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The Explosives Act, 1884 MCQs Set-1 (English Medium)
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1. The statute titled "The Explosives Act, 1884" was enacted as:
a. Act No. 4 of 1884
b. Act No. 4 of 1885
c. Act No. 5 of 1884
d. Act No. 1 of 1884
2. The Explosives Act, 1884 received the assent on:
a. 26th January, 1884
b. 26th February, 1884
c. 1st March, 1884
d. 26th February, 1885
3. The long title of the Explosives Act, 1884 indicates that the primary object of the Act is to:
a. prohibit the manufacture and use of explosives
b. regulate the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import and export of explosives
c. regulate only the import and export of explosives
d. regulate only the manufacture of explosives
4. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the legislative intent expressed in the Preamble of the Explosives Act, 1884?
a. It was considered expedient to prohibit all dealings in explosives.
b. It was considered expedient to regulate the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import and export of explosives.
c. It was considered expedient to nationalise the explosives industry.
d. It was considered expedient to regulate only the transport of explosives.
5. Section 1 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Short title and local extent
b. Definitions
c. Licensing of explosives
d. Rule-making power
6. Under Section 1(1) of the Explosives Act, 1884, this Act may be called:
a. The Indian Explosives Act, 1884
b. The Explosives Regulation Act, 1884
c. The Explosives Act, 1884
d. The Explosive Substances Act, 1884
7. A consignment of explosives is found in a part of India where a person claims that the Explosives Act, 1884 is inapplicable. Under Section 1(2), which of the following is correct?
a. The Act extends only to such areas as notified by the Central Government.
b. The Act extends only to Union Territories.
c. The Act extends to the whole of India.
d. The Act extends only to States.
8. Section 2 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Commencement
b. Definitions
c. Local extent
d. Rule-making power
9. Under Section 2(1) of the Explosives Act, 1884, the Act comes into force:
a. immediately upon receiving assent
b. on such day as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint
c. on such day as the State Government may appoint by notification
d. on the first day of the financial year following its enactment
10. For bringing the Explosives Act, 1884 into force under Section 2(1), the Central Government is required to:
a. issue an executive order
b. publish a notification in the Official Gazette appointing the date
c. obtain the approval of Parliament by resolution
d. publish a public notice in newspapers
11. Section 3 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Repeal of portions of Act 12 of 1875
b. Definitions
c. Power to make rules
d. Penalties
12. Section 3 of the Explosives Act, 1884 was repealed by:
a. The Explosive Substances Act, 1908
b. The Indian Ports Act, 1889 (10 of 1889), section 2 read with the Second Schedule
c. The General Clauses Act, 1897
d. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
13. Section 4 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Licensing of explosives
c. Commencement
d. Penalties
14. Under Section 4(a), which of the following is an "aircraft"?
a. A machine deriving support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, including balloons, airships, kites, gliders and flying machines
b. Any vehicle capable of movement on land
c. Every vessel used in navigation
d. Only powered aeroplanes
15. A horse-cart is used for transporting goods. Under Section 4(b), it is:
a. A carriage
b. A vessel
c. An aircraft
d. Not covered by the Act
16. In an area where a Commissioner of Police has been appointed, "District Magistrate" under Section 4(c) means:
a. Only the District Magistrate appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure
b. The Commissioner of Police and includes the specified Deputy Commissioner of Police exercising jurisdiction over the area or part thereof and an Additional District Magistrate
c. Only the Commissioner of Police
d. Only an Additional District Magistrate
17. A chemical mixture is manufactured to produce a practical effect by explosion. Under Section 4(d), it:
a. Is an explosive only if specifically named in the definition
b. Is an explosive if used or manufactured with a view to produce a practical effect by explosion or pyrotechnic effect
c. Is not an explosive unless licensed
d. Is an explosive only if solid
18. Which of the following is expressly included within the definition of "explosive" under Section 4(d)?
a. Fireworks
b. Cement
c. Diesel
d. Coal
19. Goods are taken from India to a place outside India by sea. Under Section 4(e), this amounts to:
a. Import
b. Export
c. Manufacture
d. Transport
20. Goods are brought into India from a place outside India by air. Under Section 4(f), this amounts to:
a. Export
b. Import
c. Manufacture
d. Carriage
21. Under Section 4(g), who is the "master" of a vessel or aircraft?
a. The pilot having charge of the vessel or aircraft
b. Any person having for the time being the charge or control of the vessel or aircraft, other than a pilot, harbour master, assistant harbour master or berthing master
c. Only the registered owner
d. Every crew member
22. An explosive is dismantled into its component parts and a damaged explosive is made fit for use. Under Section 4(h), this process amounts to:
a. Import
b. Manufacture
c. Export
d. Sale
23. Altering and repairing an explosive is treated under Section 4(h) as:
a. Manufacture
b. Transport
c. Possession
d. Storage
24. The expression "prescribed" under Section 4(i) means:
a. Prescribed by the Central Government through executive instructions
b. Prescribed by rules made under the Act
c. Prescribed by notification in the Official Gazette
d. Prescribed by the District Magistrate
25. Which of the following would be a "vessel" under Section 4(j)?
a. A ship used in navigation
b. A boat used for conveyance by water
c. A caisson
d. All of the above
26. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 4?
a. Manufacture excludes repairing an explosive.
b. Import means taking goods out of India.
c. "Prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under the Act.
d. A pilot is always the master of a vessel or aircraft.
27. Section 5 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Power to make rules as to licensing of the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import and export of explosives
b. Definitions
c. Commencement
d. Penalties
28. Under Section 5(1), the power to make rules regulating or prohibiting activities relating to explosives is vested in:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The District Magistrate
d. The Chief Controller of Explosives
29. Rules made under Section 5(1) must be:
a. Consistent with this Act
b. Consistent with the Indian Penal Code only
c. Approved by every State Government
d. Made by notification after Parliamentary approval
30. Under Section 5(1), the Central Government may regulate or prohibit the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import and export of explosives:
a. Only by imposing a complete prohibition
b. Except under and in accordance with the conditions of a licence granted as provided by the rules
c. Only through executive orders
d. Only in relation to imported explosives
31. The rule-making power under Section 5(1) extends to:
a. Explosives generally as well as any specified class of explosives
b. Imported explosives only
c. Military explosives only
d. Fireworks only
32. Under Section 5(2), rules may provide for:
a. The authority by which licences may be granted
b. Appointment of judges
c. Trial of offences
d. Confiscation of property
33. Under Section 5(2), rules may prescribe:
a. Only the licence fee
b. The fees for licences and other sums, if any, payable by applicants towards expenses
c. Court fees payable in criminal proceedings
d. Customs duty on explosives
34. Rules framed under Section 5(2) may prescribe:
a. Only the authority granting licences
b. The manner of making licence applications and the matters to be specified therein
c. The punishment for breach of licence conditions
d. The appellate jurisdiction of civil courts
35. Under Section 5(2), rules may provide for:
a. The form of licences and the conditions subject to which licences are granted
b. Registration of companies manufacturing explosives
c. Acquisition of land for explosives factories
d. Search warrants
36. Section 5(2) expressly authorises rules to prescribe:
a. The period for which licences are to remain in force
b. The limitation period for criminal prosecution
c. The tenure of licensing authorities
d. The duration of imprisonment for offences
37. Rules made under Section 5(2)(ee) may provide for:
a. The appellate authority under Section 6F, the procedure for appeals, the limitation period, the fees payable and the circumstances for refund of such fees
b. Appeal to the High Court in every case
c. Review by the Central Government only
d. Revision by the District Magistrate
38. Under Section 5(2)(eea), rules may prescribe:
a. The maximum quantity of explosives that a licensee may purchase during a given period
b. The quantity of explosives that may be manufactured in India annually
c. The quantity that may be exported by every manufacturer
d. The storage capacity of every licensed premises
39. Section 5(2)(eeb) empowers rules to prescribe:
a. Customs duty on imported explosives
b. Fees to be charged by the Chief Controller of Explosives or an authorised officer for services rendered in connection with the manufacture, transport, import or export of explosives
c. Fees payable to State Governments for inspections
d. Annual licence renewal charges only
40. Under Section 5(2)(f), rules may provide for:
a. Exemption, absolutely or subject to conditions, of any explosives or any person or class of persons from the operation of the rules
b. Exemption only of Government departments
c. Exemption only of imported explosives
d. Exemption only of licensed manufacturers
41. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 5?
a. The Central Government may make rules inconsistent with the Act if public interest so requires.
b. Rules may provide for exemption, absolutely or subject to conditions, of any explosives or any person or class of persons from the operation of the rules.
c. Rules may prescribe only the authority granting licences and no other matter.
d. The power to make rules under Section 5 is vested in the State Government.
42. Section 5A of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Temporary continuance of certain existing businesses without licence
b. Grant of licences
c. Suspension of licences
d. Cancellation of licences
43. Section 5A begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Section 4 only
b. Section 5 and the rules made thereunder
c. Section 6 only
d. All provisions of the Act
44. A person was carrying on the business of manufacture of an explosive immediately before the commencement of the Indian Explosives (Amendment) Act, 1978, and no licence was required for such explosive before the amendment. Under Section 5A, such person is entitled to continue the business without a licence:
a. Permanently
b. For three months from the date of such commencement
c. For one year
d. Until directed otherwise by the Central Government
45. A person covered by Section 5A applies for a licence before the expiry of three months from the commencement of the Indian Explosives (Amendment) Act, 1978. Until when can he continue the business without a licence?
a. Only till the expiry of three months
b. Until the licence is granted
c. Until the final disposal of his application
d. Until six months from the date of application
46. Which of the following businesses is covered by the protection under Section 5A, provided the other statutory conditions are satisfied?
a. Manufacture, sale, transport, import or export of explosives
b. Possession and use of explosives only
c. Storage of explosives only
d. Distribution of licences
47. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 5A?
a. Every person carrying on any business relating to explosives is permanently exempt from obtaining a licence.
b. The benefit of Section 5A is available irrespective of whether a licence was previously required.
c. A person who applies for a licence before the expiry of three months may continue the business without a licence until the final disposal of the application.
d. Section 5A applies only to businesses commenced after the Indian Explosives (Amendment) Act, 1978.
48. Section 6 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Power of the Central Government to prohibit the manufacture, possession or importation of specially dangerous explosives
b. Grant of licences
c. Appeals against licensing orders
d. Inspection of explosives
49. The power under Section 6(1) may be exercised by the Central Government:
a. Notwithstanding anything contained in the rules made under Section 5
b. Subject to prior approval of every State Government
c. Only after obtaining a court order
d. Only during a national emergency
50. The Central Government may exercise its power under Section 6(1) by:
a. Executive instructions
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Circular issued by the Chief Controller of Explosives
d. Resolution passed by Parliament
51. Under Section 6(1), the Central Government may prohibit:
a. Manufacture, possession or importation of any explosive
b. Sale of every explosive
c. Export of all explosives
d. Transport of explosives only
52. Under Section 6(1), a notification prohibiting the manufacture, possession or importation of an explosive may be:
a. Only absolute
b. Only conditional
c. Either absolute or subject to conditions
d. Issued only for a specified period of one year
53. The Central Government may issue a notification under Section 6(1) only when:
a. Every explosive is considered hazardous
b. The explosive is of so dangerous a character that, in the opinion of the Central Government, it is expedient in the interest of public safety to issue the notification
c. A State Government recommends such prohibition
d. The explosive is imported from a foreign country
54. A notification under Section 6 prohibits the importation of a particular explosive. Under Section 6(2), the Customs Act, 1962 shall apply:
a. Only to the explosive
b. Only to the vessel carrying the explosive
c. Both to the explosive and to the vessel, carriage or aircraft containing it, as it applies to prohibited or regulated imports under that Act
d. Neither to the explosive nor to the conveyance
55. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6?
a. The power under Section 6 is vested in the State Government.
b. A notification under Section 6 can be issued only after amendment of the rules made under Section 5.
c. The Customs Act, 1962 applies to an explosive whose import is prohibited under Section 6 and to the vessel, carriage or aircraft containing such explosive in the manner provided therein.
d. The Central Government may prohibit only the manufacture of specially dangerous explosives.
56. Section 6A of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Prohibition of manufacture, possession, sale or transport of explosives by young persons and certain other persons
b. Suspension of licences
c. Rule-making power
d. Inspection of explosives
57. Section 6A operates:
a. Subject to the other provisions of the Act
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing provisions of the Act
c. Subject to the rules framed by the State Government
d. Only during an emergency
58. Under Section 6A(a), which of the following persons is prohibited from manufacturing, selling, transporting, importing or exporting any explosive?
a. A person who has not completed the age of eighteen years
b. A person who has completed eighteen years but has no licence
c. Every person below twenty-one years of age
d. Every unemployed person
59. A person was convicted of an offence involving violence and sentenced to imprisonment for four months. Is he disqualified under Section 6A(a)(ii) solely on that ground?
a. Yes, because every conviction involving violence attracts the provision
b. Yes, because every sentence of imprisonment attracts the provision
c. No, because the sentence must be for a term of not less than six months
d. No, because offences involving violence are excluded from Section 6A
60. A person was convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude and sentenced to imprisonment for one year. Under Section 6A(a)(ii), the disqualification continues:
a. For five years from the date of conviction
b. For five years after the expiration of the sentence
c. For one year after release
d. Permanently
61. A person has been ordered under Chapter 9th of the BNSS to execute a bond for keeping the peace. Under Section 6A(a)(iii), the prohibition operates:
a. Permanently
b. During the term of the bond
c. For five years from the order
d. Until the bond is cancelled by the District Magistrate
62. A person's licence under the Explosives Act was cancelled for contravention of the Act or the rules. Under Section 6A(a)(iv), the disqualification operates:
a. For two years from cancellation
b. For five years from the date of cancellation of the licence
c. Permanently
d. Until a fresh licence is granted
63. Under Section 6A(a)(2), a prohibited person is barred from possessing:
a. Every explosive without exception
b. Only such explosive as the Central Government may, having regard to its nature, specify by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Only imported explosives
d. Only military explosives
64. Under Section 6A(b), a person is prohibited from selling, delivering or despatching an explosive to another person if, at the time of such sale, delivery or despatch, he knows or has reason to believe that the recipient:
a. Is prohibited under clause (a) or is of unsound mind
b. Is below twenty-one years of age
c. Does not possess identity proof
d. Has not obtained prior police permission
65. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6A?
a. A person below eighteen years may possess any explosive if supervised by an adult.
b. Every person convicted of any offence is permanently disqualified under the Act.
c. A person is prohibited from selling, delivering or despatching an explosive to a person whom he knows or has reason to believe is prohibited under clause (a) or is of unsound mind.
d. Cancellation of a licence results in lifelong disqualification under the Act.
66. Section 6B of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Grant of licences
b. Suspension of licences
c. Cancellation of licences
d. Appeals
67. An application for a licence is made under Section 5. Under Section 6B(1), the licensing authority may:
a. Grant the licence without passing any order
b. After making such inquiry, if any, as it considers necessary and subject to the other provisions of the Act, grant or refuse the licence by a written order
c. Forward the application directly to the Central Government for decision
d. Reject the application without recording its decision in writing
68. A person applies for a licence to manufacture explosives. Under Section 6B(2)(a), the licensing authority shall grant the licence if satisfied that the applicant:
a. Possesses technical know-how and experience in the manufacture of explosives
b. Has sufficient financial resources only
c. Owns land for the proposed factory
d. Has been recommended by the District Magistrate
69. An applicant for a licence to manufacture explosives does not personally possess technical know-how or experience but undertakes to employ persons possessing such technical know-how and experience. Under Section 6B(2)(a), the licensing authority:
a. Must refuse the licence
b. May grant the licence if otherwise satisfied under the provision
c. Can grant the licence only after five years
d. Can grant the licence only with the approval of the Central Government
70. Under Section 6B(2)(b), where a licence is required for a purpose other than the manufacture of explosives, the licensing authority shall grant the licence if satisfied that the applicant:
a. Has technical know-how in manufacturing explosives
b. Has a good reason for obtaining the licence
c. Has previously held a licence under the Act
d. Has obtained the approval of the Central Government
71. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6B?
a. Every application for a licence must be granted without inquiry.
b. A licence for manufacture can be granted only if the applicant personally possesses technical know-how and experience.
c. For purposes other than manufacture, the licensing authority shall grant the licence if satisfied that the applicant has a good reason for obtaining it.
d. The licensing authority can grant or refuse a licence orally.
72. Section 6C of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Refusal of licences
b. Grant of licences
c. Suspension of licences
d. Appeals
73. Section 6C(1) begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 6A
d. Section 6B
74. An application is made for a licence in respect of a prohibited explosive. Under Section 6C(1), the licensing authority shall:
a. Grant the licence subject to conditions
b. Refuse the licence
c. Refer the matter to the Central Government
d. Keep the application pending
75. The licensing authority has reason to believe that the applicant is prohibited by this Act or any other law for the time being in force from manufacturing, possessing, selling, transporting, importing or exporting explosives. Under Section 6C(1), the licensing authority:
a. May grant the licence after warning the applicant
b. Shall refuse to grant the licence
c. Shall grant a temporary licence
d. May grant the licence subject to security
76. Under Section 6C(1), the licensing authority shall refuse to grant a licence if it has reason to believe that the applicant:
a. Is of unsound mind
b. Has insufficient financial resources
c. Has no prior licence under the Act
d. Is below twenty-one years of age
77. Which of the following is an independent ground for mandatory refusal of a licence under Section 6C(1)?
a. The applicant is, for any reason, unfit for a licence under the Act.
b. The applicant has never previously applied for a licence.
c. The applicant is unemployed.
d. The applicant resides outside the district.
78. Under Section 6C(1), the licensing authority shall refuse to grant a licence where it deems such refusal necessary:
a. For the convenience of the licensing authority
b. For the security of the public peace or for public safety
c. To reduce the number of licences issued
d. Whenever an objection is received from any person
79. Where the licensing authority refuses to grant a licence, Section 6C(2) requires it to:
a. Record the reasons for refusal in writing
b. Record reasons only if directed by the Central Government
c. Record reasons only when an appeal is filed
d. Communicate oral reasons immediately
80. A person whose licence application has been refused demands the reasons for refusal. Under Section 6C(2), the licensing authority shall:
a. Always furnish the complete record of the proceedings
b. Furnish a brief statement of the reasons unless it is of the opinion that doing so would not be in the public interest
c. Refuse to disclose any reason under any circumstances
d. Furnish reasons only after an appeal is decided
81. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6C?
a. The licensing authority may grant a licence for a prohibited explosive if sufficient safeguards are imposed.
b. Reasons for refusal need not be recorded in writing.
c. A brief statement of the reasons for refusal shall be furnished on demand unless the licensing authority considers that doing so would not be in the public interest.
d. Public safety is not a relevant consideration while refusing a licence.
82. Section 6D of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Power of the licensing authority to impose conditions in addition to prescribed conditions
b. Refusal of licences
c. Suspension of licences
d. Appeals
83. A licence granted under Section 6B contains conditions not prescribed by the rules. Under Section 6D, such conditions are valid if:
a. They are approved by the Central Government
b. They are considered necessary by the licensing authority in the particular case
c. They are recommended by the District Magistrate
d. They are accepted by all licensees
84. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6D?
a. A licence under Section 6B can contain only the conditions prescribed by the rules.
b. The licensing authority has no power to impose additional conditions.
c. A licence granted under Section 6B may contain, in addition to prescribed conditions, such other conditions as the licensing authority considers necessary in a particular case.
d. Additional conditions can be imposed only by the Central Government.
85. Section 6E of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Variation, suspension and revocation of licences
b. Grant of licences
c. Appeals
d. Rule-making power
86. Under Section 6E(1), the licensing authority may vary:
a. Any condition of a licence, including prescribed conditions
b. Only the prescribed conditions
c. The conditions of a licence except such of them as have been prescribed
d. Only conditions imposed by the Central Government
87. For the purpose of varying the conditions of a licence under Section 6E(1), the licensing authority may:
a. Cancel the licence without notice
b. Require the holder, by notice in writing, to deliver up the licence within the time specified in the notice
c. Require the holder to apply afresh for a licence
d. Seize the licence without any notice
88. Under Section 6E(2), the licensing authority may vary the conditions of a licence:
a. Only on the direction of the Central Government
b. On the application of the licence holder, except in respect of prescribed conditions
c. Only after cancellation of the licence
d. Only by order of a court
89. Which of the following is a ground under Section 6E(3) for suspension or revocation of a licence?
a. The licence holder is prohibited by this Act or any other law from manufacturing, possessing, selling, transporting, importing or exporting explosives, or is of unsound mind, or is otherwise unfit for a licence
b. The licence holder changes his residential address
c. The licence holder transfers his business to a family member
d. The licence holder fails to renew his passport
90. Under Section 6E(3), the licensing authority may suspend or revoke a licence if it considers such action necessary:
a. For administrative convenience
b. For the security of the public peace or for public safety
c. At the request of any private individual
d. Only after conviction of the licence holder
91. A licence was obtained by suppressing material information at the time of applying for the licence. Under Section 6E(3), the licensing authority may:
a. Only impose a fine
b. Suspend or revoke the licence
c. Issue a warning only
d. Extend the licence period
92. Under Section 6E(3), contravention of any condition of the licence:
a. Automatically cancels the licence by operation of law
b. Is a ground for suspension or revocation of the licence
c. Results only in monetary penalty
d. Has no effect unless ordered by a court
93. Failure of the licence holder to comply with a notice under Section 6E(1) requiring delivery of the licence:
a. Has no statutory consequence
b. Is a ground for suspension or revocation of the licence
c. Results only in suspension for seven days
d. Requires prosecution before any action can be taken
94. Under Section 6E(4), the licensing authority may revoke a licence:
a. Only after conviction of the licence holder
b. On the application of the holder of the licence
c. Only on the recommendation of the Central Government
d. Only after giving three months' notice
95. Where the licensing authority varies licence conditions under Section 6E(1) or suspends or revokes a licence under Section 6E(3), it must:
a. Record reasons in writing and furnish a brief statement of the same on demand unless it considers it against the public interest
b. Record reasons only if directed by the High Court
c. Communicate oral reasons immediately
d. Record reasons only where the licence is revoked
96. A court convicts the holder of a licence of an offence under the Explosives Act, 1884. Under Section 6E(6), the court:
a. Cannot interfere with the licence
b. May suspend or revoke the licence
c. May only recommend suspension to the licensing authority
d. May impose only a monetary penalty
97. Under the proviso to Section 6E(6), if the conviction is set aside on appeal or otherwise:
a. The suspension or revocation continues
b. The suspension or revocation becomes void
c. The licence automatically expires
d. A fresh licence application is mandatory
98. Under Section 6E(7), an order of suspension or revocation under Section 6E(6) may also be made by:
a. Only the Supreme Court
b. An appellate court or the High Court while exercising revisional powers
c. Only the District Magistrate
d. Only the Central Government
99. Under Section 6E(8), the Central Government may:
a. Suspend or revoke, or direct any licensing authority to suspend or revoke, all or any licences throughout India or any part thereof by order in the Official Gazette
b. Suspend licences only after approval of Parliament
c. Revoke licences only within Union Territories
d. Direct only State Governments to revoke licences
100. Upon suspension or revocation of a licence under Section 6E, the licence holder shall:
a. Retain the licence until disposal of an appeal
b. Without delay surrender the licence to the authority specified under Section 6E(9)
c. Destroy the licence
d. Surrender the licence within thirty days
101. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6E?
a. Prescribed conditions of a licence may be varied by the licensing authority under Section 6E(1).
b. The licensing authority is not required to record reasons while suspending a licence.
c. If a conviction leading to suspension or revocation of a licence is set aside on appeal or otherwise, the suspension or revocation becomes void.
d. A licence holder is not required to surrender the licence after its revocation.
102. Section 6F of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Revision
c. Review
d. Grant of licences
103. Under Section 6F(1), an appeal lies against an order of the licensing authority:
a. Refusing to grant a licence, varying the conditions of a licence, or suspending or revoking a licence
b. Granting a licence only
c. Framing rules under the Act
d. Issuing a notification under Section 6
104. Which of the following orders is not appealable under Section 6F?
a. An order refusing to grant a licence made by the licensing authority
b. An order varying the conditions of a licence made by the licensing authority
c. An order suspending a licence made under the direction of the Central Government
d. An order revoking a licence made by the licensing authority
105. An appeal under Section 6F(1) is to be preferred:
a. To the High Court within thirty days
b. To the appellate authority within the prescribed period
c. To the Central Government within sixty days
d. To the District Magistrate within the prescribed period
106. Under Section 6F(2), an appeal filed after the prescribed period:
a. Shall always be rejected
b. May be admitted if the appellant satisfies the appellate authority that he had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within the prescribed period
c. May be admitted only with the consent of the licensing authority
d. Is maintainable only if accompanied by an affidavit
107. Under Section 6F(3), the prescribed period for filing an appeal is to be computed:
a. In accordance with the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. In accordance with the General Clauses Act, 1897
c. In accordance with the Limitation Act, 1963
d. In accordance with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
108. Under Section 6F(4), every appeal shall:
a. Be made orally before the appellate authority
b. Be made by a petition in writing and be accompanied by a brief statement of the reasons for the order appealed against, where such statement has been furnished, and by the prescribed fee
c. Be made by electronic communication only
d. Be accompanied only by the impugned licence
109. Under Section 6F(5), before disposing of an appeal, the appellate authority:
a. Need not hear the appellant if the record is complete
b. Must give the appellant a reasonable opportunity of being heard
c. Must obtain the approval of the Central Government
d. Must refer the matter to the licensing authority
110. Pending disposal of an appeal under Section 6F, the order appealed against:
a. Automatically remains stayed
b. Ceases to operate after filing of the appeal
c. Continues to remain in force unless the appellate authority conditionally or unconditionally directs otherwise
d. Remains in force only for thirty days
111. Under Section 6F(7), the appellate authority may:
a. Only confirm the order appealed against
b. Confirm, modify or reverse the order appealed against, and its order shall be final
c. Remand the matter only
d. Review its own order at any time
112. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6F?
a. Every order of the Central Government is appealable under Section 6F.
b. An appeal may be presented only orally.
c. The order appealed against remains in force pending disposal of the appeal unless the appellate authority directs otherwise.
d. The order of the appellate authority is not final.
113. Section 7 of the Explosives Act, 1884 deals with:
a. Power to make rules conferring powers of inspection, search, seizure, detention and removal
b. Appeals
c. Grant of licences
d. Penalties
114. Under Section 7(1), the power to make rules authorising officers to exercise powers under this section is vested in:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The District Magistrate
d. The Chief Controller of Explosives
115. Rules made under Section 7(1) may authorise an officer:
a. Only by name
b. Only by virtue of his office
c. Either by name or by virtue of his office
d. Only after appointment by notification under Section 5