The Explosives Act, 1884 MCQs Set-2 (English Medium)

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1. Under Section 7(1)(a), an authorised officer may enter, inspect and examine:

a. Only licensed factories

b. Any place, aircraft, carriage or vessel where explosives are lawfully dealt with under a licence or where he has reason to believe that explosives have been or are being dealt with in contravention of the Act or the rules

c. Only vessels carrying explosives

d. Any premises without restriction

2. Which of the following powers is specifically conferred by Section 7(1)(b)?

a. Arrest of any person found on the premises

b. Search for explosives

c. Cancellation of licences

d. Confiscation of property

3. Under Section 7(1)(c), an authorised officer may:

a. Seize any explosive without compensation

b. Take samples of any explosive found therein on payment of its value

c. Remove all explosives without recording reasons

d. Destroy every explosive found during inspection

4. Under Section 7(1)(d), an authorised officer may:

a. Only seize explosives

b. Seize, detain and remove any explosive or ingredient thereof and, if necessary, also destroy such explosive or ingredient

c. Destroy explosives only with prior court approval

d. Remove only licensed explosives

5. The provisions of the BNSS relating to searches apply to searches under Section 7:

a. In every respect without exception

b. Only if specifically adopted by the State Government

c. So far as they are applicable

d. Only where a warrant has been issued

6. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 7?

a. An authorised officer may take samples of explosives without paying their value.

b. The Central Government cannot authorise officers by virtue of their office.

c. The provisions of the BNSS relating to searches apply, so far as applicable, to searches conducted under Section 7.

d. Section 7 empowers an authorised officer only to inspect licensed premises.

7. Section 8 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Notice of accidents

b. Appeals

c. Inspection of explosives

d. Penalties

8. Under Section 8, the duty to give notice arises when an accident occurs:

a. Only in a licensed factory

b. In or about, or in connection with, a place where an explosive is manufactured, possessed or used, or an aircraft, carriage or vessel conveying explosives or on or from which explosives are being loaded or unloaded

c. Only during transportation of explosives by road

d. Only in a warehouse

9. Which of the following accidents attracts the requirement of notice under Section 8?

a. Every minor accident involving explosives

b. Only accidents resulting in financial loss

c. An accident by explosion or by fire attended with loss of human life or serious injury to person or property, or of a description usually attended with such loss or injury

d. Only explosions causing death

10. Under Section 8, who is responsible for giving notice where the accident occurs in a place in which explosives are manufactured, possessed or used?

a. The District Magistrate

b. The occupier of the place

c. The Chief Controller of Explosives

d. Any police officer

11. If an accident occurs on an aircraft or vessel conveying explosives, the duty to give notice under Section 8 is cast upon:

a. The pilot only

b. The owner of the aircraft or vessel

c. The master of the aircraft or vessel

d. The nearest police officer

12. Where an accident occurs in connection with a carriage conveying explosives, the notice under Section 8 shall be given by:

a. The consignor

b. The consignee

c. The person in charge of the carriage

d. The licensing authority

13. Under Section 8, notice of the accident shall be given:

a. Within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed by rules

b. Within twenty-four hours in every case

c. Within seven days

d. Immediately by telephone only

14. Under Section 8, notice of the accident and attendant loss of human life or personal injury, if any, shall be given to:

a. Only the Chief Controller of Explosives

b. Only the officer in charge of the nearest police station

c. The Chief Controller of Explosives and the officer in charge of the nearest police station

d. The District Magistrate and the State Government

15. Under Section 8, the notice is also required to include:

a. The value of the damaged property only

b. The attendant loss of human life or personal injury, if any

c. The names of all witnesses

d. The cause of the accident as determined by the police

16. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 8?

a. Notice is required only when an accident results in death.

b. Notice is required only to the nearest police station.

c. The occupier, the master of the aircraft or vessel, or the person in charge of the carriage, as the case may be, must give notice within the prescribed time and manner.

d. Notice under Section 8 is optional if the accident causes only serious injury.

17. Section 9 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Inquiry into accidents

b. Notice of accidents

c. Inspection of explosives

d. Appeals

18. Where an accident referred to in Section 8 occurs in or about or in connection with any place, aircraft, carriage or vessel under the control of the Armed Forces of the Union, the inquiry shall be held by:

a. The District Magistrate

b. The Chief Controller of Explosives

c. The naval, military or air force authority concerned

d. The nearest police officer

19. Where an accident referred to in Section 8 occurs in circumstances other than those under the control of the Armed Forces of the Union and is attended by loss of human life, the District Magistrate:

a. May hold an inquiry at his discretion

b. Shall hold or direct a Magistrate subordinate to him to hold an inquiry

c. Shall refer the matter to the Central Government

d. Shall close the matter after receiving notice

20. Where an accident referred to in Section 8 occurs in circumstances other than those under the control of the Armed Forces of the Union but is not attended by loss of human life, the District Magistrate:

a. Shall invariably hold an inquiry

b. May hold or direct a Magistrate subordinate to him to hold an inquiry

c. Has no power to hold an inquiry

d. Must obtain prior approval of the Central Government

21. Under Section 9(2), the person holding an inquiry has:

a. Only the powers specifically mentioned in the Explosives Act

b. All the powers of a Magistrate in holding an inquiry into an offence under the BNSS.

c. Only the powers of a police officer

d. Only the powers of the licensing authority

22. During an inquiry under Section 9, the person holding the inquiry may:

a. Exercise such of the powers conferred on an officer under Section 7 as he considers necessary or expedient for the inquiry

b. Exercise only search powers under Section 7

c. Exercise no powers under Section 7

d. Exercise powers only with prior approval of the Central Government

23. Under Section 9(3), the person holding the inquiry shall submit a report to:

a. The State Government

b. The District Magistrate

c. The Central Government

d. The Chief Controller of Explosives

24. The report under Section 9(3) shall state:

a. Only the names of the persons injured

b. The causes of the accident and its circumstances

c. Only the estimated financial loss

d. Only whether criminal prosecution is recommended

25. Under Section 9(4), the Central Government may make rules to:

a. Regulate the procedure at inquiries under Section 9

b. Enable the Chief Controller of Explosives to be present or represented at the inquiry

c. Permit the Chief Controller of Explosives or his representative to examine witnesses

d. All of the above

26. Which of the following is also a matter for which the Central Government may make rules under Section 9(4)?

a. Prescribing the manner and time within which notices under Section 8 shall be given

b. Prescribing punishment for accidents

c. Creating new licensing authorities

d. Delegating judicial powers to the police

27. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 9?

a. Every inquiry into an accident under Section 8 must be conducted only by the Chief Controller of Explosives.

b. In every case, the District Magistrate is bound to hold an inquiry irrespective of the circumstances.

c. Where the Chief Controller of Explosives is not present or represented at the inquiry, the Central Government may make rules requiring that a report of the proceedings be sent to him.

d. The person holding an inquiry has no powers under Section 7.

28. Section 9A of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Inquiry into more serious accidents

b. Notice of accidents

c. Appeals

d. Suspension of licences

29. Under Section 9A(1), the Central Government may order an inquiry of a more formal character:

a. Only after receiving the report under Section 9

b. Whether or not it has received the report of an inquiry under Section 9

c. Only on the recommendation of the District Magistrate

d. Only after a court order

30. Under Section 9A(1), the Central Government may appoint to hold an inquiry:

a. Only the Chief Controller of Explosives

b. Only a District Magistrate

c. The Chief Controller of Explosives or any other competent person

d. Only a judicial officer

31. Under Section 9A(1), the Central Government may appoint one or more persons possessing legal or special knowledge:

a. As prosecutors

b. As assessors in the inquiry

c. As investigating officers

d. As appellate authorities

32. When the Central Government orders an inquiry under Section 9A, it may:

a. Stay all criminal proceedings

b. Direct that any inquiry under Section 9 pending at the time shall be discontinued

c. Revoke all licences involved in the accident

d. Transfer the matter to the High Court

33. Under Section 9A(3), the person appointed to hold the inquiry has, for specified purposes:

a. All the powers of a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

b. Only the powers of a Magistrate

c. Only the powers of a police officer

d. All the powers of the Supreme Court

34. Under Section 9A(3), every person required to furnish information during the inquiry is deemed to be legally bound to do so within the meaning of:

a. Section 193 of the BNS

b. Section 211 of the BNS

c. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code

d. Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code

35. Under Section 9A(4), the person holding the inquiry may:

a. Exercise such of the powers conferred on an officer under Section 7 as he considers necessary or expedient for the inquiry

b. Exercise only search powers under Section 7

c. Exercise no powers under Section 7

d. Exercise powers only with the approval of the High Court

36. Under Section 9A(5), the report submitted to the Central Government shall include:

a. Only the causes of the accident

b. The causes and circumstances of the accident, together with any observations which the inquiry officer or any assessor thinks fit to make

c. Only recommendations for prosecution

d. Only the statements of witnesses

37. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 9A?

a. The Central Government has no power to publish the report of an inquiry.

b. The Central Government may make rules regulating the procedure for inquiries under Section 9A.

c. Assessors appointed under Section 9A must be judicial officers.

d. An inquiry under Section 9 cannot be discontinued after an inquiry under Section 9A is ordered.

38. Section 9B of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Punishment for certain offences

b. Appeals

c. Inquiry into accidents

d. Inspection and search

39. Under Section 9B(1)(a), a person who, in contravention of rules made under Section 5 or the conditions of a licence, manufactures, imports or exports any explosive is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment up to three years, or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both

b. Imprisonment up to two years only

c. Fine up to one thousand rupees only

d. Imprisonment for life

40. Under Section 9B(1)(b), a person who, in contravention of rules made under Section 5 or the conditions of a licence, possesses, uses, sells or transports any explosive is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment up to three years or fine up to five thousand rupees or both

b. Imprisonment up to two years or fine up to three thousand rupees or both

c. Fine up to one thousand rupees only

d. Imprisonment up to six months only

41. Under Section 9B(1)(c), in any other case of contravention of rules made under Section 5 or licence conditions, the punishment is:

a. Fine up to one thousand rupees

b. Fine up to three thousand rupees

c. Fine up to five thousand rupees

d. Imprisonment up to one year

42. Under Section 9B(2), whoever, in contravention of a notification issued under Section 6, manufactures, possesses or imports any explosive is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment up to three years or fine up to five thousand rupees or both

b. Imprisonment up to two years only

c. Fine up to one thousand rupees only

d. Imprisonment up to six months only

43. In the case of importation by water in contravention of Section 6, who are each liable to a fine up to five thousand rupees in the absence of reasonable excuse?

a. Only the owner of the vessel

b. Only the master of the vessel

c. The owner and the master of the vessel

d. The importer alone

44. In the case of importation by air in contravention of Section 6, who are each liable to a fine up to five thousand rupees in the absence of reasonable excuse?

a. Only the owner of the aircraft

b. Only the master of the aircraft

c. The owner and the master of the aircraft

d. The consignor and consignee

45. Under Section 9B(3)(a) and (b), contravention of clause (a) or clause (b) of Section 6A is punishable with:

a. Imprisonment up to three years or fine or both

b. Fine up to one thousand rupees only

c. Imprisonment up to three months only

d. Death penalty

46. Under Section 9B(3)(c)(i), failure to give notice of an accident in contravention of Section 8 is punishable with:

a. Fine up to five hundred rupees

b. Fine up to one thousand rupees

c. Imprisonment up to three months only

d. Imprisonment up to one year

47. Under Section 9B(3)(c)(ii), where the accident attended by loss of human life is not notified as required under Section 8, the punishment is:

a. Imprisonment up to three months or fine or both

b. Imprisonment up to one year only

c. Fine up to five hundred rupees only

d. Imprisonment up to three years only

48. Section 9C of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Offences by companies

b. Punishment for certain offences

c. Appeals

d. Inquiry into accidents

49. Where an offence under the Explosives Act has been committed by a company, who shall be deemed to be guilty under Section 9C(1)?

a. Only the company

b. Only the managing director

c. Every person who, at the time of the offence, was in charge of or responsible to the company for the conduct of its business, as well as the company

d. Only the shareholders

50. Under the proviso to Section 9C(1), a person otherwise liable shall not be punished if he proves that:

a. The offence was committed by another employee

b. The offence was committed without his knowledge and that he exercised all due diligence to prevent its commission

c. He resigned after the offence

d. The company has paid the prescribed fine

51. Under Section 9C(2), a director, manager, secretary or other officer of a company shall also be deemed guilty where the offence has been committed:

a. Only with his written approval

b. With his consent or connivance, or is attributable to his neglect

c. Only after conviction of the company

d. Only if he is the managing director

52. The deeming provision under Section 9C(2) applies to:

a. Only directors

b. Only managers

c. Directors, managers, secretaries or other officers of the company

d. Only partners of a firm

53. For the purposes of Section 9C, the expression "company" includes:

a. Only a body corporate

b. Only a registered company

c. A body corporate, and includes a firm or other association of individuals

d. Only government companies

54. Under the Explanation to Section 9C, "director", in relation to a firm, means:

a. The managing partner

b. Any employee of the firm

c. A partner in the firm

d. The firm's legal adviser

55. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 9C?

a. Only the company can be prosecuted for an offence committed by it.

b. A person in charge of the company's business has no statutory defence under Section 9C.

c. A director, manager, secretary or other officer may also be deemed guilty if the offence was committed with his consent or connivance, or is attributable to his neglect.

d. A firm is excluded from the definition of "company".

56. Section 10 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Forfeiture of explosives

b. Distress of aircraft or vessel

c. Abetment and attempts

d. Appeals

57. Under Section 10, the power to order forfeiture arises when:

a. A complaint is filed

b. A person is convicted of an offence punishable under the Act or the rules made thereunder

c. An FIR is registered

d. A licence is suspended

58. Under Section 10, the Court may direct forfeiture of:

a. Only the explosive

b. Only the ingredient of the explosive

c. The explosive, ingredient of the explosive, or the substance in respect of which the offence has been committed, or any part thereof, together with the receptacles containing the same

d. Only the receptacles

59. The power of forfeiture under Section 10 is exercised by:

a. The Central Government

b. The licensing authority

c. The Court before which the person is convicted

d. The Chief Controller of Explosives

60. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 10?

a. Forfeiture is automatic upon registration of an offence.

b. The Court may order forfeiture only of the explosive and not its receptacles.

c. The Court before which the person is convicted may direct forfeiture of the explosive, ingredient, or substance concerned along with the receptacles containing the same.

d. The licensing authority alone may order forfeiture.

61. Section 11 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Distress of aircraft or vessel

b. Forfeiture of explosives

c. Appeals

d. Abetment and attempts

62. Under Section 11, the Court may order distress and sale where:

a. The owner or master of an aircraft or vessel is adjudged to pay a fine for an offence committed with or in relation to that aircraft or vessel

b. Every offence under the Act

c. A licence is revoked

d. An inquiry under Section 9A is pending

63. The power under Section 11 to direct distress and sale is:

a. In substitution of every other mode of recovery

b. In addition to any power the Court may have for compelling payment of the fine

c. Available only after approval of the Central Government

d. Exercisable only by the High Court

64. Under Section 11, the Court may direct the fine to be levied by distress and sale of:

a. The aircraft and its furniture, or the vessel and its tackle, apparel and furniture, to the extent necessary for payment of the fine

b. Any property of the convicted person

c. Only the cargo carried in the aircraft or vessel

d. Only the engine of the aircraft or vessel

65. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 11?

a. Distress and sale can be ordered only in respect of a vessel.

b. The Court cannot use any other mode to compel payment of the fine.

c. The Court may direct distress and sale only to the extent necessary for payment of the fine.

d. The owner alone is liable under Section 11.

66. Section 12 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Abetment and attempts

b. Forfeiture of explosives

c. Distress of aircraft or vessel

d. Appeals

67. Under Section 12, whoever abets the commission of an offence punishable under the Act or the rules made thereunder shall be punished:

a. Only with fine

b. As if he had committed the offence

c. With half the punishment prescribed for the offence

d. Only if the principal offender is convicted

68. Under Section 12, an attempt is punishable where the person:

a. Merely intends to commit an offence

b. Attempts to commit an offence and, in such attempt, does any act towards its commission

c. Makes preparations only

d. Is suspected of committing an offence

69. The expression "abets" in Section 12 is to be understood within the meaning of:

a. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

b. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872

d. The General Clauses Act, 1897

70. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 12?

a. Mere preparation is punishable under Section 12.

b. Every attempt is punishable even if no act is done towards the commission of the offence.

c. A person who abets an offence punishable under the Act or attempts it by doing an act towards its commission is punishable as if he had committed the offence.

d. Section 12 applies only to offences under the Act and not to offences under the rules.

71. Section 13 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Power to arrest without warrant persons committing dangerous offences

b. Forfeiture of explosives

c. Appeals

d. Saving of Arms Act

72. Under Section 13, a person committing an act punishable under the Act or the rules may be arrested without warrant if the act:

a. Causes financial loss only

b. Tends to cause explosion or fire in the places specified therein

c. Is committed after sunset

d. Involves only breach of licence conditions

73. Under Section 13, which of the following persons may arrest without warrant?

a. Only a Police Officer

b. Only a Magistrate

c. A Police Officer or the persons specifically authorised under Section 13

d. Only the licensing authority

74. Under Section 13, after arrest the person shall be:

a. Released on personal bond

b. Conveyed as soon as conveniently may be before a Magistrate

c. Produced before the Central Government

d. Kept in custody for seven days

75. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 13?

a. Arrest without warrant is permitted only by a Police Officer.

b. A person arrested under Section 13 must be produced before a Magistrate as soon as conveniently may be.

c. Section 13 applies only to offences committed in factories.

d. A warrant is mandatory before arrest under Section 13.

76. Section 14 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Saving and power to exempt

b. Saving of Arms Act

c. Delegation of powers

d. Extension of definition of explosive

77. Under Section 14(1), the provisions of the Act, except Sections 8, 9 and 9A, do not apply to manufacture, possession, use, transport or importation of explosives by:

a. The Armed Forces of the Union in accordance with rules or regulations made by the Central Government

b. Every licensed manufacturer

c. Every public sector undertaking

d. Every Government company

78. Under Section 14(2), the Central Government may exempt:

a. Only any explosive

b. Only any person

c. Any explosive and any person or class of persons from all or any provisions of the Act or the rules, absolutely or subject to conditions

d. Only State Governments

79. The exemption under Section 14(2) is granted by:

a. Executive order

b. Notification in the Official Gazette

c. Government circular

d. Court order

80. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 14?

a. Sections 8, 9 and 9A are excluded from the statutory saving under Section 14(1).

b. The Central Government cannot impose conditions while granting exemption.

c. Exemption can be granted only to explosives and not to persons.

d. Exemption must always be absolute.

81. Section 15 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Saving of the Arms Act, 1959

b. Saving as to liability under other law

c. Appeals

d. Arrest without warrant

82. Under Section 15, nothing in the Explosives Act shall affect the provisions of:

a. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. The Arms Act, 1959

c. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

d. The Explosive Substances Act, 1908

83. Under the proviso to Section 15, a licence granted under the Explosives Act may also have the effect of a like licence under the Arms Act if:

a. The licensing authority is empowered by the relevant rules and makes an order on the licence

b. The Central Government grants prior approval in every case

c. The District Magistrate so directs

d. The licensee makes an application after grant

84. Under Section 15, the order giving effect to the licence as a like licence under the Arms Act shall be:

a. Published in the Official Gazette

b. Written on the licence

c. Communicated orally

d. Issued separately by the High Court

85. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 15?

a. The Explosives Act overrides the Arms Act, 1959.

b. Every licence under the Explosives Act automatically becomes a licence under the Arms Act.

c. A licence under the Explosives Act may be directed to have the effect of a like licence under the Arms Act if the licensing authority is empowered by the relevant rules.

d. Section 15 repeals the Arms Act, 1959.

86. Section 16 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Saving as to liability under other law

b. Appeals

c. Saving of Arms Act

d. Delegation of powers

87. Under Section 16, prosecution under any other law is:

a. Barred once proceedings are initiated under the Explosives Act

b. Not barred if the act or omission also constitutes an offence under that other law

c. Permitted only with Central Government approval

d. Permitted only after acquittal under the Explosives Act

88. Under Section 16, a person may be liable under another law:

a. Only to the same punishment as under the Explosives Act

b. To any other or higher punishment or penalty than that provided under the Explosives Act or the rules

c. Only to civil liability

d. Only to departmental action

89. The proviso to Section 16 embodies the principle that:

a. Every offence must be tried by a Sessions Court

b. A person shall not be punished twice for the same offence

c. Every prosecution requires previous sanction

d. Punishment under the Explosives Act excludes all other penalties

90. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 16?

a. A person cannot be prosecuted under any other law for the same act.

b. Section 16 permits prosecution under another law but prohibits double punishment for the same offence.

c. Higher punishment under another law is prohibited.

d. Section 16 applies only to offences under the rules.

91. Section 17 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Extension of definition of "explosive" to other explosive substances

b. Saving of Arms Act

c. Delegation of powers

d. Exemptions

92. Under Section 17, the Central Government may declare a substance to be an explosive:

a. By executive instruction

b. By notification in the Official Gazette

c. By circular

d. By licence

93. The Central Government may declare a substance to be an explosive under Section 17 if it appears specially dangerous to life or property by reason of:

a. Its explosive properties or any process in its manufacture being liable to explosion

b. Its chemical composition alone

c. Its commercial value

d. Its quantity alone

94. Under Section 17, the provisions of the Act shall extend to the notified substance:

a. Without any exception

b. Subject to such exceptions, limitations and restrictions as may be specified in the notification

c. Only after Parliamentary approval

d. Only for one year

95. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 17?

a. Only substances already included in the definition of "explosive" can be regulated under the Act.

b. The Central Government may extend the Act to a notified substance with specified exceptions, limitations and restrictions.

c. A State Government alone can notify additional explosives.

d. Notification under Section 17 requires prior judicial approval.

96. Section 17A of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Power to delegate

b. Saving of Arms Act

c. Appeals

d. Inquiry into accidents

97. Under Section 17A, the Central Government may delegate its powers:

a. Under every provision of the Act without exception

b. Under the Act except the powers under Sections 5, 6, 6A, 14 and 17

c. Only under Section 17

d. Only under Section 14

98. Delegation under Section 17A is made by:

a. Government order

b. Notification in the Official Gazette

c. Executive instruction

d. Circular

99. Under Section 17A, the Central Government may delegate powers to:

a. Only officers subordinate to the Central Government

b. Only State Governments

c. Officers or authorities subordinate to the Central Government, or State Governments, or officers or authorities subordinate to the State Government

d. Any private person

100. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 17A?

a. The power under Section 17 may be delegated under Section 17A.

b. Delegation under Section 17A may be made subject to specified matters and conditions.

c. Delegation can be made only to State Governments.

d. Section 17A permits delegation without notification.

101. Section 18 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:

a. Procedure for making, publication and confirmation of rules

b. Power to delegate

c. Saving of Arms Act

d. Appeals

102. Before making rules under the Explosives Act, the rule-making authority shall:

a. Obtain prior approval of Parliament

b. Publish a draft of the proposed rules for the information of persons likely to be affected

c. Publish the final rules directly

d. Consult only the Chief Controller of Explosives

103. Under Section 18(2), the publication of the draft rules shall be made:

a. In such manner as the Central Government prescribes by notification in the Official Gazette

b. Only in two national newspapers

c. Only on the website of the Central Government

d. By public notice in every district

104. Under Section 18(3), the draft rules shall be accompanied by:

a. A statement of objects and reasons

b. A notice specifying a date at or after which the draft will be taken into consideration

c. The approval of Parliament

d. A list of affected persons

105. Before making the rules, the rule-making authority shall:

a. Consider only objections made by Government departments

b. Receive and consider any objection or suggestion made before the specified date

c. Consider only written objections from licensees

d. Ignore objections received after publication

106. Under Section 18(5), a rule made under the Act shall not take effect until:

a. It is approved by the Supreme Court

b. It has been published in the Official Gazette

c. It is laid before Parliament

d. Thirty days have expired from its making

107. Under Section 18(6), publication of a rule in the Official Gazette is conclusive evidence that:

a. The rule is constitutionally valid

b. The rule has been duly made and, where required, duly sanctioned

c. The rule cannot be challenged in any court

d. The rule has been approved by Parliament

108. Under Section 18(7), the power to make rules under the Act:

a. Can be exercised only once

b. May be exercised from time to time as occasion requires

c. Can be exercised only after amendment of the Act

d. Lapses after the first set of rules is made

109. Under Section 18(8), every rule made under the Act shall be laid before:

a. The Central Government

b. Each House of Parliament

c. The Supreme Court

d. The Chief Controller of Explosives

110. Under Section 18(8), every rule shall be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of:

a. Fifteen days

b. Thirty days

c. Sixty days

d. Ninety days

111. The period of thirty days under Section 18(8) may be comprised:

a. Only in one session

b. Only in two successive sessions

c. In one session or in two or more successive sessions

d. Only in three successive sessions

112. If both Houses of Parliament agree to modify a rule under Section 18(8):

a. The rule becomes void from the beginning

b. The rule thereafter has effect only in the modified form

c. The rule automatically expires after thirty days

d. The modification requires Presidential assent

113. If both Houses of Parliament agree that a rule should not be made:

a. The rule continues until withdrawn by the Central Government

b. The rule thereafter has no effect

c. The rule remains valid for one year

d. The rule applies only prospectively

114. Modification or annulment of a rule under Section 18(8):

a. Invalidates everything previously done under that rule

b. Is without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule

c. Automatically revives the previous rule

d. Requires fresh publication in the Official Gazette

115. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 18?

a. Draft rules may be made without inviting objections or suggestions.

b. Publication of a rule in the Official Gazette is conclusive evidence that it has been duly made and, where required, duly sanctioned.

c. Every rule must remain before Parliament for sixty days.

d. Parliament cannot modify or annul a rule made under the Act.

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