Free MCQs
The Food Safety and Standards Act MCQs Set-1
15 min read
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-1
1. What is the Act Number of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?
a. Act No. 24 of 2005
b. Act No. 34 of 2006
c. Act No. 14 of 2007
d. Act No. 45 of 2006
2. On which date was the Food Safety and Standards Act enacted?
a. 15th August, 2006
b. 2nd October, 2006
c. 23rd August, 2006
d. 26th January, 2006
3. The main purpose of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 is to:
a. Promote international trade only
b. Consolidate laws relating to food
c. Regulate transport services
d. Control agricultural land
4. Which authority was established under the Act?
a. Food Corporation of India
b. Central Vigilance Authority
c. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
d. National Health Authority
5. The standards laid down under the Act are based on:
a. Political decisions
b. Religious practices
c. Science-based standards
d. Traditional customs only
6. The Act regulates which of the following?
a. Manufacture of food
b. Storage and distribution of food
c. Sale and import of food
d. All of the above
7. The Act aims to ensure the availability of:
a. Cheap food only
b. Imported food only
c. Safe and wholesome food for human consumption
d. Organic food only
8. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 was enacted by:
a. Supreme Court
b. Parliament
c. State Legislature
d. President alone
9. The Act was enacted in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Fiftieth Year
b. Fifty-fifth Year
c. Fifty-seventh Year
d. Sixtieth Year
10. The phrase “incidental thereto” in the Act refers to:
a. Unrelated matters
b. Matters connected with the objectives of the Act
c. Foreign trade policies
d. Criminal procedures only
11. What is the short title of the Act?
a. Food Regulation Act, 2006
b. Food Safety Act, 2005
c. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
d. National Food Act, 2006
12. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 extends to:
a. Delhi only
b. Selected States of India
c. Whole of Asia
d. Whole of India
13. Who has the power to appoint the date of commencement of the Act?
a. Supreme Court
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Parliament
14. The commencement date of the Act is notified through:
a. Newspaper publication
b. Official Gazette
c. Television announcement
d. Court order
15. Different dates may be appointed for:
a. Different States only
b. Different food items
c. Different provisions of the Act
d. Different courts
16. Any reference to the commencement of the Act shall be construed as:
a. Repeal of the Act
b. Enforcement by States only
c. Coming into force of that provision
d. Expiry of the Act
17. The Food Safety and Standards Act was enacted in:
a. 2004
b. 2005
c. 2006
d. 2007
18. The notification regarding commencement is issued in the:
a. Civil Court
b. Lok Sabha
c. Official Gazette
d. Rajya Sabha
19. Which government is responsible for bringing the Act into force?
a. Local Government
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Municipal Corporation
20. The Act allows:
a. Only one commencement date for all provisions
b. Different commencement dates for different provisions
c. No commencement notification
d. Automatic enforcement without notification
21. Section 2 of the Food Safety and Standards Act declares that control of the food industry by the Union is:
a. Unnecessary
b. Expedient in the public interest
c. Temporary in nature
d. Limited to exports only
22. The term “adulterant” refers to:
a. A food license
b. A material used to make food unsafe or sub-standard
c. A food testing method
d. A nutrition supplement
23. “Advertisement” under the Act includes publicity through:
a. Electronic media
b. Internet or website
c. Labels and wrappers
d. All of the above
24. The “Chairperson” mentioned in the Act refers to the Chairperson of:
a. Parliament
b. Food Corporation of India
c. Food Authority
d. Consumer Court
25. A “claim” under the Act refers to a representation regarding:
a. Food quality or nutritional properties
b. Political opinions
c. Tax benefits
d. Court procedures
26. The Commissioner of Food Safety is appointed under:
a. Section 10
b. Section 20
c. Section 30
d. Section 40
27. Under the Act, a “consumer” means:
a. Only food manufacturers
b. Persons and families purchasing food for personal needs
c. Government officers only
d. Food inspectors
28. Which of the following may be considered an advertisement under the Act?
a. Invoice
b. Circular
c. Notice
d. All of the above
29. An adulterant may make food:
a. Unsafe
b. Mis-branded
c. Sub-standard
d. All of the above
30. A claim about food may relate to its:
a. Origin
b. Composition
c. Nutritional properties
d. All of the above
31. The “Designated Officer” under the Food Safety and Standards Act is appointed under:
a. Section 20
b. Section 25
c. Section 36
d. Section 40
32. “Extraneous matter” means:
a. Any matter making food poisonous
b. Matter carried from raw materials or processing systems
c. Only artificial colouring substances
d. Only packaging defects
33. Extraneous matter in food:
a. Always renders food unsafe
b. Never exists in food
c. Does not render the food unsafe
d. Makes food medicinal
34. The term “Food” under the Act includes:
a. Packaged drinking water
b. Chewing gum
c. Alcoholic drink
d. All of the above
35. Which of the following is included in the definition of food?
a. Genetically modified food
b. Infant food
c. Water used in manufacture of food
d. All of the above
36. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of food under the Act?
a. Cosmetics
b. Chewing gum
c. Infant food
d. Alcoholic drink
37. Live animals are excluded from the definition of food unless they are:
a. Imported from another country
b. Prepared or processed for human consumption
c. Used for farming
d. Kept in storage
38. Which of the following is excluded from the definition of food?
a. Narcotic or psychotropic substances
b. Packaged drinking water
c. Genetically engineered food
d. Alcoholic drink
39. The Central Government may declare any other article as food by:
a. Court order
b. State notification
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Parliamentary debate only
40. The Central Government declares an article as food considering its:
a. Use
b. Nature
c. Substance or quality
d. All of the above
41. A “food additive” is a substance:
a. Normally consumed as food by itself
b. Added intentionally for technological purposes
c. Used only for medicinal purposes
d. Added only to increase weight
42. Food additives may be added during:
a. Manufacture
b. Packaging
c. Transportation
d. All of the above
43. Food additives do NOT include:
a. Contaminants
b. Packaging materials
c. Food ingredients
d. Storage chemicals
44. Substances added for maintaining or improving nutritional qualities are:
a. Considered contaminants
b. Included as food additives
c. Excluded from food additives
d. Illegal under the Act
45. A “Food Analyst” is appointed under:
a. Section 36
b. Section 40
c. Section 43
d. Section 45
46. The “Food Authority” refers to:
a. Food Corporation of India
b. National Food Committee
c. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
d. Ministry of Agriculture
47. “Food business” includes:
a. Manufacture of food
b. Distribution of food
c. Catering services
d. All of the above
48. A food business may operate:
a. Only for profit
b. Only in the public sector
c. Whether for profit or not
d. Only under government ownership
49. A “food business operator” is responsible for:
a. Conducting elections
b. Compliance with the Act and regulations
c. Issuing court orders
d. Import duty collection
50. A food laboratory must be accredited by:
a. RBI
b. UPSC
c. National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
d. Election Commission
51. “Food safety” means assurance that food is:
a. Cheap for consumers
b. Export quality only
c. Acceptable for human consumption according to intended use
d. Produced only in factories
52. A “food safety audit” is:
a. A criminal investigation
b. A systematic examination of food safety measures
c. A tax inspection
d. A customs procedure
53. Food safety audits are conducted to determine whether:
a. Food prices are controlled
b. Manufacturing profits are high
c. Safety measures meet food safety objectives
d. Imports are restricted
54. “Food Safety Management System” includes:
a. Good Manufacturing Practices
b. Good Hygienic Practices
c. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
d. All of the above
55. A “Food Safety Officer” is appointed under:
a. Section 32
b. Section 35
c. Section 37
d. Section 45
56. A “hazard” in food may be:
a. Biological
b. Chemical
c. Physical
d. All of the above
57. A hazard in food has the potential to cause:
a. Higher profits
b. Adverse health effects
c. Better nutrition only
d. Food colouring
58. “Import” under the Act means bringing food into India by:
a. Land
b. Sea
c. Air
d. All of the above
59. An “improvement notice” is issued under:
a. Section 30
b. Section 32
c. Section 37
d. Section 45
60. The Food Safety Management System is adopted for:
a. Railway management
b. Food business operations
c. Banking services
d. Judicial services
61. Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, the term “ingredient” means:
a. Only natural substances
b. Any substance used in manufacture or preparation of food
c. Only food colours
d. Packaging material
62. An ingredient may be present in the final food product:
a. Only in original form
b. Only in liquid form
c. Possibly in a modified form
d. Only in powdered form
63. “Label” under the Act includes:
a. Only printed stickers
b. Only tags and brands
c. Product insert and descriptive matter on food package
d. Only embossed marks
64. Which of the following can be considered a label?
a. Graphic matter on a food package
b. Product insert
c. Brand mark
d. All of the above
65. A licence under the Food Safety and Standards Act is granted under:
a. Section 21
b. Section 31
c. Section 41
d. Section 51
66. “Infant food” and “infant milk substitute” derive their meanings from:
a. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
b. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act
c. Infant Milk Substitutes Act, 1992
d. Consumer Protection Act
67. The Infant Milk Substitutes Act was enacted in:
a. 1986
b. 1990
c. 1992
d. 2000
68. Which of the following is NOT included in a label?
a. Pictorial matter
b. Graphic details
c. Food recipe notebook
d. Stamped information
69. A label may be attached to:
a. Container
b. Lid
c. Crown of food package
d. All of the above
70. Food additives used in preparation of food are considered:
a. Ingredients
b. Preservatives only
c. Labels
d. Licences
71. “Local area” under the Food Safety and Standards Act is notified by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Food Inspector
c. Commissioner of Food Safety
d. Central Government
72. A local area for the purposes of the Act may be:
a. Only urban
b. Only rural
c. Either urban or rural
d. Only metropolitan
73. “Manufacture” under the Act includes:
a. Only cooking
b. Conversion of ingredients into food article
c. Only packaging
d. Only transportation
74. Which of the following is included in manufacture?
a. Ancillary processes
b. Incidental sub-processes
c. Treatment for conversion of ingredients
d. All of the above
75. A “manufacturer” includes a person who:
a. Only transports food
b. Packs and labels food obtained from another person
c. Only advertises food
d. Sells medicines
76. Under the Act, “Member” includes:
a. Only full-time members
b. Only Chairperson
c. Part-time Member and Chairperson
d. Food Safety Officer only
77. Food promoted with false or misleading claims is called:
a. Unsafe food
b. Misbranded food
c. Organic food
d. Proprietary food
78. Selling food under the name of another food article amounts to:
a. Adulteration
b. Misbranding
c. Licensing
d. Import violation
79. Food sold under a fictitious company or manufacturer name is considered:
a. Standardized food
b. Misbranded food
c. Safe food
d. Fortified food
80. Misleading claims on food packages or advertisements fall under:
a. Food wastage
b. Misbranding
c. Food export
d. Food storage
81. An imitation food resembling another food but not clearly labelled is considered:
a. Standardized food
b. Misbranded food
c. Fortified food
d. Organic food
82. If a food package is deceptive about its contents, it is:
a. Properly labelled
b. Misbranded
c. Export quality
d. Safe food
83. False statement about ingredients on a food package makes it:
a. Misbranded
b. Organic
c. Subsidized
d. Imported
84. Selling food as product of a false place or country is:
a. Legal if approved
b. Misbranding
c. Standardization
d. Licensing
85. If a packaged food contains artificial flavours but no declaration is given, it is:
a. Properly labelled
b. Misbranded
c. Hygienic food
d. Fortified food
86. Food offered for special dietary uses must:
a. Be cheap
b. Have no label
c. Contain required nutritional information on label
d. Be sold without packaging
87. Lack of declaration of chemical preservatives on label results in:
a. Proper labelling
b. Misbranding
c. Export certification
d. Licensing approval
88. A misleading design or device on food packaging refers to:
a. Branding technique
b. Misbranding
c. Packaging innovation
d. Fortification
89. A food resembling another well-known food but not clearly labelled is:
a. Authentic food
b. Misbranded food
c. Organic food
d. Raw food
90. Under misbranding rules, false claim about origin of food is:
a. Allowed with permission
b. Misbranding
c. Quality assurance
d. Standard practice
91. If required information on a food package is not correctly stated within permitted variability, it is:
a. Proper labeling
b. Misbranded food
c. Organic food
d. Standard food
92. “Notification” under the Act means:
a. Private circular
b. Order by FSSAI
c. Published in Official Gazette
d. Newspaper advertisement
93. A “package” includes:
a. Only glass bottles
b. Only plastic containers
c. Pre-packed containers like bottles, tins, pouches, wrappers
d. Only cartons
94. Which of the following is NOT included in definition of package?
a. Barrel
b. Sack
c. Open tray
d. Casket
95. “Premises” under the Act includes:
a. Only factories
b. Shops, hotels, restaurants, vehicles, vessels
c. Only warehouses
d. Only farms
96. The term “prescribed” means:
a. Suggested by FSSAI officers
b. Written in newspapers
c. Fixed by rules of Central or State Government
d. Decided by courts only
97. “Primary food” refers to:
a. Processed food only
b. Packaged food
c. Natural agricultural or animal produce
d. Fast food items
98. Which of the following is NOT primary food?
a. Fresh vegetables
b. Milk directly from animals
c. Processed cheese
d. Raw fish
99. A “prohibition order” is issued under:
a. Section 10
b. Section 20
c. Section 33
d. Section 50
100. “Risk” in relation to food refers to:
a. Cost of food
b. Probability and severity of adverse health effect
c. Food packaging size
d. Market demand
101. “Risk analysis” consists of:
a. One component
b. Two components
c. Three components
d. Four components
102. Which of the following is NOT part of risk analysis?
a. Risk assessment
b. Risk management
c. Risk communication
d. Risk packaging
103. “Risk assessment” is defined as:
a. A marketing process for food
b. A scientifically based process to evaluate food hazards
c. A packaging method
d. A legal enforcement tool only
104. Which of the following is the first step of risk assessment?
a. Exposure assessment
b. Hazard identification
c. Risk communication
d. Risk management
105. Hazard characterisation is part of:
a. Risk communication
b. Risk assessment
c. Risk sale
d. Licensing
106. Exposure assessment refers to:
a. Measuring food packaging
b. Estimating contact with a hazard
c. Selling food products
d. Food labelling
107. Risk characterisation is:
a. Final step of risk assessment
b. First step of packaging
c. A licensing process
d. A trade practice
108. “Risk communication” involves:
a. Only government officers
b. Exchange of information among stakeholders
c. Only food manufacturers
d. Only consumers B
109. Risk communication includes:
a. Explaining risk assessment findings
b. Explaining risk management decisions
c. Both A and B
d. Only labelling rules
110. “Risk management” means:
a. Same as risk assessment
b. Evaluating policy alternatives for food safety
c. Only food marketing
d. Only labelling
111. Risk management is:
a. Same as risk communication
b. Distinct from risk assessment
c. Not related to food safety
d. Only for exporters
112. “Sale” under the Act includes:
a. Only cash transactions
b. Only wholesale trade
c. Cash, credit, exchange, wholesale, retail, and even attempt to sell
d. Only packaged food sale
113. “Sale” also includes:
a. Storage only
b. Agreement or offer for sale
c. Cooking food
d. Food inspection
114. Which of the following is NOT included in “sale”?
a. Exposing for sale
b. Possession for sale
c. Cooking for home use
d. Attempt to sell
115. “Sample” under the Act means:
a. Any food item purchased randomly
b. A sample of food taken under the Act or rules/regulations
c. Only packaged food
d. Only imported food
116. “Specified by regulations” refers to regulations made by:
a. State Police
b. Food Inspector
c. Food Authority
d. Municipal Corporation
117. “Standard” in relation to food means:
a. Market quality
b. Standards notified by the Food Authority
c. Export quality only
d. Farmer guidelines
118. Standards for food are notified by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Food Authority
d. Courts
119. “State Government” in Union Territories refers to:
a. Chief Minister
b. Administrator appointed by President
c. District Magistrate
d. Police Commissioner
120. “Substance” includes:
a. Only solids
b. Only liquids
c. Natural or artificial matter in any form
d. Only gases
121. “Sub-standard food” means:
a. Unsafe food
b. Food meeting all standards
c. Food not meeting specified standards but not unsafe
d. Expired food only
122. A sub-standard food:
a. Is always unsafe
b. May still be safe but below standards
c. Is illegal in all cases
d. Cannot be sold under any condition
123. “Tribunal” under the Act means:
a. District Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Food Safety Appellate Tribunal
d. Consumer Forum
124. Food Safety Appellate Tribunal is established under:
a. Section 50
b. Section 60
c. Section 70
d. Section 80
125. A sample of food is taken under:
a. Market demand
b. Act, rules, and regulations
c. Export policy
d. Farmer consent only
126. Which of the following is NOT a substance under the Act?
a. Gas
b. Vapour
c. Solid matter
d. Only edible food items
127. “Unsafe food” under the Act means food whose nature, substance or quality is:
a. Always below market demand
b. So affected as to render it injurious to health
c. Only expired food
d. Only imported food
128. Food is unsafe if it contains:
a. Natural vitamins only
b. Poisonous or deleterious substances
c. Extra packaging material
d. Only salt and sugar
129. Food made of filthy, rotten or diseased substance is:
a. Standard food
b. Safe food
c. Unsafe food
d. Fortified food
130. Unhygienic processing of food makes it:
a. Organic food
b. Unsafe food
c. Export quality food
d. Sub-standard only
131. Substitution of inferior or cheaper substance in food leads to:
a. Standard food
b. Unsafe food
c. Branded food
d. Licensed food
132. Addition of non-permitted substances in food results in:
a. Safe food
b. Unsafe food
c. Sub-standard food only
d. Preserved food
133. Removal (abstraction) of essential constituents from food makes it:
a. Unsafe food
b. Organic food
c. Raw food
d. Standard food
134. Food made to appear better by colouring or coating deceptively is:
a. Safe food
b. Unsafe food
c. Organic food
d. Natural food
135. Presence of insects or worms in food makes it:
a. Safe food
b. Unsafe food
c. Fortified food
d. Standard food
136. Food prepared or packed under insanitary conditions is:
a. Safe food
b. Unsafe food
c. Export grade food
d. Standard food
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 MCQs Set-1