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MP Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam MCQs Set-1
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1. The M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 is also known as:
a. M.P. Act No. 2 of 1991
b. M.P. Act No. 4 of 1991
c. M.P. Act No. 10 of 1990
d. M.P. Act No. 1 of 1992
2. The M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 was published on:
a. 8th February, 1991
b. 22nd January, 1992
c. 22nd January, 1991
d. 26th January, 1991
3. The Act commenced on:
a. 8th February, 1991
b. 22nd January, 1991
c. 1st March, 1991
d. 26th January, 1991
4. The assent to the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 was given by:
a. Governor of Madhya Pradesh
b. Chief Minister
c. President of India
d. Speaker of Legislative Assembly
5. The President gave assent to the Act on:
a. 22nd January, 1991
b. 8th February, 1991
c. 1st January, 1991
d. 26th January, 1991
6. The assent of the President was first published in:
a. India Gazette
b. Supreme Court Journal
c. Madhya Pradesh Gazette (Extra-ordinary)
d. Civil Law Reporter
7. The assent publication in the Gazette was dated:
a. 22nd January, 1991
b. 8th February, 1991
c. 1st March, 1991
d. 15th February, 1991
8. The Act was enacted by the:
a. Parliament of India
b. Madhya Pradesh Legislature
c. High Court of Madhya Pradesh
d. State Police Department
9. The Act was enacted in the:
a. Thirty-ninth Year of the Republic
b. Fortieth Year of the Republic
c. Forty-first Year of the Republic
d. Forty-second Year of the Republic
10. The primary object of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 is:
a. Regulation of contracts
b. Maintenance of public order and security of the State
c. Collection of land revenue
d. Administration of municipalities
11. In Chapter relating to restriction orders, the term “restriction order” means:
a. Order made under Section 5
b. Order made under Section 2
c. Order made under Section 3
d. Order made under Section 10
12. Under Section 3(1), the power to make a restriction order is vested in:
a. Sessions Judge
b. Superintendent of Police
c. District Magistrate
d. State Government only
13. A restriction order may be passed if the District Magistrate is satisfied that a person is acting or likely to act prejudicially to:
a. Revenue collection
b. Security of the State or maintenance of public order
c. Civil court proceedings
d. Trade and commerce
14. The object of making a restriction order under Section 3 is:
a. Recovery of taxes
b. Grant of compensation
c. Prevention of prejudicial activities
d. Transfer of property
15. Under Section 3(1)(a), a person may be required to:
a. File annual tax return
b. Notify movements or report himself
c. Surrender property rights
d. Obtain passport clearance
16. Section 3(1)(a) authorizes the District Magistrate to require a person:
a. Only to report himself
b. Only to notify movements
c. Either to notify movements or report himself or both
d. To remain in police custody
17. Under Section 3(1)(b), restrictions may be imposed regarding:
a. Ownership of land
b. Association or communications with specified persons
c. Voting rights
d. Educational qualifications
18. Under Section 3(1)(c), a restriction order may:
a. Dissolve a partnership firm
b. Restrict possession or use of specified articles
c. Cancel marriage registration
d. Suspend pension permanently
19. A restriction order under Section 3(2) shall remain in operation:
a. Permanently
b. For any period without limitation
c. For the period specified therein
d. Only for one month
20. The maximum duration of a restriction order under Section 3(2) is:
a. Six months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. One year from the date of the order
21. The power regarding dispersal of gangs and bodies of persons is exercised by:
a. Sessions Court
b. District Magistrate
c. Governor
d. Excise Commissioner
22. The District Magistrate may act when the movement or encampment of a gang is:
a. Economically beneficial
b. Causing or calculated to cause danger or alarm
c. Related to agricultural activity
d. Approved by Panchayat
23. Action may be taken if there is reasonable suspicion that:
a. Civil disputes are pending
b. Unlawful designs are entertained by the gang or its members
c. Tax dues are unpaid
d. Government jobs are demanded
24. The order for dispersal may be addressed to:
a. All villagers of the district
b. Local police station only
c. Leaders or chiefmen of the gang or body
d. High Court Registrar
25. The order under this provision may be published:
a. Only in newspapers
b. Only through court notice
c. By beat of drum or otherwise as the District Magistrate thinks fit
d. Only through television broadcast
26. Under clause (a), members of the gang may be directed:
a. To surrender all property
b. To conduct themselves so as to prevent violence and alarm
c. To join public service
d. To remain indoors permanently
27. Under clause (b), the District Magistrate may direct members of the gang:
a. To pay compensation
b. To disperse and remove themselves outside the district or specified area
c. To attend court daily
d. To obtain firearm licences
28. The order under clause (b) may prohibit members from:
a. Opening bank accounts
b. Entering the specified district or area again
c. Contesting elections
d. Purchasing land anywhere in India
29. The restriction under clause (b) may also extend to:
a. Non-contiguous districts only
b. Foreign territories
c. Contiguous districts or parts thereof
d. Entire country compulsorily
30. The time within which members must remove themselves is:
a. Fixed by the High Court
b. Specified by the District Magistrate
c. Determined by the police station officer
d. Automatically thirty days
31. Section 5 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Restriction order
b. Security for good behaviour
c. Removal of persons about to commit offence
d. Appeals
32. Under Section 5(a), the District Magistrate may act where the movements or acts of a person are:
a. Helpful to administration
b. Causing or calculated to cause alarm, danger or harm
c. Related to civil litigation
d. Connected with trade licences
33. Under Section 5(b), the District Magistrate must have reasonable grounds for believing that the person is engaged or about to engage in:
a. Constitutional amendment
b. Commission or abetment of specified offences
c. Agricultural activities
d. Contractual negotiations
34. The offences referred to in Section 5(b) include offences punishable under:
a. Chapter XII, XVI or XVII of the Indian Penal Code
b. Civil Procedure Code only
c. Companies Act only
d. Constitution of India
35. Section 5 specifically mentions offences under Sections 506 and 509 of:
a. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
36. Under Section 5(b), witnesses may refuse to come forward publicly due to apprehension regarding:
a. Delay in proceedings
b. Financial loss only
c. Safety of their person or property
d. Political criticism
37. Under Section 5(c), action may be taken when continued residence of an immigrant is likely to result in:
a. Industrial dispute
b. Outbreak of epidemic disease
c. Revenue loss
d. Election violence
38. The order under Section 5 may be served:
a. Only personally
b. Only through registered post
c. In writing or by beat of drum or otherwise as the District Magistrate thinks fit
d. Only through newspaper publication
39. Under Section 5(a) after the order, the person may be directed:
a. To conduct himself so as to prevent violence and alarm
b. To transfer his property
c. To join government service
d. To close his business permanently
40. Under Section 5(b), the District Magistrate may direct the person:
a. To remove himself outside the district or specified area
b. To file a civil suit
c. To deposit security in High Court
d. To surrender citizenship
41. Section 6 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Restriction orders
b. Preventive detention
c. Removal of persons convicted of certain offences
d. Appeal procedure
42. Under Section 6(a)(i), a person convicted under Chapters XII, XVI or XVII of the Indian Penal Code may be removed by:
a. Civil Court
b. District Magistrate
c. Gram Panchayat
d. Lok Adalat
43. Section 6 specifically includes offences under Sections 506 and 509 of the:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Protection of Civil Rights Act
44. Conviction under which Act is specifically mentioned in Section 6(a)(ii)?
a. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
b. Arms Act, 1959
c. Forest Act, 1927
d. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
45. Under Section 6(b), removal may be ordered if a person has been convicted twice under:
a. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
b. Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls Act, 1956
c. Juvenile Justice Act
d. Essential Commodities Act
46. Under Section 6(c), a person may be removed if convicted thrice within three years under:
a. Companies Act
b. Public Gambling Act, 1867
c. Indian Succession Act
d. Arbitration Act
47. Section 6(c) refers to offences under Sections 3, 4 and:
a. 4-B
b. 5
c. 4-A
d. 6
48. Before passing an order under Section 6, the District Magistrate must believe that the person is likely again to:
a. Contest elections
b. Engage in commission of similar offences
c. File civil litigation
d. Change residence permanently
49. Under Section 6, the District Magistrate may direct the person:
a. To remove himself outside the district or specified area
b. To surrender all movable property
c. To resign from employment
d. To undergo compulsory training
50. An order under Section 6 may prohibit the person from:
a. Opening bank accounts
b. Entering or returning to the specified district or area
c. Travelling abroad
d. Participating in elections
51. The Explanation following Section 6 defines the expression:
a. Public order
b. Restriction order
c. An offence similar to that for which he was convicted
d. Epidemic disease
52. Under the Explanation to Section 6, in the case of clause (a), a similar offence includes an offence falling under:
a. Any municipal law
b. The Chapters or Sections of the Indian Penal Code mentioned in clause (a)
c. Only civil laws
d. Constitutional provisions
53. The Explanation to Section 6 also includes offences under the Act mentioned in:
a. Clause (b)
b. Clause (c)
c. Sub-clause (ii) of clause (a)
d. Explanation only
54. In the case of offences mentioned in clauses (b) and (c), a similar offence means an offence under:
a. Any Central Act
b. The respective Acts mentioned in those clauses
c. Revenue laws only
d. Local municipal laws
55. Section 7 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Penalties
c. Period of operation of orders under Sections 4, 5 or 6
d. Arrest without warrant
56. Section 7 applies to directions made under:
a. Sections 1 and 2
b. Sections 3 and 4 only
c. Sections 4, 5 or 6
d. Section 10 only
57. Under Section 7, the direction relates to:
a. Recovery of compensation
b. Not entering any district or specified area
c. Suspension of licences
d. Confiscation of property
58. The period of operation of a direction under Section 7:
a. Must always be six months
b. Is permanent
c. Shall be such period as may be specified therein
d. Cannot be specified in the order
59. Under Section 7, the maximum duration of such direction shall not exceed:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Two years
d. One year from the date of the order
60. The period limitation under Section 7 is calculated from the date on which the direction:
a. Was challenged in court
b. Was made
c. Was published in newspaper
d. Was approved by the State Government
61. Section 8 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Hearing before passing orders under Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6
c. Arrest without warrant
d. Penalties
62. Before passing an order under Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6, the District Magistrate shall:
a. Arrest the person immediately
b. Inform the person in writing of the general nature of material allegations
c. Obtain permission from the High Court
d. Publish allegations in newspaper
63. Under Section 8(1), the person concerned must be given:
a. Compensation
b. Government employment
c. Reasonable opportunity of tendering explanation
d. Permanent exemption
64. Under Section 8(2), the District Magistrate shall examine witnesses produced by the person:
a. In every case without exception
b. Only after State Government approval
c. Unless the application is for vexation or delay
d. Only if police permits
65. If the District Magistrate refuses examination of witnesses under Section 8(2), he must:
a. Obtain court decree
b. Record reasons in writing
c. Take oral permission from police
d. Refer the matter to Governor
66. Under Section 8(3), any written statement submitted by the person shall:
a. Be destroyed after inquiry
b. Be sent to State Government only
c. Be filed with the record of the case
d. Be treated as confidential and excluded
67. Section 8(3) entitles the person to appear before the District Magistrate through:
a. Any family member
b. Any police officer
c. Any legal practitioner
d. Any government servant
68. Under Section 8(4), the District Magistrate may require the person:
a. To surrender all property
b. To execute a security bond with or without sureties
c. To deposit passport permanently
d. To leave India
69. The purpose of taking a security bond under Section 8(4) is:
a. Recovery of revenue
b. Securing attendance during inquiry
c. Payment of compensation
d. Grant of bail
70. Under Section 8(5), if the person fails to execute the bond or appear during inquiry, the District Magistrate may:
a. Close the proceedings permanently
b. Proceed with the inquiry ex parte
c. Transfer the matter to civil court
d. Grant automatic acquittal
71. Section 9 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Restriction order
b. Appeal
c. Penalty
d. Arrest
72. An appeal under Section 9 may be filed against an order passed under:
a. Sections 1 and 2 only
b. Sections 7 and 8 only
c. Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6
d. Section 10 only
73. An appeal under Section 9 lies to the:
a. High Court
b. Sessions Court
c. State Government
d. District Court
74. The period prescribed for filing an appeal under Section 9(1) is:
a. Fifteen days
b. Thirty days
c. Sixty days
d. Ninety days
75. The period of thirty days for appeal is calculated from:
a. Date of hearing
b. Date of arrest
c. Date of the order
d. Date of publication in Gazette
76. Section 9(1) provides that the appeal shall, as far as possible, be decided within:
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Four months from filing of appeal
d. One year
77. Under Section 9(2), the appeal shall be preferred in the form of:
a. Affidavit only
b. Memorandum setting forth concisely the grounds of objection
c. Oral application
d. Police report
78. An appeal under Section 9(2) must be accompanied by:
a. Copy of FIR
b. Security bond
c. Certified copy of the order appealed against
d. Witness list
79. Under Section 9(3), the State Government may:
a. Only confirm the order
b. Confirm, vary or rescind the order appealed against
c. Transfer the case to civil court only
d. Reopen criminal trial
80. Pending disposal of appeal under Section 9, the order appealed against:
a. Automatically stands cancelled
b. Remains in operation unless otherwise directed by the State Government
c. Remains suspended in every case
d. Becomes void after thirty days
81. Section 10 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Finality of orders passed in certain cases
c. Penalties
d. Bail provisions
82. Under Section 10, orders passed under which Sections attain finality?
a. Sections 1 and 2
b. Sections 7 and 8
c. Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6
d. Section 9 only
83. Section 10 provides that an order under Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6 shall not be called in question in:
a. Police station
b. Revenue office
c. Any Court
d. Gram Panchayat
84. An order may be challenged on the ground that the District Magistrate had not followed the procedure laid down in:
a. Section 7(1)
b. Section 8(1)
c. Section 9(2)
d. Section 10(1)
85. Under Section 10(ii), an order may be questioned if:
a. The person was unemployed
b. There was no material before the District Magistrate for passing the order
c. No appeal was filed
d. The order was not published in newspaper
86. Section 10 specifically refers to the material before:
a. Sessions Judge
b. Police Officer
c. District Magistrate
d. State Government
87. Under Section 10(iii), an order under Section 5 may be challenged if the District Magistrate was not of opinion that:
a. Witnesses were government servants
b. Witnesses were unwilling to come forward publicly
c. Witnesses had filed affidavits
d. Witnesses belonged to another district
88. The unwillingness of witnesses under Section 10(iii) must arise due to apprehension regarding:
a. Delay in trial
b. Loss of employment
c. Safety while giving evidence in public
d. Transfer of property
89. Section 10 limits judicial interference with orders passed under:
a. Preventive provisions of the Act
b. Civil decrees only
c. Taxation matters
d. Election disputes
90. Which of the following is NOT a ground mentioned in Section 10 for questioning an order?
a. Non-compliance with Section 8(1)
b. Absence of material before the District Magistrate
c. Lack of opinion regarding unwillingness of witnesses
d. Mere disagreement with findings of the District Magistrate
91. Section 11 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Finality of orders
c. Procedure on failure of person to leave the district and re-entry after removal
d. Rule-making power
92. Section 11 applies to directions issued under:
a. Sections 1 and 2
b. Sections 3 and 7
c. Sections 4, 5 or 6
d. Section 9 only
93. Under Section 11(i), action may be taken if the person:
a. Files an appeal
b. Fails to remove himself as directed
c. Changes residence voluntarily
d. Obtains legal advice
94. Under Section 11(ii), a person commits breach if after removal he enters the specified area:
a. With oral permission
b. With permission of police constable
c. Without written permission under Section 12
d. After filing appeal
95. The permission referred to in Section 11(ii) must be:
a. Oral permission
b. Permission by village headman
c. Permission in writing
d. Permission by relatives
96. Under Section 11, the authority empowered to act is the:
a. High Court
b. District Magistrate
c. Sessions Judge
d. Superintendent of Jail
97. If a person violates the direction under Section 11, the District Magistrate may cause him to be:
a. Released on probation
b. Arrested and removed in police custody
c. Tried by Panchayat
d. Detained permanently
98. The arrested person may be removed in police custody to:
a. Any foreign country
b. The nearest police station only
c. Such place outside the area as specified by the District Magistrate
d. Any prison chosen by the accused
99. Section 11 covers re-entry into:
a. Only the original district
b. Only contiguous districts
c. District, part thereof, or contiguous area from which removal was ordered
d. Any place within India
100. The prohibition on entry under Section 11 operates during:
a. Pendency of appeal only
b. Lifetime of the person
c. The period specified in the removal order
d. One month only
101. Section 12 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Finality of orders
b. Temporary permission to enter or return to the district
c. Appeals
d. Penalties
102. Under Section 12(1), temporary permission may be granted by:
a. High Court only
b. Sessions Court only
c. State Government or District Magistrate
d. Superintendent of Police only
103. Temporary permission under Section 12 may be granted to a person against whom an order has been made under:
a. Sections 1 and 2
b. Sections 4, 5 or 6
c. Section 9 only
d. Section 10 only
104. The permission under Section 12(1) must be:
a. Oral
b. Published in Gazette
c. In writing
d. Approved by court decree
105. Temporary permission under Section 12 may be subject to:
a. No conditions whatsoever
b. Such conditions as may be specified in the permission
c. Approval of Gram Panchayat
d. Payment of court fees only
106. Under Section 12(2), the temporary permission granted may be:
a. Made permanent automatically
b. Revoked at any time
c. Challenged only in High Court
d. Extended indefinitely
107. While granting permission under Section 12(3), the authority may require the person:
a. To surrender all property
b. To execute a bond with or without surety
c. To remain in jail custody
d. To file civil proceedings
108. A person permitted to enter or return under Section 12(4) must:
a. Ignore all imposed conditions
b. Observe the conditions imposed in the permission
c. Report only to police station daily
d. Stay permanently in the district
109. On expiry or revocation of temporary permission, the person shall:
a. Continue to reside permanently
b. Remove himself outside the specified area
c. Automatically obtain fresh permission
d. Be exempted from original order
110. Under Section 12(5), if the person violates conditions or re-enters without fresh permission, the District Magistrate may:
a. Grant compensation
b. Cause him to be arrested and removed in police custody
c. Cancel all criminal cases
d. Transfer him to another State permanently
111. Section 13 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Power of externment of State Government
c. Arrest without warrant
d. Penalties
112. Under Section 13(1), the powers exercisable by the District Magistrate under Sections 3, 4, 5 or 6 may also be exercised by:
a. High Court
b. State Government or specially empowered officer
c. Civil Judge
d. Gram Panchayat
113. The State Government or specially empowered officer may exercise powers under Section 13:
a. In unlike circumstances only
b. In like circumstances and in like manner
c. Only during emergency
d. Only after court permission
114. Under Section 13(1), the State Government may direct persons to remove themselves from:
a. Only contiguous districts
b. Only one district
c. Any district or districts whether contiguous or not
d. Foreign territories only
115. Section 13(2) makes applicable to proceedings under Section 13 the provisions of:
a. Sections 7, 8, 10, 11 and 12
b. Sections 1 and 2 only
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Indian Evidence Act
116. Section 9 relating to appeal applies under Section 13(2) when the order is passed by:
a. State Government itself
b. Supreme Court
c. Officer specially empowered by the State Government
d. Collector only
117. The expression “mutatis mutandis” in Section 13(2) indicates that the provisions shall apply:
a. Without any change
b. With necessary modifications
c. Only after notification
d. Temporarily
118. Under Section 13(3), the State Government may review an order passed by itself:
a. Only on court direction
b. Only on police recommendation
c. On its own motion or on application of aggrieved person
d. Only after one year
119. Before varying or reversing an order under the proviso to Section 13(3), the State Government must:
a. Obtain Governor’s assent
b. Give notice and opportunity of hearing to the concerned person
c. Publish notice in newspaper only
d. Consult District Magistrate compulsorily
120. Under Section 13(3), upon review the State Government may:
a. Pass such order as it thinks fit
b. Only confirm the earlier order
c. Transfer the case to civil court
d. Grant automatic compensation
121. Section 14 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 provides penalty for contravention of directions issued under:
a. Sections 1 and 2 only
b. Sections 3, 4, 5, 6 or 13
c. Section 9 only
d. Civil Procedure Code
122. Under Section 14, a person is punishable if he:
a. Files an appeal
b. Opposes, disobeys or fails to conform to a direction
c. Applies for temporary permission
d. Appears before District Magistrate
123. Section 14 also punishes a person who:
a. Withdraws an appeal
b. Abets opposition or disobedience of any direction
c. Refuses legal representation
d. Applies for certified copy
124. The maximum imprisonment under Section 14 may extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
125. Under Section 14, the minimum imprisonment ordinarily prescribed is:
a. One month
b. Four months
c. Six months
d. One year
126. A sentence of imprisonment less than the minimum prescribed under Section 14 can be awarded only:
a. By order of State Government
b. With consent of accused
c. For reasons recorded in writing
d. After appeal
127. In addition to imprisonment under Section 14, the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Deportation only
b. Fine
c. Community service only
d. Property attachment only
128. Section 15 deals with penalty for:
a. Failure to appeal
b. Entering without permission after removal
c. Refusal to furnish security
d. False evidence
129. Under Section 15(a), a person commits an offence if he enters or returns without permission to the area from which he:
a. Voluntarily departed
b. Was directed to remove himself
c. Purchased property
d. Conducted business
130. Under Section 15, the punishment may extend to:
a. Six months imprisonment only
b. One year imprisonment only
c. Three years imprisonment and fine
d. Life imprisonment
131. Section 16 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Presumption in prosecutions for contravention of orders or directions
c. Temporary permission
d. Rule-making power
132. Section 16 applies to prosecutions for contravention of:
a. Civil decrees only
b. Orders under Section 3 or directions under Sections 4, 5, 6 or 13
c. Orders under Section 9 only
d. Revenue proceedings
133. Under Section 16, presumption arises on production of:
a. Oral statement
b. FIR copy
c. Authentic copy of the order
d. Newspaper publication
134. The presumption under Section 16 operates:
a. Only if approved by court
b. Until the contrary is proved
c. For six months only
d. Only in civil proceedings
135. Under Section 16, the burden of proving the contrary lies on:
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Prosecution
d. Accused
136. Clause (a) of Section 16 presumes that the order was made by:
a. Competent authority under the Act
b. Any police officer
c. Gram Panchayat
d. Civil Court
137. Section 16(a) specifically mentions a Sub-Divisional Magistrate empowered by the State Government under:
a. Section 8
b. Section 10
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
138. Under Section 16(b), it shall be presumed that the authority was satisfied that:
a. The accused admitted guilt
b. The grounds and necessity for making the order existed
c. Witnesses appeared voluntarily
d. Appeal had been rejected
139. Clause (c) of Section 16 creates a presumption that the order was:
a. Temporary only
b. Approved by High Court
c. Valid and in conformity with the Act
d. Published in Gazette
140. Section 16 begins with the expression:
a. Subject to the Constitution
b. Without prejudice to appeal
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the time being in force
d. Save as otherwise provided
141. Section 17 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeal
b. Forfeiture of bond
c. Review of orders
d. Arrest without warrant
142. Section 17 applies to a person permitted under:
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 9(2)
c. Section 12(1)
d. Section 18
143. Under Section 17, the bond may be forfeited if the person fails to observe:
a. Revenue conditions only
b. Conditions imposed under Section 12 or bond conditions
c. Conditions imposed by civil court
d. Election rules
144. The bond referred to in Section 17 is entered into under:
a. Section 12(3)
b. Section 8(4)
c. Section 9(1)
d. Section 18
145. Upon forfeiture under Section 17, the person bound by the bond shall:
a. Automatically stand acquitted
b. Pay the penalty thereof or show cause
c. Be permanently externed
d. File appeal before High Court only
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