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Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 Set-5
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1. Section 22 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Appeals against orders
b. Trials of offences under the Act
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Licensing of protective homes
2. Under Section 22, offences under the Act shall not be tried by any court inferior to:
a. Sessions Court
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
d. District Magistrate
3. Which of the following offences must be tried only by a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the First Class?
1. Section 3
2. Section 2
3. Section 4
4. Section 5
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None of the above
4. Section 22 restricts trial jurisdiction for offences under Sections:
a. 3 and 4 only
b. 3 to 8 only
c. 1 to 8
d. 5 to 10
5. A Judicial Magistrate of the Second Class may try offences under Sections 3 to 8 of the Act:
a. Yes, without restriction
b. Only with permission of the High Court
c. No
d. Only in emergency cases
6. The purpose of Section 22 is primarily to:
a. Increase police powers
b. Ensure that offences under the Act are tried by higher judicial authorities
c. Reduce the number of trials
d. Transfer cases to the High Court
7. The inclusion of Metropolitan Magistrates under Section 22 applies mainly in:
a. Rural areas
b. Metropolitan areas
c. Villages only
d. Tribal regions
8. Section 22 ensures that trials under Sections 3–8 are conducted by:
a. Courts of competent senior jurisdiction
b. Police authorities
c. District administration
d. Civil courts
9. Which of the following sections cannot be tried by a court inferior to a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class?
a. Section 3 – Keeping a brothel
b. Section 4 – Living on earnings of prostitution
c. Section 6 – Detaining a person in premises where prostitution is carried on
d. All of the above
10. Section 22 aims to strengthen the judicial process under the Act by:
a. Allowing police to conduct trials
b. Restricting trial jurisdiction to certain higher magistrates
c. Abolishing lower courts
d. Transferring all cases to the High Court
11. Section 22A of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Establishment of protective homes
b. Power to establish Special Courts
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Licensing of corrective institutions
12. Special Courts under Section 22A may be established by the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
13. The purpose of establishing Special Courts under Section 22A is to ensure:
a. Administrative control of police
b. Speedy trial of offences under the Act
c. Closure of brothels
d. Licensing of institutions
14. The State Government may establish Special Courts by issuing a notification in the:
a. Government Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. State Police Gazette
d. Court Register
15. Before establishing Special Courts under Section 22A, the State Government must consult the:
a. Supreme Court
b. District Magistrate
c. High Court
d. Central Government
16. Special Courts established under Section 22A may consist of:
a. Sessions Judges only
b. Judicial Magistrates of the First Class or Metropolitan Magistrates
c. Judicial Magistrates of the Second Class
d. District Judges only
17. The Special Courts established under Section 22A may be set up in:
a. Villages only
b. Districts or metropolitan areas
c. Police stations only
d. Rural areas only
18. Unless otherwise directed by the High Court, a Special Court established under Section 22A shall exercise jurisdiction only in respect of:
a. All criminal offences
b. Civil disputes
c. Cases under this Act
d. Offences under the Indian Penal Code
19. The jurisdiction and powers of the presiding officer of a Special Court extend throughout:
a. The entire State
b. The whole of India
c. The district or metropolitan area concerned
d. Only the police station area
20. A Special Court established under Section 22A shall be deemed to be a court established under which law?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Civil Procedure Code
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Indian Evidence Act
21. The relevant provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure applicable to Special Courts under Section 22A relate to:
a. Section 11 and Section 16 of CrPC
b. Section 41 and Section 154 of CrPC
c. Section 173 and Section 190 of CrPC
d. Section 200 and Section 202 of CrPC
22. The term “High Court” in Section 22A has the same meaning as defined in:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Constitution of India
23. The explanation to Section 22A defines “High Court” with reference to which provision of the CrPC?
a. Section 2(a)
b. Section 2(b)
c. Section 2(e)
d. Section 2(g)
24. Which of the following statements regarding Special Courts under Section 22A is correct?
a. They may try all criminal offences
b. They are established only by the High Court
c. They are established by the State Government for speedy trial of offences under this Act
d. They function independently of the Code of Criminal Procedure
25. Section 22A strengthens enforcement of the Act mainly by:
a. Increasing police powers
b. Providing specialised courts for faster disposal of cases
c. Increasing punishment for offenders
d. Regulating protective homes
26. Section 22AA of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Appointment of special police officers
b. Power of Central Government to establish Special Courts
c. Closure of brothels
d. Licensing of protective homes
27. Under Section 22AA(1), Special Courts may be established by the:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
28. The Central Government may establish Special Courts under Section 22AA primarily for:
a. Administrative supervision
b. Speedy trial of offences under the Act committed in more than one State
c. Licensing of protective homes
d. Transfer of inmates
29. Special Courts established by the Central Government under Section 22AA shall be notified in the:
a. Police Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Judicial Gazette
d. State Gazette
30. Before establishing Special Courts under Section 22AA, the Central Government must consult the:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court concerned
c. District Magistrate
d. State Legislature
31. The Special Courts established under Section 22AA may consist of:
a. Sessions Judges only
b. Judicial Magistrates of the First Class or Metropolitan Magistrates
c. Judicial Magistrates of the Second Class
d. District Judges only
32. The offences tried by courts established under Section 22AA are those committed:
a. Within a single district
b. Within a single State
c. In more than one State
d. Only in metropolitan cities
33. Section 22AA provides that the provisions of which section shall apply to courts established under it?
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 22A
d. Section 23
34. The application of Section 22A provisions to courts established under Section 22AA applies:
a. Fully without modification
b. Only partially
c. So far as may be applicable
d. Only with approval of State Government
35. The purpose of Section 22AA is mainly to ensure:
a. State-level regulation of institutions
b. Central coordination and speedy trial of inter-state offences under the Act
c. Increased police authority
d. Regulation of brothels
36. Section 22B of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Power of police to investigate offences
b. Power of court to try cases summarily
c. Establishment of protective homes
d. Closure of brothels
37. The power to direct that offences under the Act be tried summarily is vested in the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
38. Section 22B begins with the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973”, which means:
a. The provision overrides inconsistent provisions of the CrPC
b. The provision supplements the CrPC
c. The provision is subordinate to the CrPC
d. The provision applies only with court approval
39. Offences under the Act may be tried summarily by:
a. Any police officer
b. A Magistrate, including the presiding officer of a court established under Section 22A
c. A Sessions Judge only
d. A District Collector
40. The procedure for summary trials under Section 22B shall follow the provisions of which sections of the CrPC?
a. Sections 154–173
b. Sections 190–200
c. Sections 262–265
d. Sections 300–320
41. In a summary trial under Section 22B, the maximum term of imprisonment that may be imposed upon conviction is:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
42. If during a summary trial the Magistrate finds that a sentence exceeding one year may be required, he shall:
a. Continue the summary trial
b. Dismiss the case
c. Stop summary proceedings and try the case in the regular manner
d. Transfer the case to police
43. Before converting a summary trial into a regular trial under Section 22B, the Magistrate must:
a. Obtain State Government approval
b. Hear the parties and record an order to that effect
c. Refer the case to the High Court
d. Close the proceedings
44. When a summary trial is converted into a regular trial, the Magistrate may:
a. Ignore earlier evidence
b. Recall witnesses already examined
c. Transfer the case to another district
d. Cancel the case
45. The purpose of Section 22B is mainly to:
a. Increase punishment for offences
b. Enable faster disposal of cases through summary trials
c. Replace the Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Give exclusive powers to police
46. The presiding officer of a Special Court established under Section 22A may:
a. Conduct summary trials under Section 22B
b. Conduct civil trials only
c. Issue arrest warrants only
d. Grant licences to protective homes
47. The summary trial provisions under Section 22B apply:
a. Automatically to all cases
b. Only when the State Government directs so
c. Only when the High Court orders
d. Only in metropolitan areas
48. The requirement to record an order when converting a summary trial ensures:
a. Administrative efficiency
b. Judicial transparency and fairness
c. Police supervision
d. Faster conviction
49. The phrase “as far as may be” in Section 22B regarding application of CrPC provisions means:
a. The provisions apply exactly as written
b. The provisions apply with necessary modifications where appropriate
c. The provisions do not apply
d. The provisions apply only partially by court discretion
50. Section 22B overall enhances enforcement of the Act by:
a. Creating new offences
b. Allowing quicker trial procedure through summary trials
c. Increasing police powers
d. Establishing new institutions
51. Section 23 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Establishment of special courts
b. Power to make rules
c. Closure of brothels
d. Rescue of persons
52. The authority empowered to make rules under Section 23 is the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
53. Rules under Section 23 must be made by notification in the:
a. Police Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Judicial Gazette
d. Central Gazette
54. The rules made under Section 23 are intended for:
a. Conducting criminal trials
b. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
c. Punishing offenders
d. Regulating courts
55. Section 23(2) begins with the phrase “In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing powers”, which means:
a. The list of rule-making matters is exhaustive
b. The list is illustrative and not exhaustive
c. The list applies only to police authorities
d. The list overrides other provisions
56. Rules under Section 23 may provide for the notification of any place as:
a. A restricted zone
b. A public place
c. A police station
d. A judicial area
57. Rules may provide for placing in custody persons whose safe custody has been ordered under:
a. Section 15
b. Section 16
c. Section 17(1)
d. Section 18
58. Rules under Section 23 may provide for the maintenance of persons placed in custody under Section 17. This includes provisions relating to:
a. Their detention and upkeep
b. Their employment
c. Their taxation
d. Their property rights
59. Clause (bb) of Section 23(2) relates to discharge of an offender from a corrective institution under:
a. Section 9
b. Section 10A(3)
c. Section 17
d. Section 20
60. Rules may also prescribe the form of licence granted to offenders discharged from corrective institutions under:
a. Section 10A
b. Section 12
c. Section 15
d. Section 18
61. Rules under Section 23 may provide for detention and keeping of persons in:
a. Police lock-ups
b. Protective homes or corrective institutions
c. District jails only
d. Military custody
62. The rule-making power under Section 23 may regulate the maintenance of persons detained in:
a. Public places
b. Protective homes or corrective institutions
c. Police stations
d. Court premises
63. Rules may also provide for carrying out provisions relating to notification of residence under:
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
64. Section 23 allows rules regarding delegation of authority to appoint a special police officer under:
a. Section 12
b. Section 13(1)
c. Section 14
d. Section 15
65. Rules may also be framed for carrying into effect the provisions of:
a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
66. Rules under Section 23 may provide for the establishment, maintenance and management of:
a. Police stations
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. District courts
d. Public hospitals
67. Rules framed under Section 23 may prescribe matters relating to the appointment, powers and duties of persons employed in:
a. Police departments
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. District administration
d. Courts
68. Rules may prescribe the form in which an application for a licence to establish a protective home or corrective institution may be made under:
a. Section 20
b. Section 21
c. Section 22
d. Section 23A
69. The particulars required in an application for licence for a protective home or corrective institution may be specified by:
a. Court order
b. Rules made under Section 23
c. Police directions
d. High Court guidelines
70. Rules may prescribe the procedure for issue or renewal of licences for protective homes and corrective institutions under:
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. Section 21
d. Section 22
71. Rules may specify the time within which a licence shall be issued or renewed for:
a. Hotels
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Police stations
d. Court buildings
72. Rules may prescribe the procedure for conducting full investigation regarding applications for licences relating to:
a. Police recruitment
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Judicial appointments
d. Local government bodies
73. Rules under Section 23 may prescribe the form of licence and the conditions to be specified therein for:
a. Brothel owners
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Public institutions
d. Courts
74. Rules may provide for maintaining and auditing the accounts of:
a. District courts
b. Police departments
c. Protective homes and corrective institutions
d. Municipal offices
75. Rules under Section 23 may prescribe the maintenance of registers and statements by:
a. Police officers
b. Licensees of protective homes or corrective institutions
c. Court clerks
d. Government auditors
76. Rules may regulate the care, treatment, training and discipline of inmates in:
a. Police lock-ups
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Government hospitals
d. Juvenile courts
77. Rules may provide for the visits and communication with inmates of:
a. Police stations
b. Protective homes and corrective institutions
c. Government offices
d. Court buildings
78. Rules may regulate the temporary detention of persons sentenced to detention in protective homes or corrective institutions:
a. Until trial is completed
b. Until arrangements are made to send them to such homes or institutions
c. Until police approval is obtained
d. Until a High Court order is issued
79. Rules may provide for transfer of inmates from:
a. One protective home to another or to a corrective institution
b. One corrective institution to another or to a protective home
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only from police custody to court
80. The rules relating to transfer of inmates between protective homes and corrective institutions are framed with reference to:
a. Section 18
b. Section 21(9A)
c. Section 20
d. Section 19
81. Rules under Section 23 may provide for transfer of an inmate from a protective home or corrective institution to a:
a. Hospital
b. Prison
c. Police station
d. Court
82. Transfer of an inmate to prison may occur when the inmate is found to be:
1. Incorrigible
2. Exercising bad influence on other inmates
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
83. Rules may specify the period of detention in prison for inmates transferred due to incorrigible conduct under:
a. Section 18
b. Section 21
c. Section 23
d. Section 22
84. Rules may also provide for transfer of persons sentenced under which sections to protective homes or corrective institutions?
a. Sections 5 and 6
b. Sections 7 and 8
c. Sections 3 and 4
d. Sections 9 and 10
85. Rules framed under Section 23 may determine the period of detention in protective homes or corrective institutions for persons sentenced under Sections:
a. 5 and 6
b. 6 and 7
c. 7 and 8
d. 8 and 9
86. Rules under Section 23 may provide for the discharge of inmates from protective homes or corrective institutions:
a. Only with police permission
b. Either absolutely or subject to conditions
c. Only by court order
d. Only after five years
87. Rules may also provide for the arrest of inmates if they:
a. Escape from custody
b. Breach the conditions of discharge
c. Fail to pay fines
d. Refuse training
88. Rules under Section 23 may allow inmates of protective homes or corrective institutions to:
a. Leave permanently
b. Absent themselves for short periods with permission
c. Take employment outside permanently
d. Travel without supervision
89. The rules may provide for the inspection of protective homes, corrective institutions and other institutions where persons may be:
a. Employed
b. Kept, detained or maintained
c. Tried in court
d. Registered for employment
90. Clause (h) of Section 23(2) allows rules to be made regarding:
a. Only matters listed in the section
b. Any other matter which has to be or may be prescribed
c. Criminal offences only
d. Judicial appointments only
91. Breach of rules made under clause (d) or clause (g) of Section 23(2) may be punishable with fine which may extend to:
a. ₹100
b. ₹200
c. ₹250
d. ₹500
92. The power to prescribe punishment for breach of rules under Section 23 lies with the:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
93. Rules made under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act must be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. High Court
c. State Legislature
d. District Court
94. The requirement of laying rules before the State Legislature ensures:
a. Administrative secrecy
b. Legislative oversight of rule-making powers
c. Judicial review
d. Police supervision
95. Section 23 as a whole primarily deals with:
a. Criminal prosecution of offenders
b. Delegated legislation and rule-making by the State Government
c. Appointment of police officers
d. Establishment of courts
96. Section 24 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Act not to be in derogation of certain other Acts
c. Establishment of special courts
d. Closure of brothels
97. Section 24 provides that nothing in this Act shall be construed to be in derogation of the provisions of the:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Reformatory Schools Act, 1897
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
98. The Reformatory Schools Act referred to in Section 24 was enacted in the year:
a. 1860
b. 1897
c. 1908
d. 1956
99. The Reformatory Schools Act mentioned in Section 24 is numbered as:
a. Act 5 of 1897
b. Act 7 of 1897
c. Act 8 of 1897
d. Act 10 of 1897
100. Section 24 clarifies that the provisions of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act shall not affect laws relating to:
a. Adult offenders
b. Juvenile offenders
c. Police officers
d. Landlords
101. The protection under Section 24 extends not only to the Reformatory Schools Act, 1897 but also to:
a. Any Central Act relating to criminal law
b. Any State Act enacted in modification of the said Act or otherwise relating to juvenile offenders
c. Only constitutional provisions
d. Municipal laws
102. The phrase “not to be in derogation of” in Section 24 means that the provisions of the Act shall:
a. Override all other laws
b. Not diminish or impair the provisions of certain other Acts
c. Replace earlier Acts
d. Repeal earlier Acts
103. Section 24 ensures that provisions relating to juvenile offenders under other laws:
a. Continue to operate alongside this Act
b. Are replaced by this Act
c. Are repealed automatically
d. Apply only with court approval
104. The purpose of Section 24 is mainly to:
a. Strengthen police powers
b. Ensure that juvenile offender laws remain unaffected by this Act
c. Increase punishment for prostitution
d. Establish corrective institutions
105. Which of the following statements regarding Section 24 is correct?
a. It repeals the Reformatory Schools Act, 1897
b. It states that provisions relating to juvenile offenders under other Acts remain valid
c. It replaces all State laws relating to juveniles
d. It applies only to adult offenders
106. Section 25 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Repeal and savings
c. Establishment of special courts
d. Licensing of protective homes
107. Under Section 25(1), when the provisions of the Act come into force in a State, the existing State Acts relating to suppression of immoral traffic or prevention of prostitution shall:
a. Continue indefinitely
b. Stand repealed
c. Be suspended for five years
d. Be amended automatically
108. The repeal under Section 25(1) applies to State Acts relating to:
a. Criminal procedure
b. Suppression of immoral traffic in persons or prevention of prostitution
c. Juvenile justice
d. Police administration
109. The repeal of State Acts under Section 25 takes effect from the date when:
a. Section 1 comes into force
b. The entire Act comes into force in India
c. Provisions of the Act other than Section 1 come into force in the State
d. The High Court issues a notification
110. Section 25(2) provides that actions taken under repealed State Acts shall:
a. Become invalid immediately
b. Continue to remain valid if not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act
c. Be reviewed by the High Court
d. Require fresh approval from the State Government
111. Under Section 25(2), actions taken under previous State Acts may include:
1. Directions given
2. Registers, rules or orders made
3. Restrictions imposed
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
112. If actions taken under a repealed State Act are not inconsistent with this Act, they shall be deemed to have been taken under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
d. State Police Act
113. Actions taken under previous State Acts shall continue in force until:
a. The High Court cancels them
b. They are superseded by actions taken under this Act
c. Parliament repeals them
d. Police review them
114. The Explanation to Section 25 clarifies that the expression “State Act” includes:
a. Central Acts
b. Municipal laws
c. Provincial Acts
d. Constitutional provisions
115. The main objective of the savings clause in Section 25 is to:
a. Increase penalties
b. Prevent legal gaps by continuing earlier valid actions until replaced
c. Abolish State laws entirely
d. Transfer all cases to the Central Government
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