Public Gambling Act, 1867 Set -1

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1. The short title of the statute providing punishment for public gambling is:

a. The Gambling Control Act, 1867

b. The Public Gambling Act, 1867

c. The Prevention of Gambling Act, 1867

d. The Common Gaming Houses Act, 1867

2. The Public Gambling Act was enacted in which year?

a. 1865

b. 1866

c. 1867

d. 1870

3. The Act number assigned to the Public Gambling Act, 1867 is:

a. Act No. 2 of 1867

b. Act No. 3 of 1867

c. Act No. 5 of 1867

d. Act No. 10 of 1867

4. On which date was the Public Gambling Act, 1867 enacted?

a. 15th January, 1867

b. 25th January, 1867

c. 26th January, 1867

d. 1st February, 1867

5. The long title of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 states that it is an Act to provide for:

a. Regulation of gambling activities in India

b. Licensing of gaming houses

c. Punishment of public gambling and keeping of common gaming-houses

d. Prohibition of all forms of gambling

6. According to the long title, the Act applies to which of the following regions?

a. Entire British India

b. United Provinces, East Punjab, Delhi and the Central Provinces

c. Punjab and Bengal only

d. All Provinces excluding Delhi

7. Section 1 of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 is titled as:

a. Preliminary

b. Short title and extent

c. Interpretation-clause

d. Definitions

8. The expression “Interpretation-clause” primarily serves to:

a. Prescribe punishments

b. Confer powers on authorities

c. Define expressions used in the Act

d. Declare offences

9. The words “In this Act—” indicate that:

a. Definitions apply to all Central Acts

b. Definitions apply only to the chapter

c. Definitions are restricted to the present Act

d. Definitions override constitutional provisions

10. Under the Public Gambling Act, 1867, a “common gaming-house” includes:

a. Only houses used for gambling

b. Any house, walled enclosure, room or place

c. Only enclosed places

d. Only public places

11. For a place to qualify as a “common gaming-house”, which of the following must be present?

a. Gambling must be conducted publicly

b. Instruments of gaming must be kept or used

c. Gambling must be habitual

d. Gambling must involve money only

12. The expression “other instruments of gaming” signifies:

a. Only instruments notified by the government

b. Instruments similar in nature to cards, dice, and tables

c. Instruments used exclusively for betting

d. Instruments used in casinos only

13. The words “kept or used” indicate that:

a. Both keeping and using must be proved

b. Either keeping or using is sufficient

c. Only actual use is punishable

d. Mere possession is punishable regardless of purpose

14. The profit or gain must accrue to:

a. The players only

b. The government

c. The person owning, occupying, using or keeping the house, enclosure, room or place

d. Any third party

15. Which of the following persons can derive “profit or gain” for the purpose of this definition?

a. Only the owner

b. Only the occupier

c. Only the person using the place

d. Owner, occupier, user or keeper

16. The definition uses the phrase “profit or gain”, which implies:

a. Only monetary benefit

b. Only indirect benefit

c. Any form of benefit, monetary or otherwise

d. Benefit exceeding a prescribed amount

17. A place will be a common gaming-house if profit or gain arises:

a. Only by charging for gaming instruments

b. Only by charging for entry

c. By charging for instruments or place or otherwise howsoever

d. Only through commission

18. The phrase “whether by way of charge” indicates that:

a. Charging is mandatory

b. Charging is optional

c. Charging is one of the possible modes of gain

d. Charging must be proved conclusively

19. Charging for which of the following is specifically recognised under the definition?

a. Food and beverages

b. Instruments of gaming

c. Security services

d. Parking

20. Section 2 of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 deals with:

a. Definition of gaming instruments

b. Punishment for gambling

c. Power to extend the Act

d. Repeal of inconsistent laws

21. Which sections of the Act extend to the whole of the said States by default?

a. Sections 1 and 2

b. Sections 5 and 6

c. Sections 13 and 17

d. All sections

22. The authority competent to extend the remaining sections of the Act is:

a. Central Government

b. Parliament

c. State Government

d. District Magistrate

23. The words “whenever it may think fit” indicate that the power of extension is:

a. Mandatory

b. Automatic

c. Discretionary

d. Time-bound

24. Extension of the Act under Section 2 must be made:

a. By executive order

b. By circular

c. By notification

d. By ordinance

25. The notification extending the Act must be published:

a. Once in the Official Gazette

b. Twice in the Official Gazette

c. In three successive numbers of the Official Gazette

d. In newspapers

26. Which of the following can be extended by notification under Section 2?

a. Only penal provisions

b. Only procedural provisions

c. All or any of the remaining sections of the Act

d. Only Sections 13 and 17

27. Extension under Section 2 may be made to:

a. States only

b. Districts only

c. City, town, suburb, railway-station, house and place

d. Only municipal areas

28. The phrase “house and place” suggests that extension may apply to:

a. Only public areas

b. Only notified premises

c. Specific individual locations

d. Only administrative units

29. The territorial limit prescribed for extension is:

a. Five miles

b. Two miles

c. Three miles

d. Ten miles

30. The distance of “not more than three miles” is to be measured from:

a. City limits

b. District headquarters

c. Any part of such station-house

d. Police headquarters

31. The expression “station-house” refers to:

a. Railway station

b. Bus station

c. Police station

d. Customs station

32. In the notification extending the Act, the State Government is empowered to:

a. Impose penalties

b. Define the limits of the area

c. Amend the Act

d. Create new offences

33. The limits defined in such notification may be:

a. Final and unchangeable

b. Altered only once

c. Altered from time to time

d. Altered only by legislation

34. The phrase “for the purposes of this Act” indicates that:

a. Limits apply for all laws

b. Limits apply only under this Act

c. Limits apply permanently

d. Limits override municipal boundaries

35. From which date does the legal consequence of extension operate?

a. Date of enactment

b. Date of notification

c. Date of publication in first Gazette

d. Date of judicial confirmation

36. Upon extension, any rule having the force of law which is inconsistent with the extended section shall:

a. Continue to operate

b. Be amended automatically

c. Cease to have effect

d. Be suspended temporarily

37. Such cessation of inconsistent rules applies:

a. Throughout India

b. Throughout the State

c. Only in the extended territories

d. Only prospectively after repeal

38. Section 3 of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 provides punishment for:

a. Playing in a gaming-house

b. Owning or keeping or having a charge of a gaming-house

c. Betting in public places

d. Possession of gaming instruments

39. Section 3 applies to a house, enclosure, room or place which is:

a. Anywhere in India

b. Situated in a municipal area

c. Situated within the limits to which the Act applies

d. Situated in a notified gambling zone

40. Which of the following persons is expressly covered under Section 3?

a. Only the owner

b. Only the occupier

c. Owner, occupier, or a person having the use of any house, walled enclosure, room or place

d. Only the manager

41. The acts of “opens, keeps or uses” indicate that:

a. All three must be proved cumulatively

b. Any one of the acts is sufficient

c. Only opening is punishable

d. Only habitual keeping is punishable

42. For liability under the first limb of Section 3, the place must be used as:

a. A public gambling spot

b. A betting exchange

c. A common gaming-house

d. A casino

43. Under the second limb of Section 3, liability arises when the owner or occupier:

a. Negligently allows gambling

b. Accidentally permits gaming

c. Knowingly or wilfully permits use as a common gaming-house

d. Fails to prevent entry

44. The words “knowingly or wilfully” signify:

a. Strict liability

b. Absolute liability

c. Presence of mens rea

d. Constructive liability

45. The second limb applies only to:

a. Any person

b. The police officer

c. Owner or occupier

d. Manager or financier

46. The third limb of Section 3 covers:

a. Players only

b. Owners only

c. Persons having care or management, or assisting in conducting the business

d. Spectators

47. The phrase “in any manner assists” indicates that:

a. Only substantial assistance is punishable

b. Assistance must be financial

c. Even minor or indirect assistance is covered

d. Assistance must be continuous

48. For liability under the third limb, the house must be:

a. Merely suspected of gaming

b. Used occasionally for gaming

c. Opened, occupied, used or kept for the purpose aforesaid

d. Licensed for gaming

49. The fourth limb of Section 3 penalises a person who:

a. Borrows money to gamble

b. Advances or furnishes money for gaining with persons frequenting such place

c. Wins money in gambling

d. Keeps accounts

50. Section 3 creates liability for:

a. A single category of offenders

b. Only owners

c. Multiple distinct classes of persons

d. Only habitual offenders

51. The punishment under Section 3 may be:

a. Fine only

b. Imprisonment only

c. Fine or imprisonment, or both

d. Community service

52. The maximum fine prescribed under Section 3 is:

a. ₹100

b. ₹200

c. ₹500

d. ₹1,000

53. The maximum term of imprisonment under Section 3 is:

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

54. The imprisonment prescribed may be:

a. Simple imprisonment only

b. Rigorous imprisonment only

c. Imprisonment of either description

d. Preventive detention

55. The expression “either description” takes its meaning from:

a. The Public Gambling Act

b. The Code of Criminal Procedure

c. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

d. Judicial precedent

56. Section 4 of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 deals with punishment for:

a. Owning a gaming-house

b. Managing a gaming-house

c. Being found in a gaming-house

d. Financing a gaming-house

57. Section 4 applies to a person who is found in:

a. Any place suspected of gambling

b. Any common gaming-house

c. Any house, walled enclosure, room or place

d. Only public places

58. A person may be liable under Section 4 if he is found:

a. Merely standing near a gaming-house

b. Playing or gaming in such place

c. Owning the place

d. Permitting others to gamble

59. Which of the following articles is expressly mentioned in Section 4?

a. Chips

b. Cards, dice, counters, money

c. Roulette wheel

d. Tokens

60. The inclusion of “other instruments of gaming” indicates:

a. Exhaustive enumeration

b. Instruments identical to cards and dice only

c. A wide and inclusive scope

d. Only notified instruments

61. A person is punishable under Section 4 even if he:

a. Does not actually play

b. Is the owner of the place

c. Supplies money

d. Manages the place

62. The words “found there present for the purpose of gaming” imply that:

a. Actual gaming is mandatory

b. Presence with intention to game is sufficient

c. Gambling must be habitual

d. Profit must be proved

63. Liability under Section 4 arises:

a. Only when money is involved

b. Only when gaming is for profit

c. Whether playing for money, wager, stake or otherwise

d. Only when high stakes are involved

64. Which mental element is required to be proved under Section 4?

a. Knowledge

b. Wilfulness

c. Intention to cheat

d. Purpose of gaming

65. The maximum fine prescribed under Section 4 is:

a. ₹50

b. ₹100

c. ₹200

d. ₹500

66. The maximum imprisonment under Section 4 is:

a. One week

b. Fifteen days

c. One month

d. Three months

67. The imprisonment under Section 4 may be:

a. Simple only

b. Rigorous only

c. Of either description

d. Preventive

68. The phrase “either description” is to be understood as per:

a. Public Gambling Act

b. Code of Criminal Procedure

c. Indian Penal Code, 1860

d. State Rules

69. Section 5 of the Public Gambling Act, 1867 confers powers relating to:

a. Punishment for gambling

b. Presumption of guilt

c. Entry, search, seizure and arrest

d. Licensing of gaming-houses

70. Power under Section 5 may be exercised by:

a. Any police officer

b. Any Magistrate

c. Magistrate of a district, officer with full powers of Magistrate, or District Superintendent of Police

d. Station House Officer

71. Before exercising powers under Section 5, the authority must have:

a. Written complaint

b. Personal knowledge

c. Credible information

d. Judicial order

72. The authority must also conduct:

a. Mandatory enquiry

b. Enquiry as he may think necessary

c. Enquiry through police only

d. No enquiry

73. Powers under Section 5 can be exercised only when the authority:

a. Is certain that gaming is occurring

b. Has reason to believe the place is used as a common gaming-house

c. Receives anonymous information

d. Suspects gambling

74. The power to enter may be exercised:

a. Only through police

b. Only personally by Magistrate

c. Either personally or through authorised police officer

d. Only with warrant

75. Authorisation to police under Section 5 must be:

a. Oral

b. Through standing order

c. By warrant

d. By circular

76. The police officer authorised must be:

a. Any police officer

b. Not below such rank as State Government appoints

c. Station House Officer only

d. Sub-Inspector or above

77. Entry under Section 5 may be made:

a. Only during daytime

b. Only at night

c. By night or by day

d. Only during gaming

78. Entry under Section 5 may be effected:

a. Without assistance

b. With local witnesses only

c. With such assistance as may be found necessary

d. Only with armed police

79. The use of force is permitted under Section 5:

a. Never

b. Only with court permission

c. If necessary

d. Only during night

80. Under Section 5, persons may be taken into custody:

a. Only if caught gaming

b. Only if resisting police

c. Whether or not actually gaming

d. Only owners

81. Custody under Section 5 can be effected by:

a. Police officer only

b. Magistrate only

c. Magistrate himself or authorised officer

d. Court bailiff

82. Which of the following can be seized under Section 5?

a. Instruments of gaming only

b. Money only

c. Instruments, money, securities and articles of value

d. Personal belongings only

83. Money and articles seized must be:

a. Actually used for gaming

b. Confiscated automatically

c. Reasonably suspected to be used or intended for gaming

d. Declared illegal

84. The standard applied for seizure under Section 5 is:

a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

b. Mere suspicion

c. Reasonable suspicion

d. Absolute certainty

85. Search under Section 5 may extend to:

a. Only gaming table

b. Only common areas

c. All parts of the house entered

d. Only locked rooms

86. Search of persons is permitted when:

a. They consent

b. They are accused

c. They are taken into custody

d. They are owners

87. Search of concealed instruments may be conducted when:

a. Instruments are visible

b. Authority has reason to believe they are concealed

c. Gambling is proved

d. Accused confesses

88. The phrase “reason to believe” indicates:

a. Pure suspicion

b. Objective satisfaction based on material

c. Mandatory proof

d. Judicial finding

89. Seizure after search includes:

a. Only instruments listed in Act

b. Only money

c. All instruments of gaming found

d. Only used instruments

90. According to Section 6, the finding of cards, dice, gaming-tables, cloths, boards, or other instruments of gaming in any house, room, or walled enclosure:

a. Constitutes conclusive proof of a common gaming house

b. Shall be evidence that such house, enclosure, or room is a common gaming-house until the contrary is proved

c. Is irrelevant unless gaming is actually witnessed by the Magistrate

d. Requires prior permission from the State Government

91. The presumption created under Section 6 is:

a. Irrebuttable

b. Rebuttable

c. Only applies if a police officer witnesses play

d. Only applies in private houses, not walled enclosures

92. Under Section 6, the persons found in the house where gaming instruments are discovered are presumed to be:

a. Present for innocent social purposes

b. Present for the purpose of gaming

c. Owners of the instruments only

d. Government officials

93. The evidence mentioned in Section 6 applies even if:

a. No cards are found

b. No play was actually seen by the Magistrate or police officer

c. The house is unoccupied

d. The instruments are broken

94. Section 6 covers findings in:

a. Only private houses

b. Any house, walled enclosure, room, or place entered under the preceding section

c. Only licensed gaming establishments

d. Public parks

95. The phrase “until the contrary is made to appear” in Section 6 indicates that:

a. The evidence is conclusive

b. The presumption is rebuttable

c. Magistrates cannot rely on it

d. It applies only after trial

96. Which of the following items would not fall under the scope of Section 6?

a. Dice

b. Cards

c. Books

d. Gaming tables

97. Under Section 6, which of the following is true?

a. The police officer must witness gaming for evidence to exist

b. Evidence arises from the presence of gaming instruments, not actual play

c. Persons found can never contest the presumption

d. The presumption applies only to enclosures, not houses

98. Which authority must enter or search the premises for Section 6 evidence to be valid?

a. Any citizen

b. A Magistrate, police-officer, or their assistants under the last preceding section

c. State Government officials

d. Arbitrary private investigators

99. Section 6 creates:

a. A presumption of legality

b. A rebuttable presumption of a common gaming house

c. Automatic criminal liability

d. Only procedural requirements

100. The essence of Section 6 can be summarized as:

a. No person may possess gaming instruments under any circumstances

b. Finding gaming instruments creates prima facie evidence that the house is used for gaming, until disproved

c. Every house with cards is a common gaming house

d. Only the owner of the house is liable for gaming offences

101. Section 6 emphasizes that the presumption applies to:

a. Only the instruments

b. Only the persons

c. Both the house and the persons found therein

d. Only the owner of the instruments

102. Section 7 applies to:

a. Any person in a public park

b. Any person found in a common gaming-house entered under the Act

c. Only the owner of a common gaming-house

d. Any government officer

103. The obligation under Section 7 arises when a person is:

a. Only observed playing games

b. Arrested or brought before a Magistrate or officer of police

c. Visiting a public building

d. Found in possession of gaming instruments only

104. Under Section 7, a person commits an offence if he:

a. Gives a false name or address

b. Refuses or neglects to give name or address when required

c. Both A and B

d. Only if caught gambling

105. Conviction under Section 7 can be made by:

a. Only the Magistrate who entered the house

b. The same or any other Magistrate

c. Any police officer

d. The State Government

106. The maximum penalty under Section 7 for giving false name or address is:

a. ₹1,000

b. ₹500

c. ₹200

d. Imprisonment only

107. In addition to the penalty, the Magistrate may award:

a. Community service

b. Costs deemed reasonable by the Magistrate

c. License suspension

d. Confiscation of property

108. Under Section 7, imprisonment may be awarded:

a. Only after fine is imposed and not paid

b. Up to one month, even initially if Magistrate thinks fit

c. Up to six months in all cases

d. Only if the person is a repeat offender

109. The phrase “upon being required by such officer or Magistrate to give his name and address” in Section 7 signifies:

a. The obligation arises only if the person is warned verbally

b. The obligation is triggered by an official request

c. The obligation is optional

d. The obligation applies only to owners of the house

110. Which of the following is correct regarding Section 7?

a. Penalty is mandatory imprisonment

b. Only false names are punishable, not refusal to provide name

c. Both refusal/neglect and giving false name/address are punishable

d. The fine cannot exceed ₹1,000

111. The wording “may upon conviction before the same or any other Magistrate” indicates that:

a. Only one specific Magistrate can try the case

b. Jurisdiction is flexible among Magistrates

c. Police officers can impose the fine themselves

d. Trial must happen in the district where the offence occurred

112. Non-payment of penalty and costs under Section 7 can lead to:

a. Automatic arrest for six months

b. Imprisonment up to one month at Magistrate’s discretion

c. Only a warning

d. Confiscation of property

113. Section 7 imposes:

a. Criminal liability for all persons in a gaming-house

b. Penalty specifically for providing false information or refusing to provide details

c. Civil liability only

d. No liability if gambling was not observed

114. The maximum duration of imprisonment under Section 7 is:

a. 15 days

b. 1 month

c. 6 months

d. 3 months

115. Section 7 reflects which principle of law?

a. Presumption of innocence

b. Duty to provide true information to authorities

c. Strict liability for gambling

d. Rebuttable presumption of guilt

116. Which of the following is not correct under Section 7?

a. Fine may not exceed ₹500

b. Costs deemed reasonable can be imposed

c. Imprisonment can be up to 1 month in first instance if Magistrate thinks fit

d. Imprisonment is mandatory in all cases

117. Section 8 applies when a person is:

a. Arrested for refusing to give name/address

b. Convicted for keeping or using a common gaming-house, or being present for gaming

c. Found gambling but not convicted

d. Seized with gaming instruments in a public park

118. Under Section 8, who may order the destruction of instruments of gaming?

a. Any police officer

b. The State Government

c. The convicting Magistrate

d. Any citizen reporting the offence

119. The Magistrate may order destruction of which of the following?

a. Securities for money seized

b. Other articles seized

c. All instruments of gaming found in the convicted premises

d. Real estate property of the offender

120. Section 8 allows the Magistrate to deal with other seized articles not being instruments of gaming by:

a. Returning them only

b. Selling and converting them into money

c. Destroying them

d. Keeping them as evidence

121. The proceeds from the sale of other seized articles and moneys found in a gaming-house can be:

a. Fully returned to the offender

b. Fully forfeited, or partially returned at Magistrate’s discretion

c. Kept by the police officer personally

d. Only used to pay court costs

122. Section 8 emphasizes that the destruction or disposal of gaming instruments occurs:

a. Before conviction

b. Upon arrest

c. On conviction of the person

d. Only if the offence is repeated

123. Which of the following is true regarding Section 8?

a. Magistrate must destroy all gaming instruments in every case

b. Magistrate may destroy all instruments of gaming and sell/seize other articles, exercising discretion for return

c. The convicted person decides which items to destroy

d. Only the owner of the house is liable for forfeiture

124. “Securities for money and other articles seized, not being instruments of gaming” refers to:

a. Only coins found in the house

b. Items of value other than gaming instruments

c. Furniture and buildings only

d. Weapons and explosives

125. Section 8 grants the Magistrate discretion to:

a. Forgive all fines

b. Return part of the proceeds to rightful persons

c. Impose additional imprisonment automatically

d. Transfer the case to another court

126. Which of the following actions is mandatorily covered under Section 8 after conviction?

a. Destruction of instruments of gaming

b. Selling other articles seized

c. Returning part of proceeds

d. Automatic imprisonment

127. Section 8 applies to which categories of convicted persons?

a. Only the owner of a common gaming-house

b. Anyone convicted for keeping/using a gaming-house or being present for gaming

c. Only habitual gamblers

d. Only persons giving false names under Section 7

128. Which of the following best summarizes Section 8?

a. Convicted persons may retain all gaming instruments

b. Magistrates may destroy gaming instruments, sell other seized property, forfeit or return proceeds

c. Police officers may destroy property before trial

d. Conviction is necessary only for refusal to give name/address

129. Under Section 8, the Magistrate’s discretion allows:

a. Conversion of proceeds into fine only

b. Partial return of money and items to persons appearing entitled

c. Mandatory forfeiture of all assets

d. Imprisonment without trial

130. The scope of Section 8 extends to:

a. Only instruments of gaming

b. Only money seized

c. Both gaming instruments and other seized articles

d. Only real estate

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