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Public Gambling Act, 1867 Set -2
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1. Section 8 illustrates which principle of criminal law enforcement?
a. Restorative justice only
b. Remedial and preventive measures against gaming
c. Mandatory imprisonment
d. Evidence preservation
2. Section 9 provides that in order to convict a person for keeping a common gaming-house:
a. It is necessary to prove that players were playing for money
b. It is not necessary to prove that players were playing for any money, wager, or stake
c. Conviction is only possible if money is involved
d. Proof of stake is required if police have evidence
3. The scope of Section 9 includes:
a. Only the owners of the gaming-house
b. Anyone keeping or managing a common gaming-house
c. Only people playing in the gaming-house
d. Only habitual gamblers
4. According to Section 9, to convict a person for being concerned in the management of a common gaming-house:
a. Proof of gambling for money is mandatory
b. Proof of gambling for stake is unnecessary
c. Only the presence of gaming instruments suffices
d. Both B and C
5. Section 9 illustrates which principle of criminal law?
a. Strict liability regarding keeping/managing gaming-houses
b. Mens rea is mandatory for every offence
c. Civil liability for property damage
d. Evidence of monetary gain is always required
6. Which of the following statements is true under Section 9?
a. A person cannot be convicted unless money is wagered
b. Monetary stake is irrelevant to conviction for keeping or managing a gaming-house
c. Only habitual offenders can be convicted
d. Proof of ownership of instruments is irrelevant
7. Section 9 removes the need to prove:
a. Ownership of the gaming instruments
b. Gambling for money, wager, or stake
c. Identity of the players
d. Presence of a police officer
8. A person managing a gaming-house where people play without money or stakes:
a. Cannot be convicted
b. Can still be convicted under this section
c. Is liable only if caught in the act of cheating
d. Can only be fined, not imprisoned
9. The legal effect of Section 9 is to:
a. Reduce the evidentiary burden on prosecution for managing gaming-houses
b. Require detailed proof of stakes
c. Make conviction dependent on witnesses
d. Limit penalties to fines only
10. Section 9 applies to:
a. Players only
b. Owners and managers of common gaming-houses
c. Police officers
d. None of the above
11. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of Section 9?
a. No one can be convicted for gaming without money involved
b. A person can be convicted for keeping or managing a gaming-house even if games are for amusement only
c. Conviction is possible only if gambling is observed by Magistrate
d. Proof of money wagered is essential for conviction
12. Section 9 effectively establishes that:
a. Playing for stakes is the core element of the offence
b. Conviction can occur without proof of stakes or wagers
c. Only organized gambling with money is punishable
d. Instruments of gaming must be destroyed
13. The primary focus of Section 9 is:
a. Player behavior
b. Management and operation of the gaming-house
c. Collection of fines
d. Confiscation of money
14. Section 9 strengthens enforcement by:
a. Making monetary gambling necessary for conviction
b. Eliminating the need to prove the element of stakes
c. Requiring proof of cheating
d. Limiting police powers
15. If a person is caught managing a gaming-house where games are played for fun only:
a. He cannot be convicted
b. He can be convicted under Sections 6–9
c. He is liable only for civil penalties
d. Proof of wagers is necessary
16. Under Section 10, a Magistrate may require a person found in a house entered under the Act to:
a. Leave the premises immediately
b. Be examined on oath or solemn affirmation and give evidence
c. Pay a fine on the spot
d. Confiscate property
17. Section 10 applies to persons:
a. Found in any public place
b. Found in any house, walled enclosure, room, or place entered under the Act
c. Only who own a gaming-house
d. Only if money is being gambled
18. The subject of evidence under Section 10 may include:
a. Unlawful gaming in the premises
b. Acts obstructing or delaying entry of the Magistrate or officer
c. Both A and B
d. Only acts of theft
19. A person required to give evidence under Section 10:
a. May refuse to answer questions on the ground of self-incrimination
b. Cannot refuse on the ground of self-incrimination
c. Is exempt if a lawyer is not present
d. Can choose to testify only in writing
20. Section 10 allows examination of witnesses:
a. Only once before the same Magistrate
b. At any subsequent time by the same or any other Magistrate or Court in proceedings relating to unlawful gaming
c. Only during trial
d. Only if monetary stakes are involved
21. Refusal to make oath or answer questions under Section 10 leads to:
a. Automatic imprisonment for 6 months
b. Being dealt with under IPC Sections 178 or 179
c. Fine of ₹500 only
d. Dismissal of charges
22. Which of the following acts is specifically covered under Section 10 for questioning?
a. Unlawful gaming
b. Acts obstructing entry of Magistrate or authorized officer
c. Both A and B
d. Civil disputes unrelated to gaming
23. Under Section 10, “any subsequent time” means:
a. Only during the initial investigation
b. Later before the same or any other Magistrate or Court related to unlawful gaming
c. After one year only
d. Only during civil proceedings
24. Sections 178 and 179 of the IPC (referred to in Section 10) relate to:
a. Criminal intimidation
b. Refusing to answer questions or obstructing public servant
c. Theft and misappropriation
d. Gambling offences
25. Which of the following statements is true under Section 10?
a. Self-incrimination is a valid excuse for refusing to testify
b. Persons may be required to give evidence even if it incriminates themselves
c. Evidence can only relate to financial transactions
d. Only the owner of the premises can be questioned
26. Section 10 gives the Magistrate authority to:
a. Examine persons under oath about any matter unrelated to gaming
b. Examine persons about unlawful gaming and obstruction acts
c. Convict without trial
d. Impose fines directly
27. If a person refuses to take oath or answer questions under Section 10:
a. They are exempt from further proceedings
b. They can be treated as committing an offence under IPC Sections 178 or 179
c. They can only be fined
d. They can be ignored by the court
28. Section 10 exemplifies which procedural principle?
a. Right to silence in all cases
b. Duty to give evidence even if self-incriminatory
c. Monetary compensation for witnesses
d. Limitation on police powers
29. Section 10 applies only to persons found gambling for money.
a. True
b. False
30. The ultimate purpose of Section 10 is:
a. To collect fines
b. To ensure evidence is available to prosecute unlawful gaming and obstruction
c. To provide immunity to offenders
d. To regulate civil property disputes
31. Section 11 provides indemnity to a person who:
a. Is caught playing in a gaming-house
b. Is concerned in gaming contrary to this Act and is examined as a witness in a trial for a breach of this Act
c. Owns a gaming-house only
d. Refuses to testify under Section 10
32. The condition for receiving indemnity under Section 11 is:
a. Payment of fine
b. Making true and faithful discovery to the best of one’s knowledge
c. Refusal to answer any question
d. Ownership of a gaming-house
33. Who issues the certificate of indemnity under Section 11?
a. Police officer
b. State Government
c. Magistrate
d. Court of Appeal
34. The certificate issued under Section 11:
a. Automatically convicts the witness
b. Frees the witness from all prosecutions under the Act for prior gaming acts
c. Only exempts the witness from fines
d. Only applies to monetary stakes
35. Section 11 applies to:
a. Persons who have never been involved in gaming
b. Persons who are concerned in gaming and provide true evidence for prosecution of others
c. Only the owners of the gaming-house
d. Police officers conducting raids
36. The indemnity under Section 11 is valid:
a. For future offences
b. For all acts done under the Act before examination as witness
c. Only for offences committed outside India
d. Only if money was wagered
37. Which of the following is a key purpose of Section 11?
a. To punish witnesses
b. To incentivize disclosure of facts by offenders in prosecutions of others
c. To reduce fines for first-time offenders
d. To limit police powers
38. A person can be indemnified under Section 11 even if:
a. They refuse to testify
b. They make a partial false statement
c. They give full and true disclosure to the best of their knowledge
d. They were not involved in any gaming
39. The indemnity provided under Section 11 is:
a. Automatic for anyone in a gaming-house
b. Conditional upon truthful and complete testimony
c. Optional for Magistrate only
d. Only for monetary offences
40. Section 11 demonstrates which principle of criminal law?
a. Witness coercion
b. Rewarding cooperation to secure prosecution of others
c. Mandatory imprisonment
d. Punitive damages
41. The scope of Section 11 does not include:
a. Immunity from prosecutions under the Act for prior gaming acts
b. Requirement to make true disclosure
c. Immunity for future gaming offences
d. Issuance of certificate by Magistrate
42. Section 11 interacts with Section 10 in that:
a. Section 10 compels testimony; Section 11 offers immunity for cooperation
b. Section 10 imposes fines; Section 11 allows imprisonment
c. Section 10 is optional; Section 11 is mandatory
d. Sections 10 and 11 are unrelated
43. Which of the following is required for Section 11 indemnity?
a. The witness must be the owner of the gaming-house
b. Witness must provide full disclosure to the Magistrate
c. Only witnesses under Section 7 qualify
d. Only monetary gaming acts are covered
44. Section 11 frees a person from prosecution for:
a. Acts after being examined
b. Acts done before being examined as a witness, in respect of such gaming
c. All acts in their lifetime
d. Only civil liabilities
45. The certificate under Section 11 is:
a. Discretionary and written by the police
b. Issued by the Magistrate to formally recognize immunity
c. Optional and verbal only
d. Issued by the State Government
46. Section 12 provides that the Act:
a. Applies to all types of games
b. Does not apply to games of mere skill
c. Applies only to card games
d. Applies to all public activities
47. The exception in Section 12 is based on:
a. Whether the game is played for money
b. Whether the game is of mere skill
c. Whether the player is under 18
d. Whether police are present
48. Which of the following would likely be excluded from the Act under Section 12?
a. Roulette
b. Rummy (skill-based)
c. Betting on dice
d. Coin toss for stakes
49. Section 12 implies that:
a. All games played for stakes are offences
b. Only games of chance are covered under the Act
c. Games of skill are automatically gambling offences
d. The Act applies to skill-based games if stakes are involved
50. A “game of mere skill” under Section 12 means:
a. The outcome depends entirely on chance
b. The outcome depends predominantly on the player’s knowledge, ability, or skill
c. Any game played for money
d. Only sports activities
51. Section 12 protects players of skill-based games from:
a. Penalty under Sections 6–11
b. Civil suits
c. Police questioning under Section 10 only
d. Paying taxes
52. Which of the following is true under Section 12?
a. Chess played for money may still be outside the Act if it is purely skill
b. Dice played for stakes is a game of skill
c. All card games are considered games of chance
d. No exceptions exist for any games
53. Section 12 is a:
a. Penal provision
b. Evidentiary rule
c. Exception/limitation to the Act
d. Procedure for seizure
54. Section 12 is significant in exam contexts because it:
a. Establishes punishments
b. Distinguishes skill vs chance games
c. Provides discretion to police
d. Grants immunity to witnesses
55. The legal effect of Section 12 is that:
a. Skill-based games are immune from prosecution under the Arms/Gaming Act
b. Skill-based games must be destroyed
c. Police can impose fines on skill-based games
d. Only Magistrates can play skill games
56. Under Section 13, a police officer may apprehend without a warrant:
a. Any person playing a game of mere skill in private
b. Any person playing for money or valuable thing with cards, dice, or counters in public, if the game is not of mere skill
c. Only the owner of a gaming-house
d. Any person in private property
57. Section 13 also covers:
a. Only players
b. Persons setting birds or animals to fight in public
c. Only Magistrates
d. Public officials
58. Which of the following are included under Section 13?
a. Persons aiding and abetting public fighting of birds or animals
b. People playing skill-based games for stakes
c. Private chess players
d. None of the above
59. Under Section 13, the apprehended person must be:
a. Fined on the spot by the police officer
b. Brought without delay before a Magistrate
c. Released immediately if claiming skill-based game
d. Sent to jail without trial
60. The maximum fine under Section 13 is:
a. ₹500
b. ₹50
c. ₹100
d. ₹1,000
61. The maximum imprisonment under Section 13 is:
a. 15 days
b. One calendar month (simple or rigorous)
c. Six months
d. Two months
62. Section 13 applies to gaming in:
a. Private homes
b. Public streets, places, or thoroughfares
c. Online platforms
d. All indoor gaming
63. Which of the following is not covered under Section 13?
a. Playing rummy (skill-based) in a public place for money
b. Setting cocks to fight in a street
c. Participating in a public dice game for money
d. Aiding and abetting animal fights
64. Section 13 gives police the power to:
a. Arrest without a warrant in specified circumstances
b. Impose fines directly
c. Destroy gaming instruments immediately
d. Only issue warnings
65. Section 13 penalizes:
a. Only the owner of a private gaming-house
b. Any participant, person setting animals/birds to fight, and abettors in public
c. Only spectators
d. Only animals
66. Which type of imprisonment is allowed under Section 13?
a. Only rigorous
b. Only simple
c. Either simple or rigorous
d. Mandatory life imprisonment
67. Section 13 explicitly excludes:
a. Games of mere skill played for money in public places
b. Dice games for money
c. Animal fights in public streets
d. Gambling with counters in public
68. The primary purpose of Section 13 is:
a. To regulate private gaming
b. To prevent gambling and animal fights in public places
c. To provide immunity to witnesses
d. To authorize Magistrates to play games
69. Section 13 makes it clear that abettors of public animal fights:
a. Are not liable
b. Are liable to apprehension and punishment
c. Are only fined if they participate
d. Must be owners of the animals
70. Which of the following is true about Section 13?
a. Warrantless arrests are allowed for games of mere skill
b. Warrantless arrests are allowed for games not of mere skill in public places and for public animal fights
c. Magistrates must issue warrants for all arrests
d. Only fines can be imposed, no imprisonment
71. Under the destruction provision of Section 13, a police officer may:
a. Seize all instruments of gaming in private homes
b. Seize all instruments of gaming found in public places or on persons apprehended
c. Destroy instruments immediately without Magistrate’s order
d. Only issue warnings
72. After seizure, the power to order destruction of gaming instruments lies with:
a. The police officer
b. The State Government
c. The Magistrate on conviction
d. Any citizen
73. The destruction of gaming instruments in public streets occurs:
a. Before conviction
b. After conviction of the offender
c. Only if money is involved
d. Only in private gaming-houses
74. The purpose of destruction of instruments under Section 13 is:
a. To punish private players
b. To prevent further gambling in public
c. To collect evidence for personal use
d. To compensate the police
75. The destruction provision under Section 13 applies to:
a. Instruments found in public places and on apprehended persons
b. Instruments in private homes only
c. Only instruments used by police
d. Only skill-based games
76. Who has the final authority to destroy the seized instruments?
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate, upon conviction
c. State Government
d. Citizen
77. Which of the following is true about Section 13’s destruction clause?
a. Police can destroy instruments immediately upon seizure
b. Instruments are destroyed only after conviction by Magistrate
c. All gaming instruments are exempt from destruction
d. Magistrate can return instruments to players automatically
78. Section 13’s destruction clause ensures that:
a. Public gambling instruments are removed from circulation
b. Private gaming is encouraged
c. Police get to keep instruments
d. Conviction is not required
79. Destruction of instruments applies to which types of games?
a. Only games of skill
b. Games not of mere skill in public places
c. All card and dice games
d. Only indoor gaming
80. The sequence under Section 13 is:
a. Police destroy instruments → Magistrate convicts → fine imposed
b. Police seize instruments → Magistrate convicts → instruments destroyed
c. Magistrate convicts → Police seize instruments → fine imposed
d. Police seize instruments → immediate destruction → conviction
81. Offences under the Arms/Gaming Act are triable by:
a. Any Magistrate having jurisdiction in the place where the offence is committed
b. Only the Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Any police officer
d. Only the District Court
82. The limits of fine and imprisonment imposed by the Magistrate under Section 14 are governed by:
a. The Arms Act only
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
c. State Government discretion
d. Police discretion
83. Section 14 ensures that:
a. Only special courts can try offences under the Act
b. Regular Magistrates can try offences, subject to CrPC limits
c. Police can impose fines directly
d. Only appeals courts can try offences
84. Which of the following statements is true under Section 14?
a. Magistrates have unlimited power to fine or imprison under the Act
b. Magistrates must respect the limits prescribed by CrPC
c. Only High Courts can try offences
d. Offences must be tried in the state capital only
85. Section 14 is concerned primarily with:
a. Substance of offences
b. Jurisdiction and trial authority
c. Evidence rules
d. Confiscation of property
86. If an offence is committed in a town, the offence can be tried by:
a. Magistrate from another state
b. Any Magistrate having jurisdiction in that town
c. Only Supreme Court
d. Only private arbitrators
87. Section 14 restricts Magistrates in terms of:
a. Powers to summon witnesses
b. Amount of fine or term of imprisonment
c. Jurisdiction over police investigations
d. Issuing licenses
88. Which of the following is not a correct implication of Section 14?
a. Magistrates can try offences under the Act
b. Magistrates’ sentencing powers are unlimited
c. Trials are to be conducted where the offence is committed
d. CrPC limits apply to penalties
89. Section 14 interacts with CrPC to:
a. Limit Magistrate’s powers regarding fines and imprisonment
b. Provide immunity to witnesses
c. Allow seizure of gaming instruments
d. Define games of skill
90. The essence of Section 14 is:
a. To define the nature of offences
b. To specify trial authority and jurisdiction
c. To regulate evidence
d. To exempt games of skill
91. Who can compound offences under Section 14-A of the UP Amendment?
a. Any Magistrate
b. Officer specially empowered by the State Government by notification
c. Police constable
d. Any citizen
92. Section 14-A allows compounding:
a. Only before prosecution
b. Only after prosecution
c. Either before or after prosecution
d. Only after conviction
93. The maximum composition fee under Section 14-A:
a. ₹500
b. Cannot exceed maximum fine fixed for the offence
c. Determined by the offender
d. Cannot exceed ₹50
94. If an offence is compounded before prosecution:
a. Offender remains liable for trial
b. Offender is acquitted and released if in custody
c. Offender must appear in court
d. Only fine is imposed
95. Section 14-A cannot be applied to:
a. First-time minor offenders
b. Subsequent offences by someone already convicted
c. Compounding before prosecution
d. Minor gambling offences
96. The purpose of Section 14-A is:
a. To allow compounding and prevent minor offenders from prosecution
b. To grant immunity to repeat offenders
c. To punish offenders more severely
d. To restrict Magistrates from trying offences
97. Compounding under Section 14-A:
a. Amounts to conviction
b. Amounts to acquittal if done before prosecution
c. Only postpones trial
d. Increases punishment
98. Which of the following is true under Section 14-A?
a. The officer can compound subsequent offences of a previously convicted person
b. The officer has discretion to fix composition fee within statutory limits
c. Only Magistrates can compound offences
d. Compounding is mandatory for all minor offences
99. Section 14-A ensures that:
a. Minor offenders face trial regardless of circumstances
b. Minor offences may be compounded to avoid criminal proceedings
c. Only repeat offenders are rewarded
d. Police discretion is absolute
100. Section 14-A ensures that:
a. Minor offenders face trial regardless of circumstances
b. Minor offences may be compounded to avoid criminal proceedings
c. Only repeat offenders are rewarded
d. Police discretion is absolute
101. Section 14-A is an example of:
a. Central legislation
b. State-level amendment
c. CrPC procedure
d. National policy on gaming
102. The provision relating to abatement of certain trials in Uttar Pradesh overrides:
a. Only the Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Only special laws
c. Only State laws
d. Any other law for the time being in force
103. Which of the following offences under the Public Gambling Act, 1867 is excluded from abatement?
a. Offence under Section 4
b. Offence under Section 5
c. Offence under Section 3
d. Offence under Section 12
104. An offence relating to wagering under which provision of the Public Gambling Act does not abate?
a. Section 4
b. Section 9
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
105. Trial for which of the following offences shall abate under the UP Amendment?
a. Section 302 IPC
b. Section 160 IPC
c. Section 420 IPC
d. Section 34 IPC
106. Proceedings under Sections 107 and 109 CrPC shall abate if they were pending:
a. On or after 31 December 2015
b. Before 31 December 2015
c. After commencement of the Act
d. At any time
107. Which of the following proceedings are covered under the abatement provision?
a. Sessions trial
b. Writ proceedings
c. Preventive proceedings under CrPC
d. Appeals before High Court
108. An offence punishable with fine only pending before a Magistrate:
a. Must continue
b. Requires sanction
c. Shall abate
d. Converts into summary trial
109. Trial for which of the following Acts shall abate under this provision?
a. NDPS Act, 1985
b. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
c. Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Arms Act, 1959
110. Abatement under this provision results in:
a. Conviction
b. Acquittal on merits
c. Termination of proceedings without decision
d. Compounding of offence
111. Which statement is incorrect?
a. Section 3 Gambling Act offences do not abate
b. Section 13 Gambling Act wagering offences do not abate
c. All Gambling Act offences abate
d. Section 160 IPC offences abate
112. The abatement provision applies to proceedings pending:
a. Before Sessions Court
b. Before High Court
c. Before Magistrate
d. Before Police Officer
113. The legal effect of abatement is best described as:
a. Final adjudication
b. Judicial pardon
c. Legislative termination of proceedings
d. Probation of offender
114. Section 15 applies to:
a. Any offence under the Act
b. Subsequent offences under Section 3 or Section 4 by a person previously convicted under the same sections
c. First-time offenders
d. Minor gaming offences only
115. The punishment for a subsequent offence under Section 15 is:
a. The same as the first offence
b. Double the punishment of the first offence
c. Half the punishment of the first offence
d. Determined by police discretion
116. The maximum fine under Section 15 cannot exceed:
a. ₹100
b. ₹500
c. ₹600
d. ₹1,000
117. The maximum imprisonment under Section 15 cannot exceed:
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
118. Section 15 ensures that:
a. Repeat offenders face the same punishment as first-timers
b. Repeat offenders face enhanced punishment but within statutory limits
c. Repeat offenders are automatically acquitted
d. Repeat offenders pay only fines
119. Section 15 is intended to:
a. Encourage gaming
b. Deter repeat offenders
c. Allow compounding of offences
d. Protect skill-based games
120. Under Section 16, who may direct payment to an informer?
a. Police officer
b. Magistrate trying the case
c. State Government
d. Any citizen
121. Section 16 applies to:
a. All fines under the Act
b. Fines under Sections 3 and 4 only, or proceeds of seized/forfeited articles under the Act
c. Only fines under Section 15
d. Only fines in private gaming houses
122. The portion of fine or proceeds paid to the informer under Section 16 is:
a. Fixed by law at 50%
b. Determined at the discretion of the Magistrate
c. Always 100%
d. Only symbolic, never monetary
123. Which of the following is true under Section 16?
a. The police can directly pay informers from fines
b. The Magistrate may direct any portion of fine or proceeds to be paid to an informer
c. Only the full fine can be paid to the informer
d. Informers cannot receive proceeds of forfeited articles
124. Section 16 is limited to:
a. All fines and penalties under the Arms Act
b. Sections 3 and 4 fines and proceeds of seized/forfeited articles
c. Only imprisonment sentences
d. Only private gaming offences
125. The essence of Section 16 is:
a. To impose mandatory fines on offenders
b. To reward informers for helping detect offences
c. To prevent Magistrates from imposing fines
d. To allow police to seize articles
126. Under Section 17, fines imposed under the Arms Act are recoverable:
a. By the Magistrate’s discretion in any manner
b. In the manner prescribed by Section 61 of the CrPC
c. Only by police attachment
d. Only by compounding
127. Section 17 ensures that fines under the Act:
a. Are voluntary
b. Are enforceable according to CrPC rules
c. Cannot be recovered once imposed
d. Are paid only to informers
128. Section 17 applies to fines under:
a. Sections 3 and 4 only
b. All fines imposed under the Arms Act
c. Only repeat offence fines
d. Only fines under public gaming offences
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