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MP Govansh Vadh Pratishedh Adhiniyam MCQs
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1. The Madhya Pradesh Govansh Vadh Pratishedh Adhiniyam, 2004 was enacted in the:
a. 45th year of Republic of India
b. 50th year of Republic of India
c. 55th year of Republic of India
d. 60th year of Republic of India
2. The Act received the assent of the Governor on:
a. 26th March, 2004
b. 20th March, 2004
c. 1st April, 2004
d. 15th March, 2004
3. The Act was first published in which Gazette?
a. Official Gazette of India
b. Madhya Pradesh Gazette (Extra-ordinary)
c. Supreme Court Gazette
d. Parliament Gazette
4. The main purpose of the Act is:
a. Promotion of animal trade
b. Prohibition of slaughter of cow progeny
c. Regulation of agriculture loans
d. Control of wildlife tourism
5. The Act is intended to maintain:
a. Economic development only
b. Communal harmony and peace
c. Industrial growth
d. Foreign relations
6. The Act provides for preservation and conservation of:
a. Forest animals
b. Cow progeny
c. Marine life
d. Poultry birds
7. The Act extends to:
a. Selected districts of Madhya Pradesh
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of the State of Madhya Pradesh
d. Urban areas only
8. The Act comes into force from:
a. Date of passing in Assembly
b. Date of President’s assent
c. Date of publication in Madhya Pradesh Gazette
d. Date of Supreme Court approval
9. The legislation is mainly concerned with:
a. Education policy
b. Cow progeny protection
c. Banking regulation
d. Industrial licensing
10. The Act is enacted by:
a. Parliament of India
b. Madhya Pradesh Legislature
c. Supreme Court
d. Governor alone
11. The Act falls under which type of law?
a. Taxation law
b. Animal protection law
c. Constitutional amendment
d. Corporate law
12. The Act mentions matters connected with or:
a. Independent policies
b. Incidental thereto
c. Foreign treaties
d. Trade agreements
13. The publication of the Act in Gazette is necessary for:
a. Enforcement
b. Political approval
c. Budget allocation
d. International recognition
14. The Act was passed in the year:
a. 2001
b. 2003
c. 2004
d. 2005
15. The Act specifically prohibits:
a. Fishing
b. Cow progeny slaughter
c. Poultry farming
d. Goat rearing
16. Under the Act, “beef” means:
a. Meat of buffalo
b. Flesh of cow progeny whose slaughter is prohibited under the Act
c. Meat of goat
d. Meat of sheep
17. “Cow progeny” includes:
a. Only cows
b. Cows, bulls, bullocks and calves of cows
c. Only bulls and bullocks
d. Only calves
18. A “Competent Authority” is appointed by:
a. Central Government
b. Supreme Court
c. State Government by notification
d. District Court
19. The Competent Authority performs functions under:
a. Criminal Procedure Code only
b. This Act in a specified local area
c. Income Tax Act
d. Police Manual only
20. An “institution” under the Act is mainly:
a. A private trading company
b. A registered charitable institution for cow progeny care
c. A banking institution
d. A school or college
21. Institutions under the Act may be established for:
a. Industrial production
b. Keeping and maintaining cow progeny
c. Mining activities
d. Transport business
22. Such institutions also provide:
a. Entertainment services
b. Care and treatment of infirm and aged cow progeny
c. Tax collection
d. Import-export services
23. “Slaughter” under the Act means:
a. Only killing by poisoning
b. Killing by any method whatsoever
c. Only ritual killing
d. Killing for medical research only
24. “Slaughter” includes:
a. Feeding animals
b. Maiming or injuring likely to cause death
c. Vaccination
d. Grooming cattle
25. Slaughter also includes acts done with intention of:
a. Growth of animal
b. Natural death
c. Causing unnatural death
d. Training animals
26. “Transport” of cow progeny means:
a. Only air transport
b. Carrying cow progeny from one place to another
c. Only selling cattle
d. Only feeding cattle
27. Transport may be done:
a. Only by rail
b. By vehicle or on foot
c. Only by air
d. Only by water
28. Transport of cow progeny is excepted when it is for:
a. Entertainment purposes
b. Bonafide agricultural or ancillary purposes
c. Slaughter purposes
d. Export purposes
29. The definition of “beef” is linked to:
a. Any animal meat
b. Cow progeny slaughter prohibition
c. Poultry meat
d. Fish meat
30. The term “institution” focuses mainly on:
a. Commercial trade
b. Welfare and protection of cow progeny
c. Banking services
d. Industrial development
31. Under Section 6, transport of cow progeny for slaughter is:
a. Allowed with permission
b. Prohibited
c. Allowed for trade
d. Encouraged
32. Section 6 prohibits transport of cow progeny for slaughter:
a. Only within village limits
b. Only within city limits
c. Within the State or outside the State
d. Only outside India
33. Under Section 6, cow progeny cannot be transported for slaughter if:
a. It is for dairy use
b. It is likely to be slaughtered in contravention of the Act
c. It is for agriculture
d. It is for grazing
34. Section 6 applies to transport by:
a. Only owner
b. Only government officers
c. Transporter, agent, servant or any person acting on behalf
d. Only police
35. The prohibition under Section 6 includes:
a. Only selling cattle
b. Offering or causing transport of cow progeny for slaughter
c. Feeding cattle
d. Veterinary treatment
36. Section 6A deals with:
a. Slaughter licensing
b. Export of cow progeny and permit system
c. Milk production
d. Veterinary education
37. Under Section 6A, export of cow progeny without permit is:
a. Allowed
b. Required
c. Prohibited
d. Optional
38. The Competent Authority may grant export permit within:
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 15 days
39. Export permit under Section 6A may be granted for:
a. Slaughter purposes
b. Agricultural or dairy farming purposes
c. Industrial use
d. Meat export
40. Export of cow progeny is also allowed for:
a. Gambling fairs
b. Cattle fairs and like purposes
c. Mining work
d. Tourism only
41. Export permit is NOT granted for:
a. Dairy farming
b. Agricultural use
c. Slaughter purposes
d. Cattle fairs
42. An aggrieved person under Section 6A(3) may appeal to:
a. District Court
b. High Court directly
c. Divisional Commissioner
d. Police Commissioner
43. Appeal under Section 6A must be filed within:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
44. The Divisional Commissioner has the power to:
a. Create new laws
b. Review correctness, legality or propriety of order
c. Cancel the Act
d. Issue police FIR
45. The order of the Divisional Commissioner under Section 6A is:
a. Temporary
b. Appealable in court
c. Final and not challengeable in civil court
d. Advisory only
46. Under Section 6B, transporting cow progeny via Madhya Pradesh is:
a. Allowed without restriction
b. Prohibited unless transit permit is obtained
c. Fully encouraged
d. Allowed only at night
47. A transit permit under Section 6B is required when:
a. Moving cattle within a village
b. Transporting cow progeny from one State to another via Madhya Pradesh
c. Selling milk
d. Keeping cattle in farms
48. Transit permit for cow progeny is granted by:
a. Police Department
b. District Court
c. Competent Authority
d. Transport Ministry
49. Section 6B applies to:
a. Only farmers
b. Only transporters
c. Any person including transporter
d. Only government officials
50. The main purpose of Section 6B is to regulate:
a. Milk trade
b. Inter-State transit of cow progeny
c. Agricultural loans
d. Fishing activities
51. Under Section 7, the State Government shall take steps for:
a. Export promotion
b. Strengthening institutions engaged in cow progeny welfare
c. Industrial development
d. Tourism development
52. Institutions under Section 7 are mainly engaged in:
a. Banking activities
b. Welfare activities of cow progeny
c. Mining operations
d. Education policy
53. The responsibility under Section 7 lies with:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Private agencies only
54. Section 8 deals with:
a. Penalties for slaughter
b. Levy of charges for care of cow progeny
c. Export rules
d. Transport licensing
55. Charges under Section 8 are levied for:
a. Trade tax
b. Care and maintenance of infirm, aged and diseased cow progeny
c. Import duty
d. Vehicle registration
56. Charges under Section 8 are levied by:
a. Police officer
b. Institution in-charge
c. Court
d. Transporter
57. Charges under Section 8 are payable by:
a. Government only
b. Owners of cow progeny
c. Foreign companies
d. Passengers
58. Section 6B specifically relates to:
a. Slaughter control
b. Transit movement through the State
c. Veterinary education
d. Dairy pricing
59. Without transit permit under Section 6B, transport via Madhya Pradesh is:
a. Allowed
b. Restricted
c. Prohibited
d. Optional
60. The objective of Sections 7 and 8 is mainly to:
a. Promote trade in cattle meat
b. Support welfare and maintenance of cow progeny institutions
c. Reduce milk production
d. Increase exports
61. Under Section 9(1), contravention of Section 4 is punishable with:
a. Imprisonment up to 6 months only
b. Imprisonment not less than 1 year up to 7 years and fine
c. Only fine without imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
62. Minimum punishment for violation of Section 4 is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
63. Fine for contravention of Section 4 shall not be less than:
a. ₹1,000
b. ₹2,000
c. ₹5,000
d. ₹10,000
64. Under Section 9(2), Sections 5, 6, 6A and 6B violations are punishable with:
a. Death penalty
b. Imprisonment up to 10 years
c. Imprisonment 6 months to 3 years with fine
d. Only warning
65. Minimum imprisonment under Section 9(2) is:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
66. Maximum imprisonment under Section 9(2) is:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
67. Offences under this Act are:
a. Bailable and non-cognizable
b. Cognizable and non-bailable
c. Non-cognizable and bailable
d. Civil offences only
68. The Act states offences are cognizable and non-bailable notwithstanding:
a. Indian Evidence Act
b. Code of Civil Procedure
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Constitution of India
69. Under Section 11, power of entry is given to:
a. Only police officers
b. Competent Authority or authorized person
c. Only Magistrate
d. Only veterinary doctors
70. Entry and inspection can be made when there is:
a. Routine survey only
b. Reason to believe offence is committed or likely
c. Political order
d. Public festival
71. Competent Authority may inspect:
a. Only government offices
b. Any premises within jurisdiction
c. Only farms
d. Only transport offices
72. Occupants of premises must:
a. Refuse entry
b. Allow access and cooperate
c. Leave premises immediately
d. Contact media only
73. Occupants must answer questions:
a. Only in writing
b. To the best of knowledge and belief
c. Only through lawyer
d. Not required to answer
74. Authorized officers can be:
a. Only judges
b. Persons authorized in writing by Competent Authority
c. Only transporters
d. Only farmers
75. Main purpose of Section 11 is:
a. Revenue collection
b. Enforcement of the Act through inspection and seizure
c. Promotion of trade
d. Licensing of vehicles
76. Police officer empowered under Section 11(3) must be:
a. Constable or above
b. Head Constable or above
c. Sub-Inspector or above
d. Inspector only
77. Search of vehicle under Section 11(3) can be done when:
a. There is routine checking
b. For securing compliance of Sections 4, 5, 6A and 6B
c. For tax collection
d. For traffic rules only
78. Police may stop, enter and search:
a. Any residential house
b. Any vehicle used or intended for export of cow progeny or beef
c. Only government vehicles
d. Only buses
79. Under Section 11(3), police can seize:
a. Only documents
b. Cow progeny and vehicle suspected of violation
c. Only cash
d. Only driver license
80. Seizure is allowed when officer suspects contravention of:
a. Traffic rules
b. Sections 4, 5, 6, 6A and 6B
c. Tax laws only
d. Labour laws
81. After seizure, the officer must ensure:
a. Immediate release
b. Safe custody and production in court
c. Sale of cattle
d. Destruction of vehicle
82. Section 11(4) applies provisions of:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Section 100 of CrPC
c. Indian Penal Code only
d. Motor Vehicles Act
83. Search and seizure procedure under Section 11 follows:
a. Only local customs
b. CrPC Section 100 “as far as may be”
c. No procedure required
d. Police manual only
84. Under Section 11(5), in case of violation, police may seize:
a. Only documents
b. Vehicle, cow progeny and beef
c. Only driver
d. Only money
85. Confiscation of seized property is done by:
a. Police Inspector
b. District Magistrate
c. Veterinary Officer
d. Transport officer
86. Confiscation under the Act is done:
a. Automatically by police
b. In such manner as may be prescribed
c. By private agencies
d. By court only
87. The purpose of Section 11(3) powers is:
a. Tax inspection
b. Ensuring compliance of Sections 4, 5, 6A and 6B
c. Railway regulation
d. Land acquisition
88. The officer may act on:
a. Personal opinion only
b. Suspicion of violation
c. Political instruction
d. Public demand only
89. Seized animals must be produced:
a. In police station only
b. In court for safe custody
c. In market yard
d. In village panchayat
90. Section 11 mainly strengthens:
a. Trade promotion
b. Enforcement mechanism of the Act
c. Education system
d. Banking system
91. An appeal against an order of confiscation is made to:
a. District Magistrate
b. High Court
c. Divisional Commissioner
d. Supreme Court
92. The time limit for filing appeal under Section 11A is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
93. If the order is not communicated, limitation starts from:
a. Date of seizure
b. Date of knowledge of order
c. Date of FIR
d. Date of transport
94. Appeal under Section 11A must be:
a. Oral
b. Written
c. Telephonic
d. Through police only
95. Appeal must be accompanied by:
a. Witness list only
b. Certified copy of confiscation order and prescribed fee
c. FIR copy only
d. Vehicle registration only
96. The appellate authority under Section 11A is:
a. Police Superintendent
b. District Court Judge
c. Divisional Commissioner
d. Collector only
97. While computing 30 days, excluded time is:
a. Travel time
b. Time spent in investigation
c. Time for obtaining certified copy of order
d. Holiday period only
98. After receiving appeal, the Appellate Authority shall:
a. Reject it immediately
b. Issue notice for hearing
c. Transfer to police station
d. Ignore it
99. Notice of hearing is issued to:
a. Only appellant
b. Seizing officer and affected persons
c. Only court
d. Only government
100. The Appellate Authority can call for:
a. Medical report
b. Case record
c. Weather report
d. Bank statement
101. The appeal relates to orders under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 11(5) confiscation
c. Section 4 only
d. Section 3 only
102. Purpose of Section 11A is:
a. Increase penalties
b. Provide appellate remedy against confiscation
c. Promote cattle trade
d. Regulate transport fares
103. The appeal must include:
a. Oral statement
b. Certified copy of confiscation order
c. Police permission letter
d. Veterinary certificate
104. The Appellate Authority may issue notice to:
a. Only complainant
b. Any person likely to be affected
c. Only transporter
d. Only farmer
105. Section 11A ensures:
a. No judicial review
b. Due process and appeal against confiscation
c. Faster trade of cattle
d. Tax collection mechanism
106. The Appellate Authority shall send intimation of appeal in writing to:
a. Supreme Court
b. District Collector
c. State Government only
d. Police Head Constable
107. The Appellate Authority may pass interim orders regarding:
a. Tax assessment
b. Custody or disposal of confiscated property
c. Criminal conviction
d. Licensing of vehicles
108. Interim orders can be passed when:
a. Always mandatory
b. Just or proper in circumstances of the case
c. Only on request of police
d. Only after trial
109. The Appellate Authority may allow parties to be represented by:
a. Only police officers
b. Legal practitioners
c. Only government officers
d. No one
110. Representation by legal practitioners is allowed depending on:
a. Nature and complexity of the case
b. Weather conditions
c. Vehicle type
d. State budget
111. The Appellate Authority may hear parties:
a. Only through police
b. In person or through authorized agent
c. Only in writing
d. Only via email
112. The Appellate Authority can pass final orders of:
a. Only confirmation
b. Confirmation, reversal or modification
c. Only rejection
d. Only transfer
113. Before passing final order, the Appellate Authority may:
a. Skip enquiry
b. Conduct further enquiry itself or through District Collector
c. Delegate to transporter
d. Close case automatically
114. The Appellate Authority may allow evidence by:
a. Oral statements only
b. Affidavits
c. Newspapers
d. Social media posts
115. Affidavits may be used for:
a. Payment of fines
b. Proving or refuting facts
c. Vehicle registration
d. Transport permits
116. The Appellate Authority may pass:
a. Only criminal judgments
b. Consequential orders
c. Tax orders
d. Employment orders
117. Copy of final order shall be sent to:
a. Supreme Court
b. District Collector
c. Transport Authority
d. Police Station only
118. District Collector receives order for:
a. Ignoring it
b. Compliance or passing appropriate order
c. Appeal rejection
d. FIR registration only
119. Interim orders relate to:
a. Criminal sentencing
b. Custody or disposal of confiscated subject matter
c. Election disputes
d. Banking disputes
120. Main purpose of Section 11A procedure is:
a. Speed up trade
b. Ensure fair appellate review of confiscation orders
c. Increase taxation
d. Reduce legal rights
121. Under Section 13, revision against order of Appellate Authority is filed before:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Court of Sessions
d. District Magistrate
122. Revision under Section 11B lies against:
a. FIR order only
b. Final order or consequential order of Appellate Authority
c. Police seizure only
d. Veterinary report
123. Revision application must be filed within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
124. The Court of Sessions for revision is located where:
a. District Court headquarters
b. Headquarter of Appellate Authority’s Sessions division
c. State capital only
d. Police headquarters
125. While computing limitation period under Section 11B, excluded time is:
a. Travel time
b. Time for investigation
c. Time required to obtain certified copy
d. Holiday time
126. Section 11B provides remedy of:
a. Appeal
b. Revision
c. Review by police
d. Arbitration
127. Section 12 empowers State Government to make rules for:
a. Tax collection
b. Economic rehabilitation of affected persons
c. Criminal punishment
d. Export promotion
128. Rehabilitation under Section 12 is intended for:
a. Transport companies
b. Persons directly affected by the Act
c. Foreign traders
d. Veterinary officers
129. The responsibility to frame rehabilitation rules lies with:
a. District Collector
b. State Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Police Department
130. Section 12A relates to:
a. Export permits
b. Maintenance of seized cow progeny
c. Transport licensing
d. Appeal procedure
131. Maintenance of seized cow progeny is ensured by:
a. Private traders
b. State Government
c. Transporters
d. Courts only
132. The objective of Section 12A is:
a. Sell seized cattle
b. Ensure feeding and care of seized cow progeny
c. Export cattle
d. Increase fines
133. Revision under Section 11B is filed in:
a. Police station
b. Court of Sessions
c. High Court directly
d. District Collector office
134. The remedy under Section 11B is available to:
a. Only government officers
b. Any party aggrieved by Appellate Authority’s order
c. Only police
d. Only transporters
135. Main purpose of Sections 11B, 12 & 12A is to ensure:
a. Faster trade of cattle
b. Judicial review, rehabilitation, and animal welfare
c. Increase exports
d. Reduce penalties
136. Under Section 13, legal proceedings can be initiated against a person for actions:
a. Done in personal capacity only
b. Done in good faith under the Act or rules
c. Done for private trade only
d. Done outside the State only
137. Protection under Section 13 is given for acts:
a. Done illegally
b. Done maliciously
c. Done in good faith under the Act
d. Done for profit only
138. Section 13 primarily provides:
a. Punishment provisions
b. Immunity from legal proceedings for good faith actions
c. Appeal procedure
d. Licensing system
139. The immunity under Section 13 applies to:
a. Only police officers
b. Any person acting under the Act or rules
c. Only government ministers
d. Only courts
140. Section 14 relates to:
a. Export of cattle
b. Burden of proof on accused
c. Appointment of officers
d. Tax collection
141. Under Section 14, burden of proof lies on:
a. Prosecution only
b. Accused in certain cases
c. Government always
d. Witnesses
142. The accused must prove:
a. His income
b. That he has not contravened provisions of the Act or rules
c. Ownership of vehicle
d. Veterinary certificate
143. The burden of proof under Section 14 is:
a. On complainant only
b. On accused in first instance
c. On court
d. On police station
144. Section 14 is an example of:
a. Strict liability shift of burden
b. Tax law provision
c. Contract law rule
d. Civil procedure rule
145. Section 13 protects acts done:
a. In bad faith
b. In good faith
c. In illegal trade
d. In fraud
146. The phrase “good faith” means:
a. Intent to cheat
b. Honest intention without negligence
c. Profit motive
d. Illegal activity
147. Section 14 applies when a person is:
a. Not prosecuted
b. Prosecuted under provisions of the Act
c. Only fined administratively
d. Acting as witness
148. The legal effect of Section 13 is:
a. Creates offence
b. Bars legal proceedings for good faith acts
c. Increases punishment
d. Creates appeal right
149. Burden of proof under Section 14 is:
a. Always on police
b. Reversed in certain cases to accused
c. Always on court
d. Always on witness
150. Sections 13 and 14 together aim to:
a. Reduce enforcement
b. Protect officials and ensure strict compliance proof rules
c. Promote trade
d. Reduce penalties
151. Under Section 15, persons exercising powers under the Act are deemed:
a. Private agents
b. Public servants
c. Contractors
d. Transporters only
152. Veterinary Officers and other authorities under the Act are treated as:
a. Business partners
b. Public servants under IPC
c. Private individuals
d. Court officials only
153. The term “public servant” under Section 15 is defined with reference to:
a. Code of Civil Procedure
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Motor Vehicles Act
d. CrPC only
154. Section 16 provides that the provisions of this Act shall:
a. Override only local rules
b. Have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent in other laws
c. Apply only in rural areas
d. Be optional in application
155. In case of conflict, the Act will:
a. Be ignored
b. Prevail over inconsistent laws
c. Be suspended
d. Apply only partially
156. Section 17 empowers the State Government to:
a. Create courts
b. Make rules to carry out the purposes of the Act
c. Cancel punishments
d. Conduct trials
157. Rules made under Section 17 must be:
a. Secret
b. Published
c. Oral only
d. Optional
158. After publication, rules must be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. Legislative Assembly
c. High Court
d. District Court
159. Section 17 rules may come into effect from:
a. Date of arrest
b. Date of notification or specified date
c. Date of trial
d. Date of appeal only
160. Section 18 relates to:
a. Export permits
b. Repeal of earlier ordinance/adaptation law
c. Appeal system
d. Transport regulation
161. The Act repeals:
a. Banking laws
b. Earlier Madhya Pradesh Ordinance, 2004 (if mentioned)
c. Indian Penal Code
d. CrPC
162. The main purpose of Section 16 is:
a. Create new offences
b. Give overriding effect to the Act
c. Reduce penalties
d. Provide appeal remedy
163. The effect of declaring officers as public servants is:
a. No responsibility
b. Legal protection and accountability under IPC
c. Tax exemption
d. Immunity from all laws
164. Rule-making power under Section 17 lies with:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Police Officer
d. Transport Authority
165. Overall purpose of Sections 15–18 is to:
a. Limit enforcement
b. Ensure legal authority, rule-making, and overriding effect of the Act
c. Promote trade
d. Reduce jurisdiction of courts
166. The repeal clause generally provides that:
a. All past actions become invalid
b. Earlier law is completely erased including past effects
c. Repeal does not affect past operation of the repealed law
d. All cases are automatically closed
167. Under the saving clause, repeal does NOT affect:
a. Future laws only
b. Previous operation of the repealed law
c. New legislation only
d. Only criminal trials
168. Anything done or suffered under the repealed law is:
a. Automatically cancelled
b. Protected and remains valid
c. Converted into civil offence
d. Sent for review
169. Penalty incurred under the repealed law:
a. Becomes void automatically
b. Is protected and remains enforceable
c. Is reduced by half
d. Is transferred to new law
170. Investigation or legal proceedings under the repealed law:
a. Must be stopped immediately
b. May be instituted, continued or enforced
c. Are restarted under new law only
d. Become invalid always
171. Remedy in respect of penalty under repealed law:
a. Cannot be taken
b. May still be enforced
c. Becomes optional
d. Is ignored
172. The saving clause ensures that proceedings continue:
a. As if new Act never existed
b. As if the repealed law had not been passed
c. Only in civil cases
d. Only for future cases
173. The purpose of a repeal & saving clause is:
a. To delete all past records
b. To preserve legal continuity
c. To cancel punishments
d. To stop enforcement
174. Under the clause, punishment for past offences:
a. Cannot be imposed
b. May still be imposed
c. Is always reduced
d. Is transferred to civil court
175. Legal proceedings under repealed law:
a. Must start fresh under new Act only
b. May continue as if Act had not been passed
c. Are automatically dismissed
d. Become unconstitutional
176. The phrase “as if this Act had not been passed” means:
a. The Act is invalid
b. Old law continues for past matters
c. New law applies retrospectively
d. Courts lose jurisdiction
177. The saving clause mainly protects:
a. Future offenders only
b. Past rights, liabilities, and proceedings
c. Only government officers
d. Only transporters
178. Repeal of the Ordinance generally means:
a. Immediate erasure of all legal effects
b. Replacement by the Act with continuity provisions
c. No change in law
d. Only administrative change
179. The clause ensures that pending cases are:
a. Closed permanently
b. Continued under old law framework
c. Converted into civil suits only
d. Transferred to international court
180. The overall objective of the repeal & saving provision is:
a. Create confusion in law
b. Ensure smooth transition and legal continuity
c. Cancel enforcement powers
d. Remove all penalties
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