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The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 MCQs Set-1 (English Medium)
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THE DELHI SPECIAL POLICE ESTABLISHMENT ACT, 1946
ACT No. 25 OF 1946
1. Section 1 of the DSPE Act, 1946 provides:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Short title and extent of the Act
c. Powers of DSPE members
d. Offences to be investigated
2. The main purpose of the DSPE Act, 1946 is to:
a. Create a judicial body
b. Constitute a special police force in Delhi for investigation of certain offences
c. Regulate State Police
d. Grant immunity to officers
3. Section 1 mentions the Act extends to:
a. Delhi only
b. Selected Union territories
c. Whole of India
d. Union territories notified by Central Government
4. The Act provides for:
a. Superintendence and administration of the DSPE
b. Punishment for corruption
c. Judicial powers for officers
d. Creation of Special Courts
5. Section 1(1) gives the short title of the Act as:
a. The Central Police Act, 1946
b. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
c. Union Territory Police Act, 1946
d. Special Investigation Act, 1946
6. The preamble states the necessity of the Act is to:
a. Control State Police
b. Constitute a special police force in Delhi
c. Try offences in Union territories
d. Establish Special Courts
7. According to Section 1, the Act extends the powers and jurisdiction of DSPE members to:
a. Delhi only
b. Certain Union territories
c. Other areas for investigation
d. National Capital Territory only
8. The Act ensures DSPE members have powers in regard to:
a. Judicial proceedings
b. Legislative authority
c. Investigation of certain offences
d. Tax collection
9. Section 1 lays down that DSPE is for investigation in:
a. States only
b. Union territories
c. Entire country without restriction
d. Designated metropolitan areas
10. The preamble of Section 1 emphasizes:
a. Creation of Special Courts
b. Necessity of a special police force
c. Judicial supervision
d. Legislative delegation
11. Section 1 indicates that the Act provides for:
a. Trial of offences
b. Extension of powers and jurisdiction of DSPE members
c. Punishment of corrupt officials
d. Grant of immunity
12. The DSPE Act, 1946 was enacted to enable:
a. State Governments to control Delhi Police
b. Central Government to investigate certain offences in Union territories
c. Judicial authorities to try cases in Delhi
d. Creation of Armed Forces in Union territories
13. The DSPE Act, 1946 is enacted to:
a. Limit State Police powers
b. Create a special police force and regulate its powers and jurisdiction
c. Punish officials in Union territories
d. Transfer investigation powers to judiciary
14. Section 1A of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 relates to:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of investigation
c. Interpretation of words and expressions
d. Superintendence of CBI
15. Section 1A applies to words and expressions which are:
a. Defined in the DSPE Act only
b. Not defined anywhere
c. Used in this Act but not defined herein
d. Defined in IPC
16. If a word is not defined in the DSPE Act but is defined in another Act, Section 1A directs reference to:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. General Clauses Act, 1897
17. The number of the Central Vigilance Commission Act mentioned in Section 1A is:
a. Act 1 of 2003
b. Act 15 of 2003
c. Act 45 of 2003
d. Act 52 of 2003
18. The phrase “shall have the meanings” indicates:
a. Discretionary application
b. Mandatory application
c. Optional interpretation
d. Advisory nature
19. Section 1A is an example of:
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural provision
c. Interpretation clause
d. Saving clause
20. The purpose of Section 1A is to:
a. Create new definitions
b. Avoid conflict of laws
c. Ensure uniformity of meaning
d. Repeal earlier provisions
21. If a term is defined both in the DSPE Act and the CVC Act:
a. Definition in CVC Act will apply
b. Definition in DSPE Act will prevail
c. Both definitions apply simultaneously
d. Court will choose suitable meaning
22. Section 1A applies only when the term is:
a. Undefined in both Acts
b. Defined in DSPE Act
c. Undefined in DSPE Act but defined in CVC Act
d. Defined in IPC
23. Section 1A strengthens coordination between:
a. Judiciary and Legislature
b. DSPE Act and IPC
c. DSPE Act and CVC Act
d. DSPE Act and CrPC
24. Section 1A was introduced mainly due to:
a. Establishment of CBI
b. Enactment of CVC Act, 2003
c. Amendment of CrPC
d. Repeal of PC Act, 1947
25. Section 1A prevents which legal problem?
a. Retrospective operation
b. Ambiguity in interpretation
c. Excessive delegation
d. Double jeopardy
26. Section 1A does NOT deal with:
a. Meaning of expressions
b. Interpretation mechanism
c. Investigative powers
d. Reference to another Act
27. Section 1A is applicable to:
a. Only offences
b. Only procedures
c. Words and expressions
d. Punishments
28. The phrase “used herein” refers to:
a. Used in courts
b. Used in the Constitution
c. Used in this Act
d. Used in rules
29. Section 1A adopts meanings “respectively assigned” which implies:
a. Same meaning for all words
b. Random meaning
c. Corresponding meanings
d. Judicially decided meanings
30. Section 1A is similar in nature to:
a. Charging section
b. Interpretation clause in statutes
c. Penal provision
d. Transitional provision
31. Section 1A came into importance mainly after:
a. Establishment of DSPE
b. Creation of CBI
c. Statutory recognition of CVC
d. Enactment of PC Act, 1988
32. Section 2 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 primarily deals with:
a. Superintendence of DSPE
b. Consent of State Government
c. Constitution and powers of special police establishment
d. Appointment of officers
33. Section 2(1) begins with which type of clause?
a. Proviso clause
b. Saving clause
c. Non-obstante clause
d. Explanatory clause
34. The non-obstante clause in Section 2 overrides:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Police Act, 1861
d. Evidence Act, 1872
35. The authority empowered to constitute the Delhi Special Police Establishment is:
a. Parliament
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
36. The special police force constituted under Section 2 is known as:
a. Central Bureau of Investigation
b. Central Vigilance Police
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment
d. National Investigation Agency
37. The main object of constituting DSPE is:
a. Prosecution of corruption cases
b. Trial of offences
c. Investigation of offences
d. Prevention of offences
38. DSPE is empowered to investigate only those offences which are:
a. Cognizable in nature
b. Punishable under IPC
c. Notified under Section 3
d. Triable by Special Judge
39. The territorial jurisdiction of DSPE under Section 2(1) extends to:
a. Whole of India
b. States only
c. Any Union territory
d. Delhi only
40. Section 2(2) makes the powers of DSPE members subject to:
a. Orders of the State Government
b. Orders of the Central Government
c. Orders of the Magistrate
d. Orders of the High Court
41. Members of DSPE shall have powers throughout:
a. Concerned police district
b. Notified metropolitan area
c. Any Union territory
d. National Capital Region
42. DSPE members have powers in relation to:
a. Investigation only
b. Arrest only
c. Investigation and arrest
d. Trial and sentencing
43. DSPE members enjoy powers equivalent to:
a. Central Government officers
b. Judicial officers
c. Police officers of that Union territory
d. Armed forces personnel
44. Section 2(2) confers which of the following on DSPE members?
a. Powers only
b. Powers and privileges only
c. Powers, duties, privileges and liabilities
d. Administrative authority only
45. The liabilities of DSPE members are:
a. Lesser than local police
b. Higher than local police
c. Same as police officers of the Union territory
d. Completely excluded
46. Section 2(3) applies to DSPE officers of:
a. Any rank
b. Below the rank of Sub-Inspector
c. Of or above the rank of Sub-Inspector
d. Inspector only
47. A DSPE officer under Section 2(3) may exercise powers of:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. Officer in charge of a police station
d. Chief Judicial Magistrate
48. Such powers may be exercised in:
a. Delhi only
b. States with consent
c. Any Union territory
d. Notified police stations only
49. While exercising police station powers, the DSPE officer shall be:
a. Acting under supervision of local SHO
b. Deemed to be officer in charge of police station
c. Considered investigating officer only
d. Acting as magistrate
50. The deeming provision under Section 2(3) creates:
a. Administrative presumption
b. Rebuttable presumption
c. Legal fiction
d. Judicial discretion
51. The phrase “for the time being” in Section 2(3) indicates:
a. Permanent authority
b. Temporary functional authority
c. Emergency power
d. Retrospective effect
52. The exercise of powers under Section 2(3) is:
a. Absolute
b. Subject to Central Government orders
c. Subject to State Government consent
d. Subject to court approval
53. Section 2 does NOT deal with:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of DSPE
c. Consent of State Government
d. Territorial jurisdiction
54. Section 2 establishes DSPE as:
a. Prosecuting agency
b. Judicial authority
c. Central investigating agency
d. Administrative tribunal
55. The word “may” used in Section 2(1) denotes:
a. Mandatory duty
b. Prohibition
c. Discretionary power
d. Compulsion
56. Section 2 is best described as:
a. Penal provision
b. Enabling provision
c. Saving provision
d. Declaratory provision
57. DSPE officers exercising powers of police station officer are deemed to function:
a. Outside limits of station
b. Within limits of their station
c. Across the State
d. Without jurisdiction
58. Section 2(2) ensures DSPE officers are:
a. Immune from prosecution
b. Above local police law
c. Subject to same legal standards as police
d. Independent of all control
59. The jurisdiction conferred under Section 2 is:
a. Judicial
b. Legislative
c. Investigative
d. Quasi-judicial
60. Section 2 read with Section 3 mainly governs:
a. Trial of offences
b. Notification and investigation of offences
c. Punishment for offences
d. Sanction for prosecution
61. Without Section 2, DSPE would:
a. Function under Police Act
b. Have no statutory authority
c. Be subordinate to State Police
d. Lose investigative power
62. Section 3 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 deals with:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of investigation
c. Offences to be investigated by DSPE
d. Consent of State Government
63. Under Section 3, who has the power to specify offences for investigation by DSPE?
a. State Government
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. Parliament
64. The power under Section 3 is exercised by:
a. Ordinance
b. Rule
c. Notification
d. Circular
65. The notification under Section 3 must be published in:
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Police Manual
d. Parliamentary record
66. Section 3 empowers the Central Government to specify:
a. Only individual offences
b. Only classes of offences
c. Both offences and classes of offences
d. Only scheduled offences
67. The offences to be investigated by DSPE are:
a. Automatically applicable
b. Determined by courts
c. Specified by Central Government
d. Defined in the Act itself
68. Section 3 is an example of:
a. Penal provision
b. Delegated legislation
c. Judicial power
d. Constitutional mandate
69. Without a notification under Section 3, DSPE:
a. Can investigate all offences
b. Can investigate IPC offences
c. Has no authority to investigate
d. Can investigate with court permission
70. The expression “may” in Section 3 indicates:
a. Mandatory duty
b. Absolute obligation
c. Discretionary power
d. Prohibitory command
71. Section 3 confers power on the Central Government to:
a. Try offences
b. Prosecute offenders
c. Specify investigative jurisdiction
d. Grant sanction
72. Section 3 acts as a link between:
a. Section 1 and Section 2
b. Section 2 and investigation powers
c. DSPE and judicial courts
d. State police and DSPE
73. The offences notified under Section 3 are investigated by:
a. State Police
b. Local Police Station
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment
d. Magistrate
74. Section 3 does NOT empower the Central Government to:
a. Specify offences
b. Specify classes of offences
c. Investigate offences itself
d. Issue notification
75. The power under Section 3 is exercised:
a. Judicially
b. Legislatively
c. Administratively
d. Constitutionally
76. Section 3 is necessary because:
a. DSPE is a constitutional body
b. Investigation powers must be notified
c. Police Act applies
d. Courts require permission
77. The scope of Section 3 can be expanded or restricted by:
a. Parliament
b. Judiciary
c. Central Government notification
d. State Government resolution
78. Section 3 provides the basis for:
a. Prosecution of offenders
b. Trial by Special Judge
c. Identification of offences for investigation
d. Arrest without warrant
79. The notification under Section 3 is:
a. Temporary unless renewed
b. Subject to court approval
c. Mandatory for DSPE investigation
d. Issued by State Government
80. Section 3 does NOT mention:
a. Central Government
b. Official Gazette
c. State consent
d. Classes of offences
81. Section 3 read with Section 2 establishes:
a. Judicial control over police
b. Territorial jurisdiction only
c. Subject-matter jurisdiction of DSPE
d. Administrative hierarchy
82. The offences specified under Section 3 are:
a. Automatically cognizable
b. Always corruption offences
c. Determined by notification
d. Defined in CrPC
83. Section 3 enables DSPE to:
a. Investigate without limits
b. Investigate notified offences only
c. Prosecute accused
d. Frame charges
84. The Central Government’s power under Section 3 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Judicial
c. Discretionary
d. Ministerial
85. Section 3 is a:
a. Charging section
b. Jurisdiction-conferring provision
c. Punishment section
d. Saving clause
86. The phrase “classes of offences” implies:
a. Individual FIRs
b. Specific accused
c. Category or group of offences
d. Only IPC offences
87. Section 3 does not itself:
a. Create offences
b. Specify offences
c. Confer investigative jurisdiction
d. Empower notification
88. Section 3 ensures that DSPE investigation is:
a. Arbitrary
b. Judicially controlled
c. Legally authorized
d. State-controlled
89. The notification under Section 3 must be:
a. Confidential
b. Published
c. Approved by Parliament
d. Issued by judiciary
90. Section 3 helps maintain:
a. Separation of powers
b. Federal balance
c. Rule of law in investigation
d. Judicial supremacy
91. Section 3 of DSPE Act is best described as:
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural safeguard
c. Enabling and regulatory provision
d. Saving clause
92. Section 4(1) vests superintendence of DSPE in respect of Prevention of Corruption Act offences in:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. The Commission
d. Director of DSPE
93. The Commission mentioned in Section 4(1) refers to:
a. State Vigilance Commission
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Judicial Commission
d. Law Commission
94. Section 4(2) states that in matters other than corruption offences, superintendence of DSPE vests in:
a. The Commission
b. The Director
c. Central Government
d. State Government
95. Section 4(3) vests administration of DSPE in:
a. The Commission
b. Central Government
c. An officer appointed by Central Government
d. State Government
96. The officer appointed under Section 4(3) is referred to as:
a. Superintendent
b. Director
c. Inspector-General
d. Commissioner
97. The Director exercises powers similar to:
a. Director-General of Police
b. Inspector-General of Police
c. Superintendent of Police
d. Magistrate
98. The powers of the Director are exercisable as specified by:
a. The Commission
b. The Central Government
c. The State Government
d. Judicial authorities
99. Section 4 ensures that in corruption-related investigations, superintendence lies with:
a. Central Government
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Vigilance Commission
d. State Police
100. For all non-corruption matters, the administrative authority of DSPE is:
a. Central Government
b. The Director
c. The Commission
d. State Government
101. Section 4(3) confers on the Director the power to:
a. Investigate offences personally
b. Exercise powers of an Inspector-General of Police in respect of DSPE
c. Prosecute offences
d. Appoint State Police officers
102. The term “superintendence” in Section 4 primarily relates to:
a. Judicial supervision
b. Oversight of investigations
c. Legislative control
d. Training of officers
103. The superintendence over corruption cases is vested in the Commission to:
a. Ensure administrative efficiency
b. Ensure independent investigation
c. Reduce workload of Central Government
d. Delegate powers to State Government
104. Section 4(2) states “save as otherwise provided in sub-section (1)” implying:
a. All powers are with Central Government
b. Corruption cases are excepted
c. Director has no powers
d. Commission controls all matters
105. Administration of DSPE includes:
a. Financial management, personnel, and operations
b. Judicial powers
c. Legislative enactments
d. State Police supervision
106. The Director exercises powers in respect of DSPE as specified by:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. High Court
107. Section 4 ensures a dual control system:
a. Central Government for all offences
b. Commission for corruption offences and Central Government for others
c. Director only for all offences
d. State Government for non-corruption offences
108. The powers exercisable by the Director are analogous to those of:
a. Superintendent of Police in a State
b. Inspector-General of Police of a State
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. Central Vigilance Officer
109. Section 4(1) applies specifically to offences under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Police Act, 1861
d. Criminal Procedure Code
110. Section 4(2) is a residuary provision meaning:
a. Applies only to corruption cases
b. Applies to all other matters not covered under Section 4(1)
c. Applies to State Police matters
d. Applies to judicial proceedings
111. The Director is appointed by:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. High Court
112. The superintendence by the Commission ensures:
a. Administrative control only
b. Effective investigation of corruption offences
c. Judicial powers of officers
d. Legislative control over DSPE
113. Section 4(3) confers on the Director powers “as the Central Government may specify”, which implies:
a. Director has unlimited powers
b. Powers are delegated and defined by Central Government
c. Director can supersede the Commission
d. Director exercises judicial powers
114. Section 4 is crucial to ensure:
a. Political control of DSPE
b. Proper superintendence and administration of DSPE
c. State Government oversight
d. Judicial supervision
115. In Section 4(1), the phrase “in so far as it relates to investigation of offences” indicates:
a. Limited role of Commission
b. Complete control of Central Government
c. Director’s administrative role
d. Judicial powers
116. The dual control under Section 4 ensures:
a. Independent investigation and central administrative control
b. Central Government control only
c. Commission control only
d. State Government control
117. Section 4(3) confers on the Director powers similar to Inspector-General of Police “in respect of that police establishment”, meaning:
a. Powers only in Delhi
b. Powers in relation to DSPE
c. Powers across State Police
d. Powers to try offences
118. Section 4 read with Section 2 establishes:
a. Subject-matter and administrative control of DSPE
b. Only investigative powers
c. Judicial powers
d. Legislative authority
119. The Director exercises powers delegated by Central Government but does not have:
a. Superintendence over corruption cases
b. Powers to administer DSPE
c. Powers to manage personnel
d. Powers similar to Inspector-General of Police
120. Section 4 distinguishes between:
a. Judicial and executive powers
b. Administrative and superintendence powers
c. State and Central Police powers
d. Legislative and investigative powers
121. Section 4 provides a mechanism for:
a. Complete autonomy of DSPE
b. Coordinated administration and independent investigation
c. Central Government supervision only
d. State Government oversight
122. Section 4A of the DSPE Act deals with:
a. Powers of the Director
b. Committee for appointment of Director
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Offences to be investigated
123. The Director of DSPE is appointed by:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. Prime Minister
c. Central Government
d. President of India
124. Appointment of the Director is based on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:
a. Only Central Government officers
b. Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and Chief Justice of India/Judge
c. Director-General of Police and Home Minister
d. State Police Authorities
125. Who is the Chairperson of the Committee for appointment of Director?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Leader of Opposition
d. Home Minister
126. If there is no recognised Leader of Opposition in the House of the People, the Committee includes:
a. Leader of the single largest Opposition party
b. Deputy Prime Minister
c. Speaker of the House
d. Home Minister
127. The judicial member of the Committee is:
a. Any High Court judge
b. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by him
c. Chief Justice of State
d. Any retired Supreme Court judge
128. Section 4A(2) provides that an appointment is valid even if:
a. Committee members disagree
b. There is a vacancy or absence of a member in the Committee
c. Director is not from IPS
d. Central Government bypasses Committee
129. The Committee recommends officers for appointment as Director on the basis of:
a. Political affiliation
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience in anti-corruption investigation
c. Academic qualifications only
d. Ministerial approval
130. The recommended officers must belong to:
a. State Police Service
b. Indian Police Service (IPS)
c. Central Bureau of Investigation
d. Defence Services
131. The IPS is constituted under:
a. Constitution of India
b. All-India Services Act, 1951
c. Police Act, 1861
d. CrPC
132. Section 4A ensures that the Director’s appointment is:
a. Politically influenced
b. Transparent and merit-based
c. Arbitrary
d. Based on Central Government discretion only
133. The Committee includes the Leader of Opposition as:
a. Chairperson
b. Member
c. Secretary
d. Observer
134. Section 4A(1) implies that the Committee is:
a. Ad hoc
b. Permanent statutory body
c. Independent and high-level
d. State-controlled
135. The Director is appointed primarily for:
a. Administrative supervision of DSPE
b. Investigation of anti-corruption cases
c. Trial of offences
d. Legislative supervision
136. Section 4A ensures that the Director has experience in:
a. Traffic policing
b. Anti-corruption investigations
c. Judicial administration
d. Civil administration
137. Section 4A(3)(a) emphasizes which qualities for recommendation?
a. Political loyalty and seniority
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience
c. Educational qualifications
d. Service length only
138. Section 4A(3)(b) requires officers to be:
a. Part of Central Police Force
b. IPS officers
c. State Police officers
d. Judicial officers
139. Section 4A(2) prevents invalidation of appointment due to:
a. Central Government discretion
b. Committee vacancies or absences
c. Political interference
d. Court order
140. Section 4A reflects a balance between:
a. Executive and judiciary
b. Legislature and executive
c. State and Central Governments
d. Judiciary and State Police
141. The Committee provides a panel of officers, which is:
a. Mandatory for appointment consideration
b. Optional suggestion
c. Only for corruption cases
d. Subject to Parliament approval
142. Section 4A ensures merit-based selection by considering:
a. Only seniority
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience
c. Political recommendation
d. Central Government discretion only
143. Section 4A(1) ensures the Prime Minister acts as:
a. Member
b. Chairperson
c. Observer
d. Secretary
144. In absence of a Leader of Opposition, the Committee includes:
a. Speaker of the House
b. Leader of single largest Opposition party
c. Home Minister
d. Director-General of Police
145. Section 4A(3) emphasizes that officers must have:
a. Political experience
b. Anti-corruption investigation experience
c. Judicial experience
d. Administrative experience only
146. Section 4A is important to ensure:
a. Arbitrary appointments
b. Appointment of Director based on merit and integrity
c. Political control over DSPE
d. Appointment by State Government
147. The judicial member of the Committee is nominated by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Leader of Opposition
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Central Government
148. Section 4A balances powers between:
a. Central Government and State Government
b. Central Government, judiciary, and opposition party
c. State Police and DSPE
d. Courts and executive
149. Section 4A ensures that the Director is recommended from:
a. State Police officers
b. Indian Police Service officers
c. Judicial officers
d. Administrative officers
150. Section 4A(2) protects the appointment from being invalidated due to:
a. Political interference
b. Vacancies or absences in the Committee
c. Central Government discretion
d. State Government objection
151. Section 4A is crucial because it ensures that:
a. Director can act independently with merit and integrity
b. Director is politically appointed
c. Director acts only in Delhi
d. Director has judicial powers
152. Section 4B deals with:
a. Superintendence of DSPE
b. Terms and conditions of service of the Director
c. Appointment of officers
d. Offences to be investigated
153. The minimum term for which the Director holds office is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
154. The term of the Director can be extended in public interest on the recommendation of:
a. Central Government only
b. Committee under Section 4A
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court
155. The extension of the Director’s term can be granted for a period of:
a. Up to six months
b. Up to one year at a time
c. Up to two years at a time
d. No extension allowed
156. No extension shall be granted after a total period of:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years
157. The five-year limit includes:
a. Only initial appointment
b. Initial appointment and all extensions
c. Only extensions
d. Probation period only
158. Section 4B(2) states that the Director shall not be transferred except with:
a. Consent of Central Government
b. Previous consent of the Committee under Section 4A
c. Consent of the Prime Minister only
d. Judicial approval