33 is:
a. Promote food exports
b. Prevent public health risk by restricting unsafe food business operations
c. Increase food prices
d. Reduce inspections
100. A prohibition order ceases when:
a. The operator pays fine
b. Court is satisfied on application for lifting it
c. Licence is renewed
d. Government issues notice
101. Application for lifting prohibition can be made after:
a. 1 month
b. Not less than 6 months
c. 10 days
d. 1 year
102. Court must be satisfied that:
a. Business is profitable
b. Sufficient measures have been taken for safety compliance
c. Export demand exists
d. Consumer complaints reduce
103. The court considers:
a. Advertising strategy
b. Conduct of food business operator after order
c. Tax records only
d. Market price
104. A lifting application is not entertained if made:
a. Within 1 year
b. Before 6 months of prohibition order
c. After 2 years only
d. Anytime
105. Another restriction on application is:
a. It must be filed in court only once ever
b. It cannot be made within 3 months of a previous application
c. It must be filed daily
d. It must be filed by consumer
106. Prohibition provisions apply to:
a. Only owners
b. Managers of food business also
c. Only exporters
d. Only retailers
107. A manager is defined as a person:
a. Who owns the business
b. Entrusted with day-to-day running of food business
c. Who inspects food only
d. Who sets food prices
108. Reference to food business operator includes:
a. Only company directors
b. Managers as well
c. Only government officers
d. Only consumers
109. Prohibition order review depends on:
a. Political decision
b. Circumstances and operator’s conduct
c. Export policy
d. Market competition
110. Application for lifting must show:
a. Marketing success
b. Compliance improvements
c. Increased sales
d. Branding change
111. Court decision on lifting prohibition is:
a. Automatic
b. Based on proper evaluation of case circumstances
c. Based on consumer vote
d. Based on tax records
112. Manager responsibility includes:
a. Only accounting
b. Day-to-day running of food business
c. Only import duties
d. Only export clearance
113. A prohibition order is reviewed by:
a. Food Authority only
b. Court
c. Police
d. Consumers
114. Main purpose of Section 33(5)-(6) is:
a. Ensure permanent ban without review
b. Allow review and lifting of prohibition based on compliance and safety
c. Promote exports
d. Reduce penalties
115. An emergency prohibition notice is issued when:
a. Food prices increase
b. Health risk condition exists in a food business
c. Export demand rises
d. Licence is renewed
116. An emergency prohibition order is imposed by:
a. Designated Officer
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Food Authority
d. Court
117. Before applying for emergency prohibition order, the Designated Officer must:
a. Wait 7 days
b. Serve notice at least one day before application
c. Get consumer approval
d. Inform exporters only
118. Application for emergency prohibition is made to:
a. Court
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Police
d. Municipality
119. Emergency prohibition order is issued when:
a. Business expands
b. Commissioner is satisfied about health risk condition
c. Tax is unpaid
d. Licence is renewed
120. After emergency order, copy must be served by:
a. Consumer
b. Food Safety Officer
c. Banker
d. Court clerk
121. Copy of emergency order may also be:
a. Hidden in files
b. Affixed at conspicuous place
c. Sent only by email
d. Not disclosed
122. Violation of emergency prohibition order is punishable with:
a. Warning only
b. Up to 2 years imprisonment and ₹2 lakh fine
c. Only fine of ₹500
d. No penalty
123. Emergency prohibition order ceases when:
a. Export increases
b. Certificate is issued after compliance measures
c. Court hearing is scheduled
d. Licence is renewed
124. Certificate for lifting order is issued by:
a. Designated Officer
b. Police Officer
c. Court
d. Food vendor
125. Certificate must be issued within:
a. 1 month
b. 7 days of application
c. 1 year
d. No time limit
126. If not satisfied, officer must give reasons within:
a. 2 days
b. 10 days
c. 30 days
d. 6 months
127. Emergency prohibition is based on:
a. Market competition
b. Public health risk condition
c. Export policy
d. Consumer demand
128. Emergency powers are exercised by:
a. Designated Officer and Commissioner of Food Safety
b. Only exporters
c. Only courts
d. Only consumers
129. Main purpose of Section 34 is:
a. Promote food exports
b. Enable rapid action to prevent public health risks from unsafe food businesses
c. Reduce inspections
d. Increase licensing fees
130. Food Authority may require reporting of food poisoning through:
a. Advertisement
b. Notification
c. Court order
d. Tax notice
131. Food poisoning reporting is required from:
a. Consumers
b. Registered medical practitioners
c. Food sellers
d. Police officers
132. Medical practitioners must report food poisoning to:
a. Export authority
b. Specified officer in notification
c. Police station
d. Court
133. Designated Officer is appointed by:
a. Food Authority
b. Commissioner of Food Safety
c. Court
d. Central Government
134. Minimum rank of Designated Officer is:
a. Inspector
b. Sub-Divisional Officer
c. District Judge
d. Collector only
135. There shall be Designated Officer for:
a. Each state
b. Each district
c. Each city
d. Each village
136. Designated Officer can:
a. Set food prices
b. Issue or cancel licences
c. Export food products
d. Frame national policy
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-5