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Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 Set-2
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1. Under Section 6(2A), if a child or minor found in a brothel is medically found to have been sexually abused, it shall be presumed that:
a. The child voluntarily entered the brothel
b. The child or minor was detained for purposes of prostitution or sexually exploited for commercial purposes
c. The brothel owner is innocent
d. The offence occurred outside the brothel
2. The presumption under Section 6(2A) arises when:
a. A complaint is filed by neighbours
b. The police file a charge sheet
c. Medical examination reveals sexual abuse of a child or minor found in a brothel
d. A magistrate orders investigation
3. Which of the following is necessary for the presumption under Section 6(2)?
a. The presence of a minor in a public place
b. A person being found with a child in a brothel
c. Ownership of the brothel
d. Presence of police officers
4. The presumption under Section 6(2A) applies when the victim is:
a. Only a major
b. Only a married person
c. A child or minor
d. Only a foreign national
5. Section 6 mainly aims to penalize:
a. Persons running brothels
b. Persons detaining individuals in premises where prostitution is carried on
c. Persons living on prostitution earnings
d. Persons soliciting in public
6. Section 6(3) of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act provides for:
a. Presumption of detention of a woman or girl in a brothel
b. Appointment of special police officers
c. Rehabilitation of victims
d. Punishment for soliciting in public places
7. A person shall be presumed to detain a woman or girl in a brothel if he withholds from her:
a. Only money
b. Only jewellery
c. Jewellery, wearing apparel, money or other property belonging to her
d. Identity documents only
8. Under Section 6(3), the presumption of detention arises when the person withholds property with the intent to:
a. Protect the woman
b. Compel or induce her to remain in the premises
c. Transfer ownership of the property
d. Prevent theft
9. Which of the following actions may create a presumption of detention under Section 6(3)?
a. Offering employment to a woman
b. Threatening her with legal proceedings if she takes away property supplied to her
c. Allowing her to leave freely
d. Reporting the matter to the police
10. Under Section 6(3)(b), threatening a woman with legal proceedings regarding jewellery or money supplied to her may indicate:
a. Lawful contract enforcement
b. Detention for prostitution purposes
c. Civil liability only
d. Police investigation
11. The presumption under Section 6(3) applies where the woman or girl is detained for the purpose of sexual intercourse with:
a. Her lawful husband
b. Any family member
c. A man other than her lawful husband
d. Only a foreign national
12. Section 6(4) provides that no legal proceeding shall lie against the woman or girl for recovery of:
a. Any property allegedly lent or supplied to her
b. Any jewellery pledged by her
c. Any money alleged to be payable by her
d. All of the above
13. The bar on suits or legal proceedings under Section 6(4) applies to actions initiated by:
a. Police authorities
b. The Magistrate
c. The person who detained the woman or girl
d. The State Government
14. The protection provided under Section 6(4) ensures that a detained woman or girl cannot be sued for recovery of:
a. Jewellery supplied to her
b. Wearing apparel supplied to her
c. Money allegedly payable by her
d. All of the above
15. The main objective of Section 6(4) is to:
a. Protect brothel owners
b. Protect detained women or girls from civil claims by the person detaining them
c. Facilitate recovery of debts
d. Allow legal enforcement of agreements
16. Section 7 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Detention of persons in brothels
b. Prostitution in or in the vicinity of public places
c. Procuring persons for prostitution
d. Living on the earnings of prostitution
17. Under Section 7(1), prostitution carried on within certain prohibited areas is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
18. The offence under Section 7(1) applies to:
a. Only the prostitute
b. Only the brothel owner
c. Both the person carrying on prostitution and the person with whom prostitution is carried on
d. Only the customer
19. Prostitution is prohibited under Section 7 if carried out in premises within areas notified under:
a. Section 7(2)
b. Section 7(3)
c. Section 8(1)
d. Section 5(1)
20. Under Section 7(1), prostitution is prohibited within a distance of:
a. 50 metres
b. 100 metres
c. 200 metres
d. 500 metres
21. Which of the following places is specifically mentioned in Section 7 as requiring protection from prostitution activities within 200 metres?
a. Railway station
b. Educational institution
c. Market place
d. Cinema hall
22. Under Section 7(1), prostitution is prohibited within 200 metres of which of the following?
- Public religious worship places
- Educational institutions
- Hospitals or nursing homes
- Hostels
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. The authority empowered to notify certain public places for the purposes of Section 7 includes:
a. The President of India
b. The Commissioner of Police or Magistrate
c. The High Court
d. The District Collector only
24. Notifications regarding prohibited public places under Section 7 must be issued in the manner:
a. Prescribed under the Act
b. Directed by the High Court
c. Specified by local police orders only
d. Approved by Parliament
25. If prostitution under Section 7 involves a child or minor, the minimum punishment shall be:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
26. The maximum punishment for prostitution involving a child or minor under Section 7(1A) may extend to:
a. Ten years
b. Twelve years
c. Fourteen years
d. Life imprisonment
27. Under Section 7(1A), the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Compensation only
b. Fine
c. Property confiscation only
d. Community service
28. The court may impose imprisonment of less than seven years under Section 7(1A) if:
a. The offender pleads guilty
b. The victim withdraws the complaint
c. Adequate and special reasons are recorded in the judgment
d. The offender pays compensation
29. The stricter punishment under Section 7(1A) applies when the offence relates to:
a. A major person
b. A foreign national
c. A child or minor
d. A married person
30. Section 7 primarily aims to prevent prostitution activities near:
a. Industrial areas
b. Sensitive public places such as religious, educational and medical institutions
c. Private residential areas
d. Agricultural land
31. Under Section 7(2)(a), an offence is committed when the keeper of a public place knowingly permits:
a. Gambling activities
b. Prostitutes to resort to or remain in such place for purposes of their trade
c. Public meetings
d. Commercial activities
32. Under Section 7(2)(b), which of the following persons may be punished for allowing premises to be used for prostitution?
a. Tenant
b. Lessee or occupier
c. Person in charge of premises
d. All of the above
33. Under Section 7(2)(c), liability may arise for:
a. Owner or landlord of premises
b. Lessor of premises
c. Agent of such owner or landlord
d. All of the above
34. For the first conviction under Section 7(2), imprisonment may extend to:
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
35. For the first conviction under Section 7(2), the fine may extend to:
a. ₹100
b. ₹200
c. ₹500
d. ₹1,000
36. For a second or subsequent conviction under Section 7(2), imprisonment may extend to:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. One year
37. In case of second or subsequent conviction under Section 7(2), the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Fine which may extend to ₹200
b. Confiscation of property
c. Community service
d. Police supervision
38. If the public place or premises involved is a hotel, the licence for carrying on the business may be:
a. Immediately cancelled
b. Suspended for not less than three months and up to one year
c. Suspended for up to two years
d. Permanently revoked without conditions
39. If the offence under Section 7(2) involving prostitution in a hotel relates to a child or minor, the licence of the hotel shall be liable to:
a. Suspension only
b. Cancellation
c. Warning only
d. Temporary sealing
40. For the purposes of Section 7(2), the term “hotel” has the same meaning as given in:
a. The Indian Penal Code
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Section 2(6) of the Hotel-Receipts Tax Act, 1980
d. The Companies Act, 2013
41. Under Section 7(3), the authority empowered to prohibit prostitution in specified areas by notification is:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court
42. The State Government may prohibit prostitution in certain areas after considering:
1. The kinds of persons frequenting the area
2. The nature and density of population
3. Other relevant considerations
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
43. A notification issued under Section 7(3) must be published in the:
a. National newspaper
b. Official Gazette
c. Police bulletin
d. District court register
44. Under Section 7(4), the State Government must define the limits of the area mentioned in the notification:
a. Approximately
b. With reasonable certainty
c. As determined by police
d. Without specification
45. A notification under Section 7(3) shall not take effect earlier than:
a. Thirty days from the date of issue
b. Sixty days from the date of issue
c. Ninety days from the date of issue
d. One hundred and twenty days from the date of issue
46. The main objective of Section 7(3)–(5) is to:
a. Regulate brothel licensing
b. Empower the State Government to declare prostitution-free zones
c. Increase punishment for prostitution
d. Establish corrective institutions
47. Under Section 7(5), a notification issued under Section 7(3) shall not take effect before the expiry of:
a. Thirty days from the date of issue
b. Sixty days from the date of issue
c. Ninety days from the date of issue
d. One hundred and twenty days from the date of issue
48. The restriction under Section 7(5) ensures that a notification prohibiting prostitution in certain areas:
a. Takes effect immediately
b. Takes effect only after judicial approval
c. Does not take effect earlier than ninety days after it is issued
d. Takes effect only after one year
49. The purpose of the ninety-day period mentioned in Section 7(5) is mainly to:
a. Allow time for judicial review
b. Provide notice and reasonable time before the notification becomes effective
c. Allow police investigation
d. Enable Parliament to approve the notification
50. Which of the following statements regarding Section 7(5) is correct?
a. The notification becomes effective immediately upon publication.
b. The notification cannot be made effective earlier than ninety days after its issue.
c. The notification becomes effective only after one year.
d. The notification requires approval of the High Court.
51. Section 8 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Detaining persons in brothels
b. Seducing or soliciting for the purpose of prostitution
c. Procuring persons for prostitution
d. Living on the earnings of prostitution
52. Under Section 8, the offence must occur:
a. Only inside a brothel
b. In any public place or within sight of a public place
c. Only inside private residences
d. Only in hotels
53. Seducing or soliciting for prostitution may be committed by:
a. Words
b. Gestures
c. Wilful exposure of the person
d. All of the above
54. Which of the following acts may constitute an offence under Section 8?
a. Sitting by a window or balcony to attract persons for prostitution
b. Advertising lawful employment
c. Operating a registered business
d. Conducting social gatherings
55. Under Section 8(a), attempting to attract the attention of any person for prostitution may occur through:
a. Words or gestures
b. Wilful exposure of the person
c. Any similar act intended to tempt a person
d. All of the above
56. Soliciting or molesting any person for prostitution in a public place constitutes an offence when it:
a. Promotes business
b. Causes obstruction or annoyance to nearby residents or passers-by
c. Occurs during daytime only
d. Is reported by a police officer
57. The punishment for the first conviction under Section 8 may extend to imprisonment for:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. One year
58. The fine for the first conviction under Section 8 may extend to:
a. ₹200
b. ₹300
c. ₹500
d. ₹1,000
59. For a second or subsequent conviction under Section 8, imprisonment may extend to:
a. Six months
b. Nine months
c. One year
d. Two years
60. In the case of second or subsequent conviction under Section 8, the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Fine up to ₹500
b. Fine up to ₹1000
c. Property confiscation
d. Community service
61. The offence under Section 8 may be committed even if the act occurs:
a. Inside a building but visible from a public place
b. Only on the street
c. Only in open public areas
d. Only near religious places
62. Which of the following behaviours may constitute solicitation under Section 8(b)?
1. Loitering for prostitution purposes
2. Molesting persons
3. Causing annoyance to passers-by
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
63. The offence under Section 8 may also arise when conduct:
a. Promotes tourism
b. Offends against public decency
c. Increases local employment
d. Encourages lawful trade
64. Under the proviso to Section 8, if the offence is committed by a man, the minimum punishment shall be imprisonment for:
a. Three days
b. Seven days
c. Fifteen days
d. One month
65. Under the proviso to Section 8, the imprisonment for a man committing the offence may extend to:
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
66. Section 9 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Seducing or soliciting in public places
b. Seduction of a person in custody
c. Detention of persons in brothels
d. Living on the earnings of prostitution
67. Under Section 9, the offence occurs when a person causes or aids the seduction for prostitution of a person who is:
a. A stranger
b. In his custody, charge, care, or under his authority
c. A tenant
d. A police officer
68. Section 9 applies to a person who has:
a. Financial control over another person
b. Custody, charge, care, or a position of authority over another person
c. Ownership of a brothel
d. Control over public places
69. Under Section 9, the offence may be committed if the accused:
a. Causes seduction for prostitution
b. Aids in seduction for prostitution
c. Abets seduction for prostitution
d. All of the above
70. The minimum punishment prescribed under Section 9 is imprisonment for:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Three years
71. The maximum punishment under Section 9 may extend to:
a. Ten years only
b. Fourteen years only
c. Life imprisonment
d. Twenty years
72. Under Section 9, imprisonment may also extend to a term of:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Twelve years
73. In addition to imprisonment under Section 9, the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Fine
b. Confiscation of property
c. Community service
d. Police supervision
74. The court may impose a sentence of imprisonment for less than seven years under Section 9 if:
a. The accused pleads guilty
b. Adequate and special reasons are recorded in the judgment
c. The victim withdraws the complaint
d. The accused is a first offender
75. The essence of the offence under Section 9 is the abuse of:
a. Property ownership
b. Public authority
c. Custody, care, or position of authority over a person
d. Financial transactions
76. Section 10 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act originally dealt with:
a. Detention in corrective institutions
b. Release on probation of good conduct or after due admonition
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Establishment of protective homes
77. Section 10 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act was omitted by:
a. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
b. Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls (Amendment) Act, 1986
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2000
d. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
78. The omission of Section 10 was made under:
a. Section 10 of the Amendment Act
b. Section 12 of the Amendment Act
c. Section 13 of the Amendment Act
d. Section 15 of the Amendment Act
79. The Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls (Amendment) Act, 1986 is numbered as:
a. Act 40 of 1986
b. Act 42 of 1986
c. Act 44 of 1986
d. Act 46 of 1986
80. Section 10 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act was omitted with effect from:
a. 15 August 1986
b. 26 January 1987
c. 1 January 1988
d. 2 October 1987
81. Section 10A of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Release on probation
b. Detention in a corrective institution
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Closure of brothels
82. Section 10A applies when a female offender is found guilty of an offence under:
a. Section 3 or Section 4
b. Section 5 or Section 6
c. Section 7 or Section 8
d. Section 8 or Section 9
83. Under Section 10A(1), the court may order detention in a corrective institution:
a. In addition to imprisonment
b. In lieu of a sentence of imprisonment
c. Only after completion of imprisonment
d. Only upon request of the offender
84. The minimum period for detention in a corrective institution under Section 10A is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
85. The maximum period for detention in a corrective institution under Section 10A is:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
86. The court may order detention in a corrective institution if it considers the offender’s:
1. Character
2. State of health
3. Mental condition
4. Other circumstances of the case
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Before passing an order for detention in a corrective institution, the court must:
a. Immediately issue the order
b. Give the offender an opportunity to be heard
c. Refer the matter to the police
d. Seek approval from the State Government
88. Before passing the order under Section 10A, the court must consider the report of the:
a. Police officer
b. District Magistrate
c. Probation officer appointed under the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
d. Public prosecutor
89. The probation officer referred to in Section 10A is appointed under:
a. The Indian Penal Code
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure
c. The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
d. The Juvenile Justice Act
90. Under Section 10A, the court must record that the offender is likely to benefit from:
a. Police supervision
b. Instruction and discipline conducive to correction
c. Financial compensation
d. Community service
91. The court must consider any representation made by the offender regarding:
a. Her innocence
b. Suitability of the case for treatment in a corrective institution
c. Reduction of fine
d. Transfer of the case
92. Detention in a corrective institution under Section 10A aims primarily at:
a. Punishment of the offender
b. Rehabilitation and correction of the offender
c. Compensation to victims
d. Deterrence through strict imprisonment
93. Which of the following is not required before passing an order under Section 10A?
a. Opportunity to be heard to the offender
b. Consideration of probation officer’s report
c. Recording satisfaction regarding benefit from correction
d. Approval from the Central Government
94. The detention ordered under Section 10A must be for a term:
a. Exactly three years
b. Between two and five years
c. Between one and five years
d. Not exceeding ten years
95. The purpose of instruction and discipline in a corrective institution under Section 10A is:
a. To impose additional punishment
b. To promote the correction of the offender
c. To ensure police supervision
d. To recover fines from the offender
96. Under Section 10A(2), the provisions relating to appeal, reference and revision applicable to an order of detention are contained in:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
97. For the purpose of appeal under Section 10A(2), an order of detention shall be treated as if it were:
a. A police order
b. A sentence of imprisonment for the same period
c. A civil decree
d. A preventive detention order
98. The limitation period for filing an appeal against an order of detention under Section 10A is governed by the:
a. Limitation Act, 1963
b. Criminal Procedure Code only
c. Indian Penal Code
d. Evidence Act
99. The provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963 applicable under Section 10A relate to:
a. Procedure for investigation
b. Period within which an appeal shall be filed
c. Punishment for offences
d. Evidence in criminal trials
100. Under Section 10A(3), the authority empowered to discharge an offender from a corrective institution after detention includes:
a. Central Government
b. State Government or authorised authority
c. High Court only
d. Police Commissioner only
101. An offender detained in a corrective institution may be discharged under Section 10A(3) after the expiry of at least:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
102. The discharge of an offender from a corrective institution under Section 10A(3) may occur when the authority is satisfied that the offender:
a. Has paid the imposed fine
b. Will lead a useful and industrious life
c. Has completed half of the sentence
d. Has obtained employment
103. Upon discharge under Section 10A(3), the offender may be granted:
a. A bail bond
b. A written licence in the prescribed form
c. A parole certificate
d. A rehabilitation allowance
104. The discharge under Section 10A(3) may be granted:
a. Only without conditions
b. Only with conditions
c. Either without conditions or with conditions
d. Only after court approval
105. The conditions imposed upon discharge under Section 10A(4) may include requirements regarding:
a. Residence of the offender
b. Supervision over the offender’s activities and movements
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
106. The supervision of an offender’s activities and movements after discharge from a corrective institution aims to:
a. Continue punishment
b. Ensure social rehabilitation and monitoring
c. Impose financial penalties
d. Conduct police interrogation
107. Which of the following laws are specifically referred to in Section 10A(2)?
1. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
2. Limitation Act, 1963
3. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
108. The discharge of an offender from a corrective institution under Section 10A(3) is subject to:
a. Judicial review by High Court
b. Rules made in this behalf
c. Approval of Parliament
d. Recommendation of police authorities
109. The written licence granted to an offender discharged under Section 10A(3) must be in:
a. Any format decided by police
b. A form prescribed under the rules
c. A format approved by the court
d. A format approved by Parliament
110. The provisions under Section 10A(3) primarily promote:
a. Early punishment
b. Conditional rehabilitation and reintegration of the offender
c. Permanent detention
d. Mandatory imprisonment
111. Section 11 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act deals with:
a. Appointment of special police officers
b. Notification of address of previously convicted offenders
c. Establishment of protective homes
d. Closure of brothels
112. Under Section 11(1), an order for notification of residence may be made when a person is again convicted within:
a. Three years after release from prison
b. Five years after release from prison
c. Seven years after release from prison
d. Ten years after release from prison
113. The earlier conviction required under Section 11(1) must involve imprisonment for a term of:
a. One year or more
b. Two years or more
c. Three years or more
d. Five years or more
114. Section 11 applies where a person previously convicted under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act is again convicted under:
a. Only the same Act
b. Only the Indian Penal Code
c. This Act or certain specified sections of the Indian Penal Code
d. Only foreign laws
115. Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code are referred to in Section 11?
1. Section 363
2. Section 366A
3. Section 370
4. Section 372
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
116.The court may order the offender to notify:
a. His place of employment
b. His residence and any change or absence from such residence
c. His family details
d. His financial transactions
117. The period for which the residence notification may be required shall not exceed:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
118. The period of notification of residence under Section 11 is calculated from:
a. The date of conviction
b. The date of arrest
c. The date of expiration of the sentence
d. The date of filing the charge sheet
119. The rules regarding notification of residence under Section 11 are made under:
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24
120. If the conviction on which the order of residence notification is based is set aside on appeal, the order shall:
a. Continue for the remaining period
b. Become void
c. Be reduced in duration
d. Require confirmation by the High Court
121. An order under Section 11 may also be made by:
a. The police authorities
b. The State Government
c. An Appellate Court or the High Court exercising revision powers
d. Only the trial court
122. A person charged with breach of a rule relating to residence notification may be tried by:
a. A Sessions Court only
b. A Magistrate of competent jurisdiction
c. A High Court only
d. A special tribunal
123. The trial for breach of notification rules shall take place in the district where:
a. The offender was originally convicted
b. The offender was arrested
c. The last notified place of residence is situated
d. The offence was investigated
124. Section 11 mainly aims to:
a. Increase punishment for prostitution
b. Monitor repeat offenders after release from prison
c. Establish corrective institutions
d. Regulate public places
125. Which of the following conditions must exist for an order under Section 11 to be made?
1. Prior conviction with imprisonment of two years or more
2. Subsequent conviction within five years after release
3. Conviction under this Act or specified IPC sections
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
126. Section 12 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act originally dealt with:
a. Notification of residence of offenders
b. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders
c. Appointment of special police officers
d. Closure of brothels
127. Section 12 was omitted by:
a. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
b. Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Women and Girls (Amendment) Act, 1986
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2000
d. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
128. The amendment that omitted Section 12 is numbered as:
a. Act 42 of 1986
b. Act 43 of 1986
c. Act 44 of 1986
d. Act 45 of 1986
129. Section 12 was omitted under which provision of the Amendment Act?
a. Section 10
b. Section 11
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
130. The omission of Section 12 took effect from:
a. 15 August 1986
b. 26 January 1987
c. 1 January 1988
d. 2 October 1987
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