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Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 Set-4
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1. The investigation under Section 17A assists the Magistrate in determining:
a. The guilt of the accused
b. The suitability of the parents, guardian or husband for custody
c. The location of the brothel
d. The financial compensation payable
2. The provision under Section 17A strengthens the protective framework by requiring:
a. Police approval
b. Independent welfare investigation before restoration of custody
c. Judicial punishment
d. Mandatory detention in protective homes
3. Section 17A primarily relates to which stage of proceedings?
a. Investigation stage
b. Trial stage
c. Custody and rehabilitation stage after rescue
d. Appeal stage
4. The key objective of Section 17A is to ensure that rescued persons are not handed over to individuals who:
a. Lack financial resources
b. May exploit or harm them again
c. Live in another district
d. Are not government employees
5. Section 17A acts as an additional safeguard before:
a. Conviction of the accused
b. Release of offenders on probation
c. Returning rescued persons to family custody
d. Issuing arrest warrants
6. Section 18 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Rescue of persons
b. Closure of brothel and eviction of offenders from premises
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Detention in corrective institutions
7. Under Section 18(1), a Magistrate may act upon information received from:
a. Police only
b. State Government only
c. Police or otherwise
d. District Magistrate only
8. The Magistrate may take action if the premises used as a brothel is located within a distance of:
a. 100 metres of a public place
b. 150 metres of a public place
c. 200 metres of a public place
d. 500 metres of a public place
9. The public places referred to in Section 18 are those mentioned under:
a. Section 6
b. Section 7(1)
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
10. Before attaching the premises for improper use, the Magistrate shall issue notice to the concerned person to show cause within:
a. Three days
b. Five days
c. Seven days
d. Ten days
11. The notice under Section 18(1) may be issued to:
1. Owner or landlord
2. Tenant or lessee
3. Occupier or person in charge
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
12. After hearing the concerned person, if the Magistrate is satisfied that the premises are used as a brothel, he may order:
a. Arrest of the landlord
b. Eviction of the occupier
c. Confiscation of the property
d. Immediate demolition of the building
13. The occupier must vacate the premises within how many days of the order of eviction?
a. Three days
b. Five days
c. Seven days
d. Ten days
14. Under Section 18(1)(b), the owner or landlord must obtain prior approval of the Magistrate before letting the premises during a period of:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
15. If a child or minor is found in the premises during a search under Section 15, the period during which prior approval of the Magistrate is required before letting the premises shall be:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
16. If the Magistrate finds that the owner or landlord was innocent of improper use of the premises, he may:
a. Confiscate the property
b. Restore the premises to the owner
c. Arrest the owner
d. Close the premises permanently
17. When restoring the premises to the owner, the Magistrate may direct that it shall not be leased to:
a. Any tenant
b. Any police officer
c. The person who allowed the improper use
d. Any commercial organisation
18. Section 18 aims mainly to:
a. Punish prostitution directly
b. Prevent use of premises for prostitution near public places
c. Regulate hotel businesses
d. Supervise police investigations
19. The notice issued under Section 18(1) is primarily intended to:
a. Allow the person concerned an opportunity to show cause
b. Confirm guilt immediately
c. Transfer the property to the government
d. Arrest the offender
20. The action taken under Section 18 is primarily directed against:
a. The rescued persons
b. The premises being used for prostitution
c. The Magistrate
d. The police authorities
21. Under Section 18(2), a court convicting a person under Section 3 or Section 7 may pass an order under Section 18(1):
a. Only after issuing fresh notice
b. Without further notice to show cause
c. Only with approval of the High Court
d. Only after police recommendation
22. Orders passed under Section 18(1) or Section 18(2) are:
a. Appealable before the High Court
b. Appealable before the Sessions Court
c. Not subject to appeal
d. Subject to appeal before the Supreme Court
23. Orders under Section 18(1) or (2) cannot be:
a. Stayed or set aside by any civil or criminal court
b. Implemented by police
c. Recorded by the Magistrate
d. Enforced by local authorities
24. The orders under Section 18(1) or (2) shall cease to have validity after:
a. Six months
b. One year or three years as the case may be
c. Five years
d. Ten years
25. If a conviction under Section 3 or Section 7 is set aside on appeal because the premises were not used as a brothel, the order passed under Section 18(1) shall:
a. Continue for the remaining period
b. Be modified by the Magistrate
c. Be set aside
d. Be transferred to the State Government
26. Under Section 18(4), when a Magistrate or court passes an order regarding closure of premises, any lease or agreement relating to such premises shall:
a. Continue temporarily
b. Become void and inoperative
c. Require approval of the State Government
d. Be transferred to the court
27. The provision making lease agreements void under Section 18(4) applies:
a. Only to private houses
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
c. Only when the landlord consents
d. Only after police approval
28. If an owner, lessor, landlord or agent fails to comply with the direction under Section 18(1)(b), he shall be punishable with:
a. Imprisonment up to one year
b. Fine which may extend to ₹500
c. Fine up to ₹2000
d. Community service
29. Failure to comply with the direction under the proviso to Section 18(1) shall be deemed to constitute an offence under:
a. Section 3(2)(b) or Section 7(2)(c)
b. Section 4(1)
c. Section 5(1)
d. Section 6(1)
30. Section 18(5) mainly ensures that:
a. Premises can be freely leased
b. Owners comply with directions issued by the Magistrate regarding improper use of premises
c. Police control all rental agreements
d. Courts manage property ownership
31. Which of the following provisions ensure that closure orders under Section 18 remain effective without interference from other courts?
a. Section 18(1)
b. Section 18(2)
c. Section 18(3)
d. Section 18(5)
32. The provision declaring lease agreements void when premises are used for prostitution serves mainly to:
a. Protect landlords
b. Prevent continued misuse of premises for prostitution
c. Increase rent value
d. Transfer ownership to the State
33. The penalty for non-compliance with directions under Section 18 may involve punishment similar to offences under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3 or Section 7
c. Section 4
d. Section 6
34. Section 18 overall empowers the Magistrate to:
a. Punish prostitutes
b. Prevent misuse of premises for prostitution and regulate occupancy
c. Supervise police investigations
d. Control public places
35. Which of the following statements regarding Section 18 is correct?
a. Orders under Section 18 are always appealable
b. Lease agreements remain valid even after closure order
c. Orders under Section 18 cannot be stayed by civil or criminal courts
d. Landlords are immune from penalties
36. Section 19 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Rescue of persons from brothels
b. Application for being kept in a protective home or provided care and protection by court
c. Closure of brothels
d. Appointment of special police officers
37. Under Section 19(1), an application may be made by a person who:
a. Is accused of running a brothel
b. Is carrying on or being made to carry on prostitution
c. Is a police officer
d. Is a landlord of premises
38. The application under Section 19 must be made to the Magistrate within whose jurisdiction the person:
a. Was arrested
b. Resides permanently
c. Is carrying on or being made to carry on prostitution
d. Was born
39. Under Section 19(1), the applicant may request the Magistrate for an order that he be:
a. Released from custody
b. Kept in a protective home
c. Provided care and protection by the court
d. Both (b) and (c)
40. Pending inquiry under Section 19(3), the Magistrate may direct that the applicant be kept in:
a. Jail custody
b. Such custody as he considers proper
c. Police lock-up
d. A corrective institution only
41. Before passing an order under Section 19(3), the Magistrate shall:
a. Immediately grant the request
b. Hear the applicant and make necessary inquiry
c. Refer the matter to the High Court
d. Obtain approval from the State Government
42. The inquiry conducted by the Magistrate under Section 19(3) may include an inquiry by:
a. Police officer
b. Probation officer appointed under the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
c. District Magistrate
d. Public prosecutor
43. The inquiry by the probation officer may relate to:
1. Personality of the applicant
2. Conditions of the applicant’s home
3. Prospects of rehabilitation
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
44. If the Magistrate is satisfied after inquiry, he may order that the applicant be kept in:
a. A protective home
b. A corrective institution
c. Under supervision of a person appointed by the Magistrate
d. Any of the above
45. The order passed under Section 19 must specify:
a. The police station involved
b. The period for which the applicant shall be kept in custody or supervision
c. The financial liability of the applicant
d. The property details of the applicant
46. The Magistrate must record reasons in writing before making an order under Section 19 because:
a. It is mandatory under the Act
b. It ensures transparency and judicial accountability
c. It facilitates police investigation
d. It ensures payment of fines
47. The supervision ordered under Section 19(3)(iii) shall be carried out by:
a. Police officer
b. Person appointed by the Magistrate
c. District Magistrate
d. State Government official
48. Section 19 primarily provides relief for persons who:
a. Run brothels
b. Voluntarily seek protection and rehabilitation from prostitution
c. Are police officers
d. Are landlords
49. Which of the following statements regarding Section 19 is correct?
a. Only police can initiate action under Section 19
b. The person involved in prostitution may voluntarily apply to the Magistrate
c. The Magistrate cannot order placement in a corrective institution
d. Inquiry is not required before passing the order
50. The overall objective of Section 19 is to:
a. Increase punishment for prostitution
b. Provide voluntary rehabilitation and protection to persons involved in prostitution
c. Regulate brothel ownership
d. Punish police officers
51. Section 20 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Rescue of persons from brothels
b. Removal of prostitute from any place
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Detention in corrective institutions
52. Under Section 20(1), the Magistrate may act upon receiving information that a person residing or frequenting a place is:
a. A brothel owner
b. A prostitute
c. A landlord
d. A police officer
53. The Magistrate receiving such information must first:
a. Order immediate arrest
b. Record the substance of the information received
c. Close the premises
d. Refer the matter to the High Court
54. After recording the information under Section 20(1), the Magistrate may issue a notice requiring the person to:
a. Leave the State immediately
b. Appear before the Magistrate and show cause
c. Pay a fine
d. Submit property documents
55. The notice issued under Section 20 must require the person to show cause why he should not:
a. Be imprisoned
b. Remove himself from the place and be prohibited from re-entering it
c. Pay compensation
d. Be transferred to another district
56. Every notice issued under Section 20(1) shall be accompanied by:
a. A copy of the FIR
b. A copy of the record of the information received
c. A court warrant
d. A police report
57. The copy of the recorded information must be served:
a. Separately after the notice
b. Along with the notice
c. After the inquiry is completed
d. Only on request
58. After service of the notice, the Magistrate shall:
a. Immediately order removal
b. Conduct an inquiry into the truth of the information
c. Transfer the case to police
d. Close the proceedings
59. During the inquiry under Section 20(3), the person concerned must be given an opportunity to:
a. Pay a fine
b. Leave the district voluntarily
c. Adduce evidence
d. Seek pardon
60. If the Magistrate is satisfied that the person is a prostitute and removal is necessary in the interests of the public, he shall:
a. Pass an oral order
b. Issue a written order requiring removal from the place
c. Arrest the person immediately
d. Close the premises permanently
61. The order requiring removal from a place must specify a date for leaving which shall not be less than:
a. Three days from the date of order
b. Five days from the date of order
c. Seven days from the date of order
d. Ten days from the date of order
62. Under Section 20, the Magistrate may direct the person to remove himself to a place:
a. Only within the same district
b. Only within the same State
c. Either within or outside his jurisdiction
d. Only outside the State
63. The Magistrate may specify in the order the:
1. Route or routes to be taken
2. Time within which removal must occur
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
64. After removal under Section 20, the person shall not re-enter the place without:
a. Police permission
b. State Government approval
c. Written permission of the Magistrate having jurisdiction
d. Approval of local authorities
65. The main objective of Section 20 is to:
a. Punish prostitutes
b. Protect public interest by removing prostitution activity from certain places
c. Regulate hotels
d. Increase police powers
66. Under Section 20(4), a person who fails to comply with an order requiring removal from a place shall be:
a. Imprisoned for six months
b. Punished with fine
c. Arrested without warrant
d. Sent to a corrective institution
67. The maximum fine for failure to comply with an order under Section 20(4) may extend to:
a. ₹100
b. ₹200
c. ₹500
d. ₹1000
68. If a person re-enters a place in violation of a prohibition order under Section 20, he:
a. Commits an offence
b. Is only warned
c. Is placed under supervision
d. Is fined automatically by police
69. Under Section 20(4)(b), harbouring or concealing a person who has been ordered to remove himself from a place is:
a. Permissible
b. A punishable offence
c. Allowed with police permission
d. Allowed if the person is a relative
70. The offence of harbouring under Section 20(4)(b) requires knowledge that the person:
a. Has committed a crime
b. Has been required to remove himself and has not obtained permission to re-enter
c. Has been arrested
d. Has been convicted by a court
71. For a continuing offence under Section 20(4), the additional fine may extend to:
a. ₹10 per day
b. ₹20 per day
c. ₹50 per day
d. ₹100 per day
72. The additional fine for continuing offence under Section 20(4) is imposed:
a. From the first day of the offence
b. After the first day during which the offence continues
c. After one week of the offence
d. After conviction
73. Which of the following acts constitute offences under Section 20(4)?
1. Failure to comply with the removal order
2. Re-entering the prohibited place without permission
3. Harbouring or concealing such person
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
74. The fine under Section 20(4) aims primarily to:
a. Punish brothel owners
b. Enforce compliance with removal orders issued by the Magistrate
c. Replace imprisonment penalties
d. Compensate victims
75. Section 20(4) strengthens enforcement of removal orders by:
a. Providing imprisonment penalties only
b. Penalising non-compliance and harbouring of the removed person
c. Giving police unrestricted powers
d. Cancelling property ownership
76. Section 21 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Corrective institutions only
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Special police officers
d. Closure of brothels
77. Under Section 21(1), the authority empowered to establish protective homes and corrective institutions is the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
78. The State Government may establish how many protective homes or corrective institutions under the Act?
a. Only one per district
b. Only one per State
c. As many as it thinks fit
d. Only those approved by the Central Government
79. Protective homes and corrective institutions established under Section 21 shall be maintained in such manner as may be:
a. Directed by the Magistrate
b. Prescribed by rules under the Act
c. Approved by the High Court
d. Determined by the police
80. After the commencement of the Act, no person or authority other than the State Government may establish or maintain a protective home unless:
a. Approved by a Magistrate
b. Authorised by a court order
c. Licensed by the State Government
d. Approved by the Central Government
81. A licence for establishing or maintaining a protective home or corrective institution is issued by the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
82. The licence issued under Section 21 must be in:
a. Any form decided by the applicant
b. Prescribed form
c. Judicial form
d. Police form
83. A licence issued under Section 21 may contain conditions imposed by the:
a. High Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. Police authorities
84. The conditions attached to licences under Section 21 must be in accordance with:
a. Orders of the Magistrate
b. Rules made under the Act
c. Police regulations
d. Municipal laws
85. One of the conditions for licensing may require that management of a protective home or corrective institution shall, wherever practicable, be entrusted to:
a. Police officers
b. Women
c. Magistrates
d. Social workers only
86. A person or authority already maintaining a protective home at the commencement of the Act must apply for licence within:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
87. A person maintaining a corrective institution at the commencement of the Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls (Amendment) Act, 1978 must apply for licence within:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
88. The Amendment Act referred to in Section 21 relating to corrective institutions is:
a. Act 44 of 1986
b. Act 46 of 1978
c. Act 54 of 1980
d. Act 20 of 1958
89. The purpose of requiring licences for protective homes and corrective institutions is to:
a. Increase government revenue
b. Ensure regulation and proper management of such institutions
c. Restrict police investigation
d. Provide employment to officials
90. Which of the following statements regarding Section 21 is correct?
a. Any private person may establish a protective home freely
b. Only the State Government can establish or license protective homes and corrective institutions
c. The High Court controls protective homes
d. Police officers issue licences
91. Before issuing a licence for a protective home or corrective institution, the State Government may require:
a. Approval from the High Court
b. An investigation by an appointed officer or authority
c. Permission from the Central Government
d. Consent of the Magistrate
92. The investigation regarding the licence application shall be conducted by:
a. Any police officer
b. An officer or authority appointed by the State Government
c. The District Magistrate only
d. A judicial officer
93. The procedure for investigation into a licence application under Section 21(4) shall be:
a. Decided by the police
b. Prescribed by rules under the Act
c. Determined by the applicant
d. Directed by the High Court
94. A licence issued under Section 21 shall remain in force:
a. Permanently
b. For such period as specified in the licence
c. For ten years automatically
d. Until cancelled by a court
95. An application for renewal of licence must be made at least:
a. 7 days before expiry
b. 15 days before expiry
c. 30 days before expiry
d. 60 days before expiry
96. Renewal of licence under Section 21 may be granted for:
a. Half the original period
b. Double the original period
c. A like period as the original licence
d. A permanent period
97. A licence issued or renewed under Section 21 shall be:
a. Transferable to another person
b. Transferable with State Government approval
c. Non-transferable
d. Transferable only within family
98. The State Government may revoke a licence if:
1. Conditions of the licence are breached
2. Provisions of the Act or rules are violated
3. It is not satisfied with the management of the institution
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
99. Revocation of licence under Section 21(7) shall be made:
a. Orally by the Magistrate
b. By written order of the State Government
c. By police direction
d. By court decree only
100. Before revoking a licence, the State Government must:
a. Seek police approval
b. Obtain High Court permission
c. Give the licence holder an opportunity to show cause
d. Conduct a criminal trial
101. The opportunity given before revocation of licence ensures:
a. Administrative convenience
b. Compliance with principles of natural justice
c. Faster revocation
d. Police supervision
102. Revocation of licence under Section 21(7) is:
a. The only penalty available
b. Without prejudice to any other penalty under the Act
c. Final without inquiry
d. Subject only to police approval
103. If the management or superintendence of a protective home is unsatisfactory, the State Government may:
a. Close the home permanently without notice
b. Revoke the licence after following due procedure
c. Transfer the home to the police
d. Transfer the home to the High Court
104. Which authority is primarily responsible for regulating protective homes and corrective institutions under Section 21?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. Special police officer
105. Section 21 ensures regulation of protective homes mainly through:
a. Criminal prosecution only
b. Licensing, investigation, renewal, and revocation mechanisms
c. Police supervision only
d. Judicial trials only
106. When a licence of a protective home or corrective institution is revoked under Section 21(7), the institution shall:
a. Continue for six months
b. Function until a new licence is issued
c. Cease to function from the date of revocation
d. Be transferred to the State Government
107. Under Section 21(9), the State Government may:
a. Cancel criminal cases
b. Vary or amend any licence issued or renewed under the Act
c. Transfer ownership of the institution
d. Close all protective homes
108. The power to vary or amend licences under Section 21(9) is exercised:
a. Without any rules
b. Subject to rules made under the Act
c. Only by court order
d. With approval of the Central Government
109. Under Section 21(9A), the State Government or authorised authority may transfer an inmate:
a. Only between protective homes
b. Only between corrective institutions
c. Between protective homes and corrective institutions
d. Only to police custody
110. Transfer of an inmate under Section 21(9A) may be made considering:
1. Conduct of the person
2. Kind of training to be imparted
3. Other circumstances of the case
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
111. A person transferred under Section 21(9A) shall not be required to stay longer than:
a. The original period fixed in the previous home or institution
b. Two years
c. Five years
d. Ten years
112. For every order of transfer of an inmate under Section 21(9A), the authority must:
a. Inform the police
b. Record reasons for the transfer
c. Obtain High Court approval
d. Notify the Central Government
113. Establishing or maintaining a protective home without complying with Section 21 is:
a. Permitted with police approval
b. A punishable offence
c. A civil wrong only
d. Allowed in emergencies
114. For the first offence of establishing or maintaining a protective home without licence, the punishment may extend to:
a. Fine up to ₹500
b. Fine up to ₹1000
c. Imprisonment up to one year
d. Fine up to ₹2000
115. For a second or subsequent offence of maintaining an unlicensed protective home, the punishment may include:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to one year or fine up to ₹2000 or both
c. Imprisonment for five years
d. Community service only
116. The penalty provisions under Section 21(10) are intended to:
a. Encourage private institutions
b. Ensure compliance with licensing requirements for protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Increase police powers
d. Regulate court procedures
117. The authority that may authorise transfer of inmates between institutions under Section 21(9A) is:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government or authority authorised by it
c. Central Government
d. High Court
118. The requirement to record reasons for transfer under Section 21(9A) reflects the principle of:
a. Administrative discretion
b. Natural justice and transparency
c. Police authority
d. Judicial punishment
119. Which of the following statements regarding Section 21 is correct?
a. Protective homes may be established freely by any person
b. Licences for protective homes are transferable
c. Institutions must cease functioning if licence is revoked
d. Transfer of inmates cannot be made between institutions
120. Section 21 as a whole ensures:
a. Criminal prosecution of prostitutes
b. Regulation, licensing and supervision of protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Control of public places
d. Regulation of police officers
121. Section 21A of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Licensing of protective homes
b. Production of records by protective homes or corrective institutions
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Closure of brothels
122. Section 21A applies to persons or authorities who are licensed under:
a. Section 20
b. Section 21(3)
c. Section 17
d. Section 18
123. The obligation under Section 21A applies to persons or authorities licensed to:
a. Run police stations
b. Establish or maintain protective homes or corrective institutions
c. Conduct criminal trials
d. Issue arrest warrants
124. Under Section 21A, records and documents must be produced when required by:
a. Police officer
b. State Government
c. Court
d. District Magistrate
125. The records required to be produced under Section 21A are those maintained by:
a. Police stations
b. Protective homes or corrective institutions
c. Courts
d. Local authorities
126. The purpose of requiring production of records under Section 21A is to ensure:
a. Judicial oversight of institutions operating under the Act
b. Police investigation only
c. Financial auditing by government
d. Public inspection of records
127. The duty to produce records arises:
a. Only during police investigation
b. Only during trial of an offence
c. Whenever required by a court
d. Only during inspection by State Government
128. The term “records and other documents” under Section 21A refers to documents maintained by:
a. Courts only
b. Police authorities
c. Licensed protective homes or corrective institutions
d. District administration
129. Section 21A strengthens which aspect of administration under the Act?
a. Criminal prosecution
b. Judicial supervision and accountability of institutions
c. Police authority
d. Local governance
130. Which of the following statements regarding Section 21A is correct?
a. Only police can demand records from protective homes
b. Courts can require licensed institutions to produce records and documents
c. Protective homes are not required to maintain records
d. Records may be produced only with State Government approval
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