PCPNDT ACT, 1994 MCQs Set-2

PCPNDT ACT, 1994 MCQs Set-2 PDF

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1. The State/UT Supervisory Board may perform—

a. Only specified functions

b. Only advisory functions

c. Any other functions as may be prescribed under the Act

d. Only monitoring functions

2. Section 16A(2) of the Act provides for—

a. Functions of State Board

b. Composition and related provisions of the State Supervisory Board

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Registration of clinics

3. The Chairperson of the State Board shall be—

a. Chief Minister

b. Director of Health Services

c. Secretary of Health Department

d. Minister in charge of Health and Family Welfare in the State, ex-officio

4. The Vice-Chairperson of the State Board shall be—

a. Director of Health

b. Secretary in charge of Department of Health and Family Welfare, ex-officio

c. Minister of Law

d. Joint Director

5. Which of the following are included as ex-officio members under clause (c)?

a. Only Law Department

b. Only Social Welfare Department

c. Only Health Department

d. Departments of Women and Child Development, Social Welfare, Law and Indian System of Medicines and Homoeopathy or their representatives

6. The Director included in the State Board under clause (d) is—

a. Director of Health and Family Welfare or Indian System of Medicines and Homoeopathy of the State Government

b. Director General of Health Services

c. Director of Medical Education

d. Director of Hospitals

7. The number of women members of Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council in the State Board is—

a. Two

b. One

c. Three

d. Five

8. The ten members appointed by the State Government under clause (f) shall include—

a. Only medical professionals

b. Two each from specified five categories including social scientists, women activists, gynaecologists, paediatricians/medical geneticists, and radiologists/sonologists

c. Only government officers

d. Only legal experts

9. The Member-Secretary of the State Board shall be—

a. Any officer of State Government

b. An officer not below the rank of Joint Director in charge of Family Welfare, ex-officio

c. Secretary of Health

d. Director General

10. The State Board shall meet at least once in—

a. Four months

b. Three months

c. One months

d. Six months

11. The term of office of a member, other than an ex-officio member, of the State Board shall be—

a. One year

b. Two years

c. Four years

d. Three years

12. Vacancy in the office of a member (other than ex-officio) shall be filled by—

a. Election

b. Promotion

c. Fresh appointment

d. Nomination by Chairman

13. A member of Legislative Assembly or Council shall cease to be a member of the State Board if she becomes—

a. Chief Minister

b. Judge

c. Minister or Speaker or Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly or Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson of Legislative Council

d. Party leader

14. The quorum for the State Board shall be—

a. One-fourth of total members

b. One-third of total number of members

c. Half of total members

d. Two-thirds of total members

15. The State Board may co-opt members provided that—

a. No limit is prescribed

b. It does not exceed one-third of total strength of the Board

c. Only one member can be co-opted

d. Only experts can be co-opted

16. Co-opted members shall—

a. Have same powers and functions except right to vote and shall abide by rules and regulations

b. Have no powers

c. Have full voting rights

d. Be treated as ex-officio members

17. In matters not specified, the State Board shall follow—

a. Its own discretion

b. Central Government orders

c. Procedures and conditions applicable to the Board

d. Directions of Chairman only

18. Section 17 of the Act provides for—

a. Constitution of Board

b. Appropriate Authority and Advisory Committee

c. Registration of clinics

d. Offences and penalties

19. Under Section 17(1), the Appropriate Authority for Union territories is appointed by—

a. State Government

b. Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette

c. Parliament

d. Board

20. The State Government appoints Appropriate Authorities under Section 17(2)—

a. Without any criteria

b. Only for the whole State

c. For the whole or part of the State having regard to the intensity of the problem of pre-natal sex determination leading to female foeticide

d. Only for districts

21. When Appropriate Authority is appointed for the whole State or Union territory, it shall consist of—

a. One member only

b. Two members

c. Three members including specified officers and representative

d. Five members

22. Which of the following correctly represents the composition of Appropriate Authority for whole State/UT?

a. Director of Health, Magistrate, Police Officer

b. Officer of or above rank of Joint Director of Health and Family Welfare (Chairperson), an eminent woman representing women’s organization, and an officer of Law Department

c. Only medical practitioners

d. Only administrative officers

23. The proviso mandates that the State/UT shall constitute multi-member Appropriate Authority within—

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months from commencement of Amendment Act, 2002

d. Six months

24. Any vacancy in the multi-member Appropriate Authority shall be filled within—

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months of occurrence

d. Six months

25. When Appropriate Authority is appointed for any part of the State or Union territory, the rank of officers shall be—

a. Fixed as Joint Director only

b. As prescribed by courts

c. Not below Secretary level

d. Such as the State Government or Central Government may deem fit

26. Section 17(4) of the Act provides for—

a. Composition of the Board

b. Functions of the Appropriate Authority

c. Disqualifications of members

d. Registration procedure

27. Which of the following is a function of the Appropriate Authority under Section 17(4)?

a. Framing regulations

b. Granting, suspending or cancelling registration of Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic

c. Adjudicating civil disputes

d. Conducting elections

28. The Appropriate Authority is empowered to—

a. Only register clinics

b. Enforce standards prescribed for Genetic Counselling Centres, Genetic Laboratories and Genetic Clinics

c. Only supervise doctors

d. Issue medical degrees

29. The Appropriate Authority shall investigate complaints relating to—

a. Only financial irregularities

b. Breach of provisions of the Act or rules and take immediate action

c. Only administrative matters

d. Only government officers

30. The Appropriate Authority shall seek advice of the Advisory Committee in matters relating to—

a. Only public awareness

b. Application for registration and complaints for suspension or cancellation of registration

c. Financial audits

d. Staff appointments

31. The Appropriate Authority may take legal action against use of sex selection technique—

a. Only on complaint

b. Only with court approval

c. Suo motu or when brought to its notice, including initiating independent investigations

d. Only through police

32. One of the functions of the Appropriate Authority is to—

a. Conduct medical research

b. Create public awareness against sex selection or pre-natal determination of sex

c. Grant medical degrees

d. Appoint judges

33. The Appropriate Authority shall supervise—

a. Only hospitals

b. Implementation of provisions of the Act and rules

c. Only laboratories

d. Only government schemes

34. The Appropriate Authority may recommend modifications required in rules to—

a. Courts

b. Parliament

c. Central Supervisory Board and State Boards

d. Hospitals

35. The Appropriate Authority shall take action on recommendations of—

a. Central Government

b. Advisory Committee after investigation of complaint for suspension or cancellation of registration

c. Police authorities

d. Medical Council

36. Under Section 17(5), the Advisory Committee is constituted by—

a. Board

b. Courts

c. Central Government or State Government for each Appropriate Authority

d. Parliament

37. The Advisory Committee is constituted to—

a. Supervise hospitals

b. Aid and advise the Appropriate Authority in discharge of its functions

c. Grant registration

d. Conduct investigations

38. The composition of the Advisory Committee includes—

a. Only medical experts

b. Three medical experts, one legal expert, one officer for information and publicity, and three eminent social workers (including at least one from women’s organisations)

c. Only government officers

d. Only social workers

39. A person shall not be appointed as a member of Advisory Committee if he—

a. Lacks experience

b. Has been associated with use or promotion of pre-natal diagnostic technique for sex determination or sex selection

c. Is not a government employee

d. Is below 35 years

40. The Advisory Committee may meet—

a. Only once a year

b. Only when directed by court

c. As it thinks fit or on request of Appropriate Authority for specified purposes

d. Only quarterly

41. The interval between two meetings of the Advisory Committee shall—

a. Not exceed prescribed period

b. Be decided by Chairman

c. Be fixed at six months

d. Be flexible without limit

42. The terms and conditions of appointment and procedure of the Advisory Committee shall be—

a. Decided by Chairman

b. Prescribed

c. Fixed by Central Government orders

d. Determined by Board

43. Section 17A of the Act provides for—

a. Functions of the Board

b. Powers of Appropriate Authorities

c. Registration of clinics

d. Meetings of the Board

44. The Appropriate Authority has the power of summoning—

a. Only registered medical practitioners

b. Any person possessing information relating to violation of provisions of the Act or rules

c. Only government officials

d. Only complainants

45. The power of issuing search warrant under Section 17A relates to—

a. Any public place

b. Any hospital

c. Any place suspected of indulging in sex selection techniques or pre-natal sex determination

d. Only registered clinics

46. Section 17A also empowers the Appropriate Authority in respect of—

a. Framing rules

b. Granting licenses

c. Production of documents or material objects and any other matter as may be prescribed

d. Conducting trials

47. Section 18 of the Act provides for—

a. Powers of Appropriate Authority

b. Registration of Genetic Counselling Centres, Genetic Laboratories or Genetic Clinics

c. Functions of the Board

d. Offences and penalties

48. Under Section 18(1), no person shall open or render services to any Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic after the commencement of the Amendment Act, 2002 unless—

a. Approved by State Government

b. It is inspected by authority

c. It is privately licensed

d. It is duly registered under the Act

49. The requirement of registration under Section 18(1) extends to centres having—

a. Only laboratory equipment

b. Only ultrasound machines

c. Ultrasound or imaging machine or scanner or any other technology capable of undertaking determination of sex of foetus and sex selection

d. Only surgical equipment

50. An application for registration under Section 18(2) shall be made—

a. To the Appropriate Authority in prescribed form and manner with prescribed fees

b. To the Board

c. To the Central Government

d. To the court

51. Existing centres engaged before commencement of the Act shall apply for registration within—

a. Thirty days

b. Forty-five days

c. Sixty days from the date of commencement

d. Ninety days

52. Under Section 18(4), such centres shall cease to conduct activities unless—

a. They obtain approval from court

b. They apply for registration and are registered or till such application is disposed of, whichever is earlier

c. They notify the Government

d. They pay additional fees

53. The cessation under Section 18(4) operates after expiry of—

a. Three months

b. Sixty days

c. One year

d. Six months from commencement of the Act

54. Registration shall not be granted unless the Appropriate Authority is satisfied that the Centre, Laboratory or Clinic—

a. Is government owned

b. Has minimum staff

c. Is in a position to provide prescribed facilities, maintain equipment and standards

d. Has at least five years experience

55. Section 19 of the Act provides for—

a. Registration procedure

b. Certificate of registration

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Offences and penalties

56. The Appropriate Authority shall grant a certificate of registration after—

a. Inspection only

b. Inquiry, satisfaction of compliance with the Act and rules, and having regard to the advice of the Advisory Committee

c. Approval of Central Government

d. Payment of fees only

57. The certificate of registration may be granted—

a. Only jointly

b. Only separately

c. Jointly or separately to the Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic

d. Only to laboratories

58. The Appropriate Authority may reject the application for registration if—

a. Fees are unpaid

b. It is satisfied after inquiry and hearing that requirements of the Act or rules are not complied with, recording reasons in writing

c. Applicant withdraws

d. Advisory Committee disagrees

59. Every certificate of registration shall be—

a. Permanent

b. Valid for five years only

c. Renewed in prescribed manner, period and on payment of prescribed fees

d. Renewed only once

60. The certificate of registration shall be displayed—

a. In the office records

b. At the residence of owner

c. In a conspicuous place at the place of business

d. Only before authority

61. Section 20 of the Act provides for—

a. Grant of registration

b. Cancellation or suspension of registration

c. Powers of the Board

d. Advisory Committee functions

62. Under Section 20(1), the Appropriate Authority may initiate action for suspension or cancellation—

a. Only on direction of Central Government

b. Only on complaint

c. Suo motu or on complaint

d. Only on court order

63. Before suspending or cancelling registration under Section 20(2), the Appropriate Authority shall—

a. Immediately cancel registration

b. Give reasonable opportunity of being heard and consider advice of Advisory Committee

c. Consult only police authorities

d. Seek approval of Central Government

64. Upon breach of provisions of the Act or rules, the Appropriate Authority may—

a. Only impose fine

b. Suspend registration only

c. Only issue warning

d. Suspend for such period as it may think fit or cancel registration without prejudice to criminal action

65. Under Section 20(3), registration may be suspended without notice if—

a. Complaint is serious

b. Directed by court

c. Appropriate Authority considers it necessary or expedient in public interest, recording reasons in writing

d. Fees are unpaid

66. Section 21 of the Act provides for—

a. Review of orders

b. Appeal

c. Revision by Board

d. Registration procedure

67. An appeal against an order of suspension or cancellation under Section 20 may be preferred within—

a. Fifteen days

b. Thirty days from the date of receipt of the order

c. Forty-five days

d. Sixty days

68. Where the appeal is against the order of the Central Appropriate Authority, it shall lie to—

a. Supreme Court

b. Central Government

c. State Government

d. Board

69. Where the appeal is against the order of the State Appropriate Authority, it shall lie to—

a. Central Government

b. High Court

c. State Government

d. District Court

70. The appeal under Section 21 shall be preferred—

a. Orally

b. In writing only without format

c. In the prescribed manner

d. Through court proceedings only

71. Section 22 of the Act provides for—

a. Registration of clinics

b. Prohibition of advertisement relating to pre-natal determination of sex and punishment for contravention

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Appeals

72. Under Section 22(1), who is prohibited from issuing or causing advertisement regarding pre-natal determination of sex or sex selection?

a. Only Genetic Clinics

b. Only organizations

c. Any person, organization, Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic including those having relevant equipment

d. Only registered practitioners

73. The prohibition under Section 22(1) extends to advertisement—

a. In any form including internet

b. Only in electronic media

c. Only in print media

d. Only through television

74. Section 22(2) prohibits advertisement relating to—

a. Only pre-natal diagnostic procedures

b. Only medical treatment

c. Pre-natal determination or pre-conception selection of sex by any means whatsoever

d. Only genetic counselling

75. The punishment for contravention of Section 22(1) or (2) includes—

a. Fine only

b. Imprisonment up to one year

c. Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to ten thousand rupees

d. Cancellation of registration only

76. For the purposes of Section 22, “advertisement” includes—

a. Only written notices

b. Only electronic media

c. Only television advertisements

d. Any notice, circular, label, wrapper or any document including internet or electronic/print media and visible representation by hoarding, wall-painting, signal, light, sound, smoke or gas

77. Section 23 of the Act provides for—

a. Registration of clinics

b. Offences and penalties

c. Appeals

d. Functions of Board

78. Under Section 23(1), which persons are liable for contravention of the provisions of the Act or rules?

a. Only owners of clinics

b. Only registered medical practitioners

c. Medical geneticist, gynaecologist, registered medical practitioner, or any person owning or employed in a Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory or Genetic Clinic rendering professional or technical services

d. Only government officers

79. The punishment for first conviction under Section 23(1) is—

a. Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to five thousand rupees

b. Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to ten thousand rupees

c. Imprisonment up to five years only

d. Fine only

80. On subsequent conviction under Section 23(1), punishment may extend to—

a. Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to ten thousand rupees

b. Imprisonment up to four years and fine up to twenty thousand rupees

c. Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to fifty thousand rupees

d. Fine up to one lakh rupees only

81. Under Section 23(2), when charges are framed by the court, the name of the registered medical practitioner shall be reported to—

a. Central Government

b. Appropriate Authority

c. State Medical Council concerned

d. Supreme Court

82. Upon conviction for first offence, the name of the registered medical practitioner shall be removed from the register for—

a. One year

b. Three years

c. Five years

d. Permanently

83. Upon subsequent conviction, the name of the registered medical practitioner shall be removed—

a. For ten years

b. Permanently

c. For five years

d. For three years

84. Under Section 23(3), any person seeking aid for sex selection or unauthorized pre-natal diagnostic techniques shall be punishable for first offence with—

a. Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to ten thousand rupees

b. Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to fifty thousand rupees

c. Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to one lakh rupees

d. Fine only

85. For subsequent offence under Section 23(3), punishment may extend to—

a. Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to fifty thousand rupees

b. Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to one lakh rupees

c. Imprisonment up to four years and fine up to seventy-five thousand rupees

d. Fine up to fifty thousand rupees only

86. As clarified under Section 23(4), the provisions of sub-section (3) shall not apply to—

a. Any person involved

b. Medical practitioners

c. The woman compelled to undergo such diagnostic techniques or sex selection

d. Owners of clinics

87. Section 24 of the Act provides for—

a. General penalties

b. Presumption in the case of conduct of pre-natal diagnostic techniques

c. Appeals

d. Registration procedure

88. Under Section 24, the court shall presume, unless the contrary is proved, that the pregnant woman was compelled by—

a. Doctor only

b. Appropriate Authority

c. Her husband or any other relative

d. Any government officer

89. The presumption under Section 24 relates to undergoing pre-natal diagnostic techniques for purposes—

a. Specified under section 3

b. Approved by doctor

c. For medical necessity only

d. Other than those specified in sub-section (2) of section 4

90. A person compelling such act shall be liable for—

a. Direct offence only

b. Civil liability

c. Abetment of offence under sub-section (3) of section 23 and punishable accordingly

d. No liability

91. Section 25 of the Act provides for—

a. Specific penalties

b. Penalty for contravention where no specific punishment is provided

c. Appeals

d. Registration

92. Under Section 25, punishment for contravention (where no specific penalty is provided) may extend to—

a. Imprisonment up to three months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both

b. Fine up to five thousand rupees only

c. Imprisonment up to six months only

d. Imprisonment up to one year

93. In case of continuing contravention under Section 25, additional fine may extend to—

a. One hundred rupees per day

b. Five hundred rupees for every day after conviction

c. One thousand rupees per day

d. Two hundred rupees per day

94. Section 26 of the Act provides for—

a. Offences by companies

b. General penalties

c. Appeals

d. Registration of clinics

95. Where an offence under the Act is committed by a company, who shall be deemed to be guilty?

a. Only the company

b. Only directors

c. Every person in charge of and responsible to the company for conduct of its business, as well as the company

d. Only employees directly involved

96. A person in charge of the company shall not be liable if he proves that—

a. He was absent

b. He had no financial interest

c. He resigned later

d. The offence was committed without his knowledge or he exercised all due diligence to prevent it

97. Under Section 26(2), liability also arises where the offence is committed with—

a. Mere suspicion

b. Consent or connivance or attributable to neglect of director, manager, secretary or other officer

c. Approval of shareholders

d. Government permission

98. For the purposes of Section 26, “company” includes—

a. Only incorporated companies

b. Only public companies

c. Any body corporate and includes a firm or other association of individuals

d. Only government companies

99. For the purposes of Section 26, “director” in relation to a firm means—

a. Managing director

b. Any employee

c. A partner in the firm

d. Legal advisor

100. Section 27 of the Act provides that offences under this Act shall be—

a. Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable

b. Cognizable, bailable and non-compoundable

c. Non-cognizable, bailable and compoundable

d. Non-cognizable, non-bailable and compoundable

101. Section 28 of the Act deals with—

a. Trial of offences

b. Cognizance of offences

c. Appeals

d. Penalties

102. Under Section 28(1), a court shall take cognizance of an offence only upon a complaint made by—

a. Any person without restriction

b. Police officer only

c. Appropriate Authority or authorised officer, or a person giving prescribed prior notice

d. Magistrate suo motu

103. A person other than the Appropriate Authority may file a complaint after giving notice of not less than—

a. Seven days

b. Ten days

c. Fourteen days

d. Fifteen days

104. For the purposes of Section 28(1)(b), “person” includes—

a. Only individuals

b. Only government officers

c. A social organisation

d. Only registered bodies

105. No court inferior to which court shall try offences under this Act?

a. Chief Judicial Magistrate

b. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the first class

c. Sessions Court

d. District Court

106. Where complaint is made by a person under Section 28(1)(b), the court may direct—

a. Police investigation

b. Central Government inquiry

c. Appropriate Authority to provide copies of relevant records to such person

d. Immediate trial

107. Section 29 of the Act provides for—

a. Registration of clinics

b. Maintenance of records

c. Cognizance of offences

d. Appeals

108. Under Section 29(1), records and documents required under the Act shall be preserved for—

a. One year

b. Five years

c. Two years or such period as may be prescribed

d. Permanently

109. Where proceedings are instituted against a Centre, Laboratory or Clinic, records shall be preserved—

a. For two years only

b. Till completion of investigation

c. Till final disposal of such proceedings

d. For five years

110. Under Section 29(2), records shall be made available for inspection—

a. Only during office hours

b. Only to courts

c. Only on written request

d. At all reasonable times to the Appropriate Authority or authorised person

111. Section 30 of the Act provides for—

a. Maintenance of records

b. Power to search and seize records, etc.

c. Protection of action

d. Cognizance of offences

112. The Appropriate Authority may exercise powers of search and seizure when—

a. Directed by court

b. It has reason to believe that an offence under the Act has been or is being committed

c. Complaint is filed

d. Police requests

113. The power of entry, search, examination, seizure and sealing under Section 30 extends to—

a. Only registered clinics

b. Only laboratories

c. Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory, Genetic Clinic or any other place

d. Only government hospitals

114. Which of the following may be examined and seized under Section 30?

a. Only medical records

b. Only registers

c. Any record, register, document, book, pamphlet, advertisement or any other material object

d. Only consent forms

115. The provisions of which law apply to searches and seizures under Section 30?

a. Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872

d. Civil Procedure Code, 1908

116. Section 31 of the Act provides for—

a. Power of search

b. Protection of action taken in good faith

c. Appeals

d. Registration

117. Protection under Section 31 is available to—

a. Only Central Government

b. Only Appropriate Authority

c. Central or State Government, Appropriate Authority, and authorised officers

d. Only courts

118. Protection under Section 31 applies to acts—

a. Done negligently

b. Done maliciously

c. Done or intended to be done in good faith in pursuance of the Act

d. Done without authority

119. Section 31A of the Act provides for—

a. Protection of action taken in good faith

b. Removal of difficulties

c. Cognizance of offences

d. Registration procedure

120. Under Section 31A (1), the power to remove difficulties is vested in—

a. State Government

b. Central Government

c. Appropriate Authority

d. Board

121. The Central Government may exercise such power by—

a. Notification only

b. Order published in the Official Gazette

c. Circular issued to authorities

d. Direction to courts

122. The order made under Section 31A must be—

a. Consistent with the provisions of the Act

b. Approved by State Government

c. Ratified by courts

d. Issued only after consultation with Board

123. No order under Section 31A shall be made after—

a. One year from commencement

b. Two years from commencement

c. Three years from commencement of the Amendment Act, 2002

d. Five years from commencement

124. Every order made under Section 31A shall be laid—

a. Before the Supreme Court

b. Before the Central Government

c. Before each House of Parliament

d. Before the Board

125. Section 32 of the Act provides for—

a. Powers of Appropriate Authority

b. Power to make rules

c. Appeals

d. Penalties

126. Under Section 32(1), the power to make rules is vested in—

a. State Government

b. Central Government

c. Appropriate Authority

d. Board

127. Rules may provide for minimum qualifications of persons employed at registered centres under—

a. Section 4

b. Section 2

c. Section 5

d. Section 3(2)

128. Rules may prescribe the manner of maintaining records of ultrasonography under—

a. Section 4(3) proviso

b. Section 3

c. Section 5

d. Section 6

129. The form of consent of a pregnant woman is prescribed under rules made pursuant to—

a. Section 3

b. Section 4

c. Section 5

d. Section 6

130. Rules may prescribe the procedure for members of the Central Supervisory Board under—

a. Section 7

b. Section 8(4)

c. Section 9

d. Section 10

131. Rules may provide for allowances of members other than ex-officio members under—

a. Section 7

b. Section 8

c. Section 9(5)

d. Section 10

132. Rules may provide for code of conduct to be observed by persons working at centres under—

a. Section 15

b. Section 12

c. Section 17

d. Section 16(iv)

133. Rules may prescribe the manner of furnishing reports by State/UT Boards under—

a. Section 15

b. Section 16

c. Section 16A(1)(iv)

d. Section 17

134. Rules may empower the Appropriate Authority in matters under—

a. Section 16

b. Section 17

c. Section 17A(d)

d. Section 18

135. Rules may prescribe the period between meetings of the Advisory Committee under—

a. Section 17(8) proviso

b. Section 13

c. Section 18

d. Section 19

136. Rules may provide for terms, conditions and procedure of Advisory Committee under—

a. Section 16

b. Section 17(9)

c. Section 18

d. Section 19

137. Rules may prescribe form, manner and fee for registration application under—

a. Section 17

b. Section 13

c. Section 19

d. Section 18(2)

138. Rules may prescribe facilities, equipment and standards under—

a. Section 17

b. Section 18(5)

c. Section 19

d. Section 20

139. Rules may prescribe the form of certificate of registration under—

a. Section 18

b. Section 20

c. Section 19(1)

d. Section 21

140. Rules may prescribe renewal of certificate under—

a. Section 18

b. Section 21

c. Section 20

d. Section 19(3)

141. Rules may prescribe the manner of appeal under—

a. Section 20

b. Section 24

c. Section 21

d. Section 23

142. Rules may prescribe preservation period of records under—

a. Section 29(1)

b. Section 28

c. Section 30

d. Section 31

143. Rules may prescribe seizure procedure and preparation of seizure list under—

a. Section 28

b. Section 29

c. Section 30(1)

d. Section 31

144. Rules may provide for—

a. Only specified matters

b. Only administrative matters

c. Any other matter required to be, or may be, prescribed

d. Only judicial matters

145. Section 33 of the Act provides for—

a. Power to make rules

b. Power to make regulations

c. Powers of Appropriate Authority

d. Appeals

146. The Board may make regulations—

a. With the previous sanction of the Central Government and by notification in the Official Gazette

b. Without approval

c. With approval of State Government only

d. By internal resolution only

147. The regulations made under Section 33 must be—

a. Consistent only with rules

b. Not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act and the rules made thereunder

c. Approved by Parliament

d. Reviewed by courts

148. Regulations may provide for time, place, procedure of meetings and quorum under—

a. Section 8

b. Section 2

c. Section 10

d. Section 9(1)

149. Regulations may provide for temporary association of persons under—

a. Section 10

b. Section 14

c. Section 11(1)

d. Section 13

150. Regulations may provide for appointment, service conditions and pay of officers under—

a. Section 11

b. Section 10

c. Section 13

d. Section 12

151. Regulations may also provide generally for—

a. Judicial proceedings

b. Financial audits

c. Efficient conduct of the affairs of the Board

d. Appointment of judges

152. Section 34 of the Act provides for—

a. Power to make rules

b. Rules and regulations to be laid before Parliament

c. Functions of the Board

d. Appeals

153. Every rule and regulation made under the Act shall be laid before—

a. Supreme Court

b. Central Government

c. Each House of Parliament

d. State Legislature

154. The total period for which rules/regulations shall be laid before Parliament is—

a. Fifteen days

b. Sixty days

c. Forty-five days

d. Thirty days

155. The period of thirty days may be comprised in—

a. Only one session

b. Only two sessions

c. One session or two or more successive sessions

d. Any number of non-consecutive sessions

156. If both Houses agree to modify or annul a rule/regulation, it shall—

a. Have effect only in modified form or be of no effect, without prejudice to prior actions

b. Become void retrospectively

c. Continue unchanged

d. Require court approval

PCPNDT ACT, 1994 MCQs Set-2 PDF

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