MP Excise Act MCQs Set-5

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1. Under Section 58, CrPC provisions apply:

a. Fully without exception

b. As far as may be, unless otherwise expressly provided in the Act

c. Only with High Court permission

d. Only in civil proceedings

2. Section 58 mainly incorporates:

a. Civil law procedure

b. Criminal procedure safeguards and processes into Excise proceedings

c. Revenue tribunal rules

d. Constitutional remedies

3. Under Section 59(1), offences under the Act are generally:

a. Non-bailable

b. Cognizable only

c. Bailable except those specified in Section 59-A

d. Compoundable only

4. Section 59 refers to bailability within the meaning of:

a. Indian Penal Code

b. Civil Procedure Code

c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

d. Evidence Act

5. Under Section 59(2), a person arrested without warrant shall be produced before:

a. Supreme Court

b. Nearest Excise Officer authorized to grant bail or nearest police station officer

c. Only Collector

d. Only Magistrate

6. Under Section 59(2), forwarding shall be made to whichever authority is:

a. Senior most

b. Available next day

c. Nearer

d. Appointed by accused

7. Under Section 59(3), if arrested person is prepared to give bail:

a. He must remain in custody

b. He shall be released on bail

c. Bail cannot be granted

d. Only court can release him

8. Under Section 59(3), officer may release person:

a. Only on cash payment

b. Only after trial

c. On bail or on his own bond at officer’s discretion

d. Only with Collector approval

9. Section 59-A of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Cognizable offences

b. Certain offences to be non-bailable

c. Compounding of offences

d. Search procedure

10. Section 59-A begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:

a. Indian Penal Code only

b. Evidence Act only

c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and Section 59 of the Act

d. Constitution of India

11. Under Section 59-A(i), anticipatory bail is barred in respect of offences punishable under:

a. Section 36

b. Section 49-A

c. Section 61

d. Section 52

12. Anticipatory bail under Section 59-A(i) cannot be entertained by:

a. Excise Officer

b. Police Officer

c. Any Court

d. District Magistrate only

13. Under Section 59-A(i), the restriction on anticipatory bail for offences under Section 34 applies when the quantity of liquor exceeds:

a. 10 bulk litres

b. 25 bulk litres

c. 50 bulk litres

d. 100 bulk litres

14. The restriction under Section 59-A(i) applies to a person:

a. Holding a valid licence under the Act

b. Acting under court order

c. Not being a person holding a licence under the Act or rules

d. Below 18 years

15. Which clauses of Section 34(1) are specifically referred to in Section 59-A?

a. Clauses (c) and (d)

b. Clauses (a) and (b)

c. Clauses (e) and (f)

d. All clauses

16. Section 59-A(ii) provides that certain accused persons:

a. Shall always be released on bail

b. Shall not be released on bail or on own bond except under specified conditions

c. Can be released only by Excise Commissioner

d. Are entitled to automatic anticipatory bail

17. Before granting bail under Section 59-A(ii), the Court must give opportunity to:

a. Complainant

b. District Magistrate

c. Public Prosecutor

d. Excise Commissioner

18. If the Public Prosecutor opposes the bail application under Section 59-A(ii), bail can be granted only when the Court is satisfied that:

a. The accused is poor

b. The accused is a first offender

c. There are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and not likely to commit offence while on bail

d. Investigation is complete

19. Under Section 59-A(ii), the Court must be satisfied that the accused is:

a. A government servant

b. Not guilty and not likely to commit offence while on bail

c. Ready to confess guilt

d. Below 21 years

20. Section 59-A(ii) imposes restrictions on:

a. Conviction

b. Appeal

c. Grant of bail

d. Investigation only

21. The proviso to Section 59-A limits detention during investigation for offences under Section 34(1)(a) or (b) to:

a. 15 days

b. 30 days

c. 60 days

d. 180 days

22. The proviso further provides that for offences under Section 49-A, detention during investigation may extend up to:

a. 60 days

b. 90 days

c. 100 days

d. 120 days

23. On expiry of 60 days or 120 days, as the case may be, if report or complaint is not filed:

a. Accused must remain in custody

b. Accused shall be released on furnishing bail

c. Case automatically abates

d. Accused is acquitted

24. The right to release on bail after expiry of prescribed detention period under Section 59-A is similar to:

a. Preventive detention

b. Constitutional pardon

c. Default/statutory bail

d. Plea bargaining

25. Under Section 59-A, the expression “reasonable grounds for believing” relates to:

a. Quantum of punishment

b. Satisfaction of Court regarding innocence and future conduct

c. Territorial jurisdiction

d. Validity of licence

26. Which of the following is correct regarding Section 59-A?

a. All offences under the Act are non-bailable

b. It creates special restrictions for specified excise offences

c. It abolishes regular bail completely

d. It applies only to licensed vendors

27. The quantity of liquor relevant under Section 59-A is the quantity found:

a. At the stage of trial only

b. During appeal only

c. At the time or in the course of detection of offence

d. After confiscation

28. Section 59-A reflects a legislative intent to:

a. Liberalize excise offences

b. Treat serious liquor offences with stricter bail conditions

c. Eliminate prosecution

d. Transfer jurisdiction to civil courts

29. Section 61 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Bail provisions

b. Limitation of prosecutions

c. Search warrants

d. Confiscation

30. Under Section 61(1)(a), offences under Sections 37, 38, 38-A and 39 can be taken cognizance of only on:

a. Private complaint

b. Police diary

c. Complaint or report of specified authorities

d. Oral information

31. Under Section 61(1)(a), the complaint or report may be made by:

a. Any citizen

b. Collector or Excise Officer not below the rank of District Excise Officer authorized by Collector

c. Village Panchayat

d. Sessions Judge

32. Which authority authorizes the Excise Officer under Section 61(1)(a)?

a. State Government

b. Sessions Court

c. Collector

d. Police Commissioner

33. Under Section 61(1)(b), offences under any other section of the Act except Section 49 may be taken cognizance of on complaint or report of:

a. Advocate only

b. Excise Officer or Police Officer

c. Revenue Officer only

d. Any public servant

34. Section 61(1)(b) specifically excludes:

a. Section 37

b. Section 38

c. Section 49

d. Section 59

35. Section 61 imposes restrictions on:

a. Investigation powers

b. Grant of pardon

c. Taking cognizance by Court

d. Execution of sentence

36. Under Section 61(2), cognizance of offences under the Act ordinarily requires prosecution to be instituted within:

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. One year

d. Three years

37. The limitation period under Section 61(2) is counted from:

a. Date of arrest

b. Date of filing complaint

c. Date on which offence is alleged to have been committed

d. Date of conviction

38. A Judicial Magistrate may take cognizance beyond six months only with:

a. Permission of High Court

b. Consent of accused

c. Special sanction of State Government

d. Approval of Collector

39. Section 61(2) applies to offences punishable under:

a. Indian Penal Code only

b. Excise Act, rules or orders thereunder

c. CrPC only

d. Evidence Act only

40. Which Magistrate is referred to in Section 61(2)?

a. Executive Magistrate

b. Judicial Magistrate

c. Metropolitan Commissioner

d. District Judge

41. Section 61-A deals with:

a. Search without warrant

b. Tender of pardon to accused turning approver

c. Cancellation of licence

d. Grant of anticipatory bail

42. Section 61-A applies where:

a. Only one accused is prosecuted

b. Two or more persons are prosecuted for an offence under the Act

c. Offence is compoundable

d. Trial is before Sessions Court only

43. Under Section 61-A, pardon may be tendered by:

a. Collector only

b. Police Officer

c. Chief Judicial Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class

d. Excise Commissioner only

44. The Magistrate tendering pardon under Section 61-A must:

a. Obtain approval of State Government

b. Record reasons in writing

c. Take permission from Collector

d. Consult Public Prosecutor compulsorily

45. Pardon under Section 61-A is conditional upon the accused making:

a. Monetary compensation

b. Confession before police only

c. Full and true disclosure of all facts connected with the offence

d. Written apology

46. A person accepting pardon under Section 61-A is commonly known as:

a. Informer

b. Approver

c. Surety

d. Bailor

47. The power under Section 61-A may be exercised during:

a. Appeal only

b. Investigation only

c. Inquiry or trial of offence

d. Execution proceedings only

48. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Sections 61 and 61-A?

a. Section 61 relates to bail, while Section 61-A relates to confiscation

b. Section 61 concerns limitation and cognizance, while Section 61-A concerns pardon to approver

c. Both deal only with arrest

d. Both apply only to civil proceedings

49. Section 61-B of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Search and seizure

b. Definitions

c. Bail provisions

d. Appeals

50. Section 61-C of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Scope and extent

b. Penalties

c. Confiscation

d. Licensing procedure

51. Under Section 61-B(a), “Scheduled Areas” refers to areas mentioned under:

a. Article 14 of the Constitution

b. Article 19 of the Constitution

c. Clause (1) of Article 244 of the Constitution of India

d. Article 368 of the Constitution

52. The expression “Scheduled Areas” under Section 61-B(a) is connected with:

a. Fifth Schedule areas

b. Union Territories only

c. Municipal corporations

d. Industrial zones

53. Under Section 61-B(b), the meanings of “Gram Panchayat” and “Gram Sabha” are borrowed from:

a. Indian Penal Code

b. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993

c. Code of Criminal Procedure

d. Forest Rights Act

54. The Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam referred to in Section 61-B(b) is:

a. Act No. 5 of 1956

b. Act No. 1 of 1994

c. Act No. 2 of 1974

d. Act No. 10 of 2005

55. Under Section 61-B(c), “Scheduled Tribes” means tribes specified under:

a. Article 21

b. Article 226

c. Article 342 of the Constitution of India

d. Article 356

56. Section 61-B(c) applies to Scheduled Tribes with respect to:

a. Entire India uniformly

b. State of Madhya Pradesh

c. Union Territories only

d. Scheduled Castes only

57. Under Article 342, Scheduled Tribes are specified by:

a. State Legislature only

b. Gram Sabha

c. Constitutional notification process

d. High Court

58. Section 61-C provides that the provisions of the Chapter shall apply to:

a. Entire State uniformly

b. Municipal areas only

c. Scheduled Areas

d. Cantonment areas only

59. Under Section 61-C, if there is anything repugnant in the Act:

a. CrPC shall prevail

b. IPC shall prevail

c. Provisions of this Chapter shall prevail

d. Rules shall prevail

60. The overriding effect given under Section 61-C is similar to:

a. Saving clause

b. Non-obstante principle

c. Doctrine of eclipse

d. Rule of estoppel

61. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a. Section 61-B — Bail provisions

b. Section 61-C — Scope and extent in Scheduled Areas

c. Section 61-C — Licensing powers

d. Section 61-B — Confiscation proceedings

62. The phrase “unless the context otherwise requires” in Section 61-B indicates:

a. Definitions are rigid and absolute

b. Definitions may vary according to context

c. Definitions apply only to criminal trials

d. Definitions override Constitution

63. “Gram Sabha” under Section 61-B derives its meaning from:

a. Constitution directly

b. Excise Rules

c. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993

d. Indian Evidence Act

64. Section 61-C creates:

a. Territorial limitation for civil courts

b. Special applicability of the Chapter to Scheduled Areas

c. Restriction on police powers

d. Power of confiscation

65. The word “repugnant” in Section 61-C means:

a. Identical

b. Supplementary

c. Inconsistent or conflicting

d. Repealed

66. Which constitutional provision is expressly referred to in Section 61-B(a)?

a. Article 32

b. Article 244(1)

c. Article 136

d. Article 300A

67. Which constitutional provision is expressly referred to in Section 61-B(c)?

a. Article 342

b. Article 123

c. Article 19

d. Article 51A

68. The combined effect of Sections 61-B and 61-C is to:

a. Create special provisions applicable in Scheduled Areas with overriding effect

b. Abolish Panchayats in tribal areas

c. Exclude Scheduled Tribes from excise law

d. Transfer excise powers to Parliament

69. Section 61-D of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Search without warrant

b. Exemption of members of Scheduled Tribes from certain provisions of the Act

c. Bail provisions

d. Appeals

70. Under Section 61-D(1), the provisions regarding manufacture of country spirit by distillation shall not apply to:

a. All citizens

b. Licensed vendors only

c. Members of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas

d. Excise Officers

71. Section 61-D(1) grants exemption in relation to:

a. Foreign liquor only

b. Manufacture, possession and consumption of country spirit

c. Sale of narcotic substances

d. Import-export duties

72. The exemption under Section 61-D applies only in:

a. Municipal areas

b. Entire State of Madhya Pradesh

c. Scheduled Areas

d. Industrial zones

73. Under Section 61-D(2), members of Scheduled Tribes may manufacture country spirit by:

a. Brewing only

b. Distillation

c. Chemical synthesis

d. Industrial processing

74. The manufacture permitted under Section 61-D(2)(i) must be for:

a. Commercial export

b. Sale in open market

c. Domestic consumption and social and religious functions

d. Tourism promotion

75. Country spirit manufactured under Section 61-D may be consumed only by:

a. Any resident of the State

b. Excise licensees

c. Members of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas

d. Government officials only

76. Under Section 61-D(2)(ii), country spirit manufactured by Scheduled Tribes:

a. May be freely sold

b. May be exported

c. Shall not be sold

d. Shall be auctioned

77. The maximum possession limit under Section 61-D(2)(iii) per individual is:

a. 2 liters

b. 4.5 liters

c. 10 liters

d. 15 liters

78. The ordinary maximum possession limit per household under Section 61-D(2)(iii) is:

a. 4.5 liters

b. 10 liters

c. 15 liters

d. 45 liters

79. On the occasion of social and religious functions, the maximum possession limit per household may extend up to:

a. 20 liters

b. 30 liters

c. 45 liters

d. 60 liters

80. The proviso to Section 61-D(2)(iii) empowers the Gram Sabha to:

a. Increase punishment

b. Abolish excise laws

c. Reduce the limit of possession of country spirit

d. Grant export licences

81. Which of the following is prohibited even under Section 61-D?

a. Domestic consumption

b. Manufacture by distillation

c. Sale of country spirit manufactured under exemption

d. Consumption at religious functions

82. Section 61-D reflects protection of:

a. Commercial liquor trade

b. Tribal customs and practices in Scheduled Areas

c. Foreign liquor industries

d. Excise revenue only

83. The exemption under Section 61-D is conditional and not:

a. Territorial

b. Cultural

c. Absolute

d. Statutory

84. Which authority may reduce the possession limit under Section 61-D?

a. Collector

b. Excise Commissioner

c. Gram Sabha

d. High Court

85. The country spirit manufactured under Section 61-D is intended mainly for:

a. Commercial distribution

b. Domestic and customary use

c. Industrial use

d. Export purposes

86. Section 61-D applies specifically to:

a. All backward classes

b. Scheduled Castes

c. Members of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas

d. Rural population generally

87. Which of the following correctly states the household possession limits under Section 61-D?

a. 4.5 liters ordinarily and 15 liters on special occasions

b. 15 liters ordinarily and 45 liters on social and religious occasions

c. 45 liters ordinarily and unlimited on special occasions

d. Unlimited possession permitted

88. Section 61-D creates:

a. A complete repeal of excise law in Scheduled Areas

b. A limited customary exemption subject to statutory conditions

c. Absolute right to liquor trade

d. Separate criminal courts for tribal areas

89. Section 61-E of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Search and seizure

b. Bail provisions

c. Power of Gram Sabha to regulate and prohibit manufacture, sale etc. of intoxicants

d. Confiscation proceedings

90. Under Section 61-E(1), the Gram Sabha has power to regulate and prohibit:

a. Agricultural activities

b. Manufacture, possession, transport, sale and consumption of intoxicants

c. Mining operations only

d. Forest produce only

91. The powers under Section 61-E(1) may be exercised within:

a. Entire district

b. State territory

c. Territorial jurisdiction of the Gram Sabha

d. Municipal corporation limits only

92. Which of the following is NOT included in the powers of Gram Sabha under Section 61-E(1)?

a. Manufacture of intoxicants

b. Transport of intoxicants

c. Sale of intoxicants

d. Adjudication of criminal trials

93. The proviso to Section 61-E(1) protects:

a. All liquor shops

b. Existing manufactories established before commencement of the Chapter

c. Foreign liquor imports

d. Excise warehouses only

94. Under the proviso to Section 61-E(1), an order of prohibition shall not apply to:

a. Illegal liquor units

b. Any existing outlet

c. A manufactory established prior to coming into force of the Chapter

d. Temporary shops only

95. Section 61-E(2) provides that no new manufactory of intoxicants shall be established without:

a. High Court approval

b. Consent or permission of Gram Sabha

c. Collector’s recommendation only

d. Parliamentary sanction

96. Under Section 61-E(2), no new outlet for sale of intoxicants may be opened without consent of:

a. State Excise Commissioner

b. Police Department

c. Gram Sabha

d. Sessions Court

97. Section 61-E(2) restricts the powers of:

a. Judiciary

b. State Government

c. Parliament

d. Police authorities only

98. If a Gram Sabha prohibits intoxicants in its area, then under Section 61-E(3)(a):

a. Existing factories expand automatically

b. New manufactories cannot be established

c. Transport becomes unrestricted

d. Licensing powers shift to Panchayat Secretary

99. Under Section 61-E(3)(b), existing outlets for sale of intoxicants shall close:

a. Immediately on order

b. After six months

c. From the first day of next financial year following prohibition order

d. Only after court decree

100. Under Section 61-E(3)(b), prohibition affects:

a. Only future outlets

b. Existing outlets also

c. Warehouses only

d. Industrial alcohol only

101. Under Section 61-E(3)(c), after prohibition no person shall:

a. Enter Gram Sabha area

b. Manufacture, possess, transport, sell or consume intoxicants within the area

c. Apply for licence renewal

d. Challenge prohibition order

102. Which of the following is a consequence of prohibition by Gram Sabha?

a. Automatic cancellation of Constitution

b. Closure of existing outlets from next financial year

c. Immediate imprisonment of all residents

d. Transfer of excise powers to judiciary

103. The expression “intoxicants” in Section 61-E covers activities relating to:

a. Manufacture only

b. Sale only

c. Possession only

d. Manufacture, possession, transport, sale and consumption

104. Section 61-E recognizes which principle?

a. Centralized excise control only

b. Local self-governance and community participation

c. Judicial supremacy in excise matters

d. Absolute trade freedom

105. The prohibition powers of Gram Sabha under Section 61-E are exercised in:

a. Scheduled Areas

b. Urban municipal zones only

c. Cantonment areas

d. Industrial corridors only

106. Which body is empowered under Section 61-E to regulate intoxicants locally?

a. Municipal Corporation

b. Gram Sabha

c. High Court

d. State Legislature

107. The consent requirement under Section 61-E(2) applies before:

a. Arrest of offenders

b. Opening new outlets for sale of intoxicants

c. Filing criminal complaint

d. Conducting excise raids

108. Section 61-E creates:

a. A complete ban on intoxicants throughout the State

b. Decentralized control over intoxicants in Scheduled Areas through Gram Sabha

c. Judicial control over licensing

d. Exclusive powers of Excise Commissioner

109. Section 61-F of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Bail provisions

b. Enforcement of the decisions of Gram Sabha

c. Confiscation of intoxicants

d. Licensing procedure

110. Under Section 61-F, the decisions taken under this Chapter are passed by:

a. Collector

b. State Government

c. Gram Sabha

d. Sessions Court

111. The decisions and orders of Gram Sabha under Section 61-F shall be given effect to by:

a. Police Department

b. Gram Panchayat of its area

c. High Court

d. Excise Commissioner

112. Section 61-F relates to enforcement of decisions taken under:

a. CrPC

b. Indian Penal Code

c. This Chapter relating to Scheduled Areas

d. Evidence Act

113. If assistance of enforcement agency of State Government is necessary, the Gram Panchayat shall approach:

a. Chief Minister

b. District Judge

c. Sub-Divisional Magistrate or authorized officer

d. Superintendent of Police only

114. Under Section 61-F, the authority primarily responsible for implementing Gram Sabha decisions is:

a. Gram Panchayat

b. Collector

c. Sessions Court

d. Parliament

115. The enforcement agency assistance under Section 61-F is sought from:

a. Central Government

b. State Government

c. Union Public Service Commission

d. Election Commission

116. The Sub-Divisional Magistrate under Section 61-F may:

a. Ignore the request of Gram Panchayat

b. Take necessary action to render required assistance

c. Repeal Gram Sabha decision

d. Conduct criminal trial

117. Which local body acts as the executing authority for Gram Sabha decisions under Section 61-F?

a. Municipal Corporation

b. Zila Panchayat

c. Gram Panchayat

d. Nagar Parishad

118. The role of Gram Sabha under Section 61-F is primarily:

a. Judicial adjudication

b. Policy formulation and decision-making under the Chapter

c. Police investigation

d. Revenue collection

119. Under Section 61-F, the Gram Panchayat may seek assistance when:

a. It considers assistance of State enforcement agency necessary

b. Directed by High Court only

c. Requested by accused person

d. Ordered by Parliament

120. The officer authorized by the Sub-Divisional Magistrate under Section 61-F:

a. May provide necessary enforcement assistance

b. May repeal Gram Sabha decisions

c. Has power to amend Constitution

d. Cannot act independently

121. Which of the following best describes Section 61-F?

a. It creates appellate jurisdiction

b. It provides machinery for implementation of Gram Sabha decisions

c. It abolishes excise administration

d. It grants anticipatory bail powers

122. The enforcement mechanism under Section 61-F reflects:

a. Centralized governance only

b. Cooperative functioning between local bodies and State authorities

c. Exclusive judicial supremacy

d. Police autonomy

123. Under Section 61-F, the Gram Panchayat acts:

a. As appellate authority

b. As implementing authority

c. As constitutional court

d. As investigating agency only

124. The assistance contemplated under Section 61-F is:

a. Financial aid only

b. Judicial assistance only

c. Enforcement assistance from State agencies

d. Legislative support only

125. Which authority is specifically mentioned in Section 61-F for rendering assistance?

a. Collector

b. District Excise Officer

c. Sub-Divisional Magistrate

d. Chief Judicial Magistrate

126. Section 61-F strengthens:

a. Gram Sabha autonomy through enforceable implementation mechanism

b. Exclusive powers of State Government

c. Jurisdiction of civil courts

d. Parliamentary control over Panchayats

127. Under Section 61-F, the enforcement action may be taken by:

a. Gram Sabha alone

b. Gram Panchayat with support of State enforcement agencies

c. High Court exclusively

d. Private citizens only

128. The combined reading of Sections 61-E and 61-F shows that:

a. Gram Sabha decisions are merely advisory

b. Gram Sabha decisions regarding intoxicants are enforceable through Gram Panchayat and State assistance

c. State Government alone controls prohibition

d. Gram Panchayat has no role in enforcement

129. Section 62 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Cognizance of offences

b. Power to make rules

c. Confiscation proceedings

d. Grant of bail

130. Under Section 62(1), the power to make rules is vested in:

a. High Court

b. Gram Sabha

c. State Government

d. Excise Commissioner only

131. Rules under Section 62 may be made for the purpose of:

a. Amending the Constitution

b. Carrying out the provisions of the Act

c. Creating civil courts

d. Abolishing excise duty

132. Section 62(2) begins with the phrase:

a. “Notwithstanding anything contained”

b. “Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision”

c. “Subject to prior sanction of Parliament”

d. “Save as otherwise provided”

133. Under Section 62(2)(a), rules may prescribe:

a. Salary of judges

b. Powers and duties of Excise Officers

c. Electoral qualifications

d. Police investigation procedure only

134. Section 62(2)(b) empowers the State Government to regulate:

a. Delegation of powers or duties under Section 7(g)

b. Judicial appointments

c. Parliamentary privileges

d. Municipal taxation

135. The delegation referred to in Section 62(2)(b) may be by:

a. Chief Revenue Authority, Excise Commissioner or Collectors

b. High Court only

c. Gram Sabha only

d. District Panchayat only

136. Under Section 62(2)(c), rules may declare:

a. Criminal punishments only

b. In what cases appeals shall lie and to what authorities

c. Citizenship qualifications

d. Police ranks only

137. Section 62(2)(c) also authorizes rules regarding:

a. Procedure for appeals and revisions

b. Constitutional amendments

c. Court fees under CPC only

d. Appointment of Magistrates

138. The time and manner of presenting appeals under the Act may be prescribed by:

a. Supreme Court Rules only

b. State Government rules under Section 62

c. Gram Sabha resolution

d. Collector’s circular only

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