Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -8 PDF
1. 5³ =
a. 25
b. 75
c. 125
d. 150
2. Which Indian musical instrument is associated with Ustad Amjad Ali Khan?
a. Sitar
b. Santoor
c. Sarod
d. Shehnai
3. Which country currently hosts the headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
a. Switzerland
b. Austria
c. Germany
d. France
4. The northernmost mountain range of India is:
a. Himadri
b. Himachal
c. Shiwalik
d. Aravalli
5. Which metal is extracted from bauxite?
a. Iron
b. Aluminium
c. Copper
d. Zinc
6. The Peninsular rivers are mostly:
a. Perennial
b. Seasonal
c. Snow-fed
d. Glacier-fed
7. Which Indian city hosts the headquarters of SEBI?
a. New Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Chennai
d. Kolkata
8. International Yoga Day is celebrated on:
a. 5 June
b. 21 June
c. 11 July
d. 24 October
9. UNESCO headquarters is in:
a. Paris
b. Rome
c. Geneva
d. Brussels
10. 24% of 50 =
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
11. The chemical formula of gypsum is:
a. CaSO₄·2H₂O
b. CaCO₃
c. Na₂CO₃
d. NaHCO₃
12. National Science Day in India is celebrated on:
a. 26 February
b. 27 February
c. 28 February
d. 1 March
13. Which district is known for the Battle of Panipat?
a. Sonipat
b. Panipat
c. Rohtak
d. Jhajjar
14. Haryana contributes significantly to India's:
a. Food Grain Production
b. Tea Production
c. Coffee Production
d. Rubber Production
15. Which writ means "by what authority"?
a. Certiorari
b. Quo Warranto
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
16. Which law states that pressure applied to a liquid is transmitted equally in all directions?
a. Archimedes’ Principle
b. Pascal’s Law
c. Boyle’s Law
d. Charles’ Law
17. Shivaji belonged to the:
a. Rajput dynasty
b. Maratha dynasty
c. Lodi dynasty
d. Sayyid dynasty
18. The Buddhist concept of ultimate liberation is:
a. Karma
b. Ahimsa
c. Nirvana
d. Yoga
19. International Day of Nowruz is observed on:
a. 20 March
b. 21 March
c. 22 March
d. 23 March
20. The revenue system of Shivaji was called:
a. Chauth and Sardeshmukhi
b. Zabti
c. Iqta
d. Dahsala
21. Which gas is used in welding?
a. Nitrogen
b. Acetylene
c. Helium
d. Neon
22. The Great Slave Lake is located in:
a. USA
b. Russia
c. Canada
d. Norway
23. The Mediterranean climate is characterized by:
a. Summer rainfall
b. Winter rainfall
c. Uniform rainfall
d. No rainfall
24. The Sundarbans are famous for:
a. Asiatic Lions
b. Mangrove Forests
c. Desert Vegetation
d. Alpine Forests
25. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 61st Amendment
26. Kaziranga National Park is famous for:
a. Tigers
b. Lions
c. One-horned Rhinoceros
d. Elephants
27. The famous Dhosi Hill is located near:
a. Narnaul
b. Karnal
c. Panipat
d. Kaithal
28. According to tradition, the founder of Jainism was:
a. Mahavira
b. Parshvanatha
c. Rishabhanatha
d. Neminatha
29. The Cardamom Hills are located in:
a. Kerala
b. Odisha
c. Gujarat
d. Rajasthan
30. Which district is famous for slate stone?
a. Mahendragarh
b. Jhajjar
c. Kaithal
d. Kurukshetra
31. The famous Surajkund Mela is held in:
a. Panipat
b. Faridabad
c. Karnal
d. Rohtak
32. The six freedoms are guaranteed under:
a. Article 18
b. Article 19
c. Article 20
d. Article 21
33. Cultural and Educational Rights are contained in:
a. Articles 25–28
b. Articles 29–30
c. Articles 32–35
d. Articles 36–51
34. Which institution releases the Global Financial Stability Report?
a. WTO
b. IMF
c. ADB
d. OECD
35. Complete:
a. AZ, BY, CX, __
b. DV
c. DW
d. DU
36. CISF Raising Day is celebrated on:
a. 8 March
b. 9 March
c. 10 March
d. 11 March
37. Cup : Tea :: Plate : ?
a. Spoon
b. Food
c. Rice
d. Water
38. The gas used in electric bulbs is:
a. Nitrogen
b. Argon
c. Hydrogen
d. Oxygen
39. Which Jain sect accepts clothing for monks?
a. Digambara
b. Shvetambara
c. Ajivika
d. Hinayana
40. Jainism strongly advocates:
a. Human sacrifice
b. Ahimsa
c. Idol worship only
d. Polytheism
41. World Statistics Day is celebrated every:
a. Year
b. 2 Years
c. 5 Years
d. 10 Years
42. The symbol of Jainism is most closely associated with:
a. Trident
b. Wheel
c. Hand with Ahimsa
d. Lotus
43. If MOON = NPPO, then STAR = ?
a. TUBS
b. TUBQ
c. TUBR
d. TUBA
44. The unit of magnetic field strength is:
a. Tesla
b. Henry
c. Weber
d. Coulomb
45. World Habitat Day is observed on:
a. First Monday of October
b. 5 June
c. 10 December
d. 22 April
46. The "Gurjara-Pratihara" style influenced the development of:
a. Nagara Architecture
b. Dravida Architecture
c. Vesara Architecture
d. Indo-Islamic Architecture
47. Which metal is extracted from cinnabar ore?
a. Lead
b. Zinc
c. Mercury
d. Copper
48. Which dance form is performed mainly by male artists wearing colorful masks?
a. Chhau
b. Odissi
c. Kathak
d. Manipuri
49. Domingo Paes visited India during the reign of:
a. Akbar
b. Krishnadevaraya
c. Aurangzeb
d. Balban
50. Which disease is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B1?
a. Beriberi
b. Scurvy
c. Rickets
d. Pellagra
51. Inquiry under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, is conducted by-
a. Magistrate only
b. Police Officer
c. Sessions Court
d. Magistrate or Court
52. Such contract between partners may be varied:
a. By majority of partners
b. By consent of all the partners
c. By the managing partner
d. By the Registrar of Firms
53. ‘Decree holder’ means any person in whose favor a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made. This definition of the term ‘decree holder’ is mentioned under:
a. Section-2(2), C.P.C.
b. Section-2(3), C.P.C.
c. Section-2(4), C.P.C.
d. Section-2(d), C.P.C.
54. A suit dismissed under Order IX, Rule 8 of C.P.C. for non-appearance of the plaintiff can be restored under:—
a. Order IX, Rule 9
b. Order IX, Rule 10
c. Order IX, Rule 11
d. None of the above
55. What is not correct about the self defence?
a. Nothing is offence which is done in exercise of right of private defence
b. Right of private defence is extended to causing death in the case of robbery
c. Right of private defence is extended to causing death in defamation case
d. There is no right of private defence, if there is time to have recourse to the protection of public authorities.
56. A plaint can be rejected
a. under Order VII, Rule 10 of CPC
b. under Order VII, Rule 10A of CPC
c. under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC
d. all of the above
57. Petition for declaring marriage void may be filed by:
a. Only husband
b. Only wife
c. Either party to the marriage
d. State Government
58. When the High Court or any Sessions Judge calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as:
a. Reference
b. Review
c. Revision
d. None of the above
59. "Written document must be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following sections of BSA
a. Section 89
b. Section 94
c. Section 127
d. None of the above
60. Under Section 483 of BNSS the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with:
a. The Court of Sessions
b. The High Court
c. The Court of Magistrate
d. Only (a) &(b)
61. ‘A’ is tried for murder of 'B' by administering Potassium Cynide. The fact that A has purchased potassium cynide just before the murder of B is relevant under
a. Section 4
b. Section 6
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
62. Contract of Insurance is contract of:
a. Guarantee
b. Indemnity
c. Bailment
d. Quasi-contract
63. A promises to paint a picture for B by a certain day at a certain price. A dies before the day.
a. The agreement does not lapse and can be confirmed by or against the legal representatives of A.
b. The agreement becomes voidable at; the option of A’s legal representatives.
c. The agreement lapses for both the parties.
d. The agreement becomes unlawful.
64. A, an illiterate person, executes some document in favour of B. The burden of proof lies on:—
a. A, an illiterate person
b. B, in whose favour document has been executed
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. inference should be drawn from document executed
65. The role of High Court under Section 21 is to:
a. Decide marriage validity
b. Make procedural rules
c. Grant divorce
d. Enforce punishment
66. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Injury is any harm whatever illegally caused to any person in his
a. Body or mind only
b. Body, mind, reputation or property
c. Body or reputation only
d. Body or property only
67. Who among the following is liable for committing an offence?
a. Child between 7 & 10 years of age.
b. Child below 10 years of age.
c. Child between 7 & 12 years of age having maturity of understanding
d. Child below eight years of age
68. It is necessary that Ijab and Qubul shall be completed in one meeting. The statement is-
a. True
b. False
c. Partly correct
d. None of the above.
69. Which of the following suits is of civil nature?
a. Suits relating to right to property
b. Suits relating to right of worship
c. Suits for damages for civil wrongs
d. All of the above
70. Which of the following is a mismatch?
a. Matrimonial communication—Section 128
b. Official communication—Section 130
c. Professional communication—Section 132
d. Confidential communication with legal advisor—Section 127
71. “Quality of goods” includes their:
a. Price
b. Quantity
c. State or condition
d. Ownership
72. Every person is competent to contract-
a. who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject.
b. who is of sound mind.
c. who is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
d. all the above.
73. Which of the following act will not fall in general exceptions provided under Chapter III of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
a. Act likely to cause harm but done without criminal intent and prevent other harm
b. Accident in doing a lawful act
c. Act of the child aged 14 years
d. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified by law
74. The contents of documents may be proved by:
a. direct evidence only
b. indirect evidence only
c. direct evidence & indirect evidence
d. none of the above
75. Consider the following statements: Abetment is constituted by
1. Instigating a person to commit an offence.
2. Engaging in a conspiracy to commit it.
3. Intentionally aiding a person to commit it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
76. The dissolution of partnership between all the partners of a firm is called:
a. Retirement of partners
b. Dissolution of the firm
c. Reconstitution of firm
d. Winding up of business
77. At any time before the Judgement is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with the consent of the Court by: —
a. A person filing F.I.R.
b. Investigation officer in the matter
c. Assistant public prosecutor or concerned A.P.P.
d. Victim of the crime
78. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte
2. No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties
3. No appeal shall lie on a question of law
a. Only (1)
b. Only (2)
c. Only (3)
d. Both (1) and (2)
79. Under Indian Contract Act, which of the following contracts is not a valid contract?
a. By a written registered document A promises to give Rs. 5000 to B for natural love and affection
b. By an oral agreement B agrees to pay time barred debt of A
c. A went on a pilgrimage, B paid his electricity bills A agrees to pay back the amount paid by B to him
d. A supports B’s infant son, B promises to pay A's expenses in so doing
80. In which case the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986?
a. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945
b. Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain, AIR 1979 SC 362
c. Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740
d. None of the above
81. Provisions of section 80 of the Civil Procedure Code are
a. mandatory
b. directory
c. discretionary
d. none of the above
82. Provisions regarding confession made to a police officer is given in which section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.?
a. Section 24
b. Section 23(1)
c. Section 26
d. Section 27
83. Civil Court’s jurisdiction is barred in proceedings under
a. Industrial Disputes Act
b. Income-tax recovery under Income Tax Act
c. Administrative Tribunal Act
d. All of the above
84. ‘X', a surgeon, amputates the right hand index finger of 'Y, a 14 Year old Beggar, with 'Y's consent, and in good faith that this would enable 'Y' to get more alms:
a. 'X' commits no offence as the act was done with consent of 'Y'
b. 'X' commits an offence as the consent of a child of 14 years is of no avail
c. 'X' commits no offence as the act was done in good faith for the benefit and with the consent of 'Y'.
d. 'X' is not exempted from criminal liability as the act done was not in good faith within the meaning of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
85. Section 4(b) refers to:
a. Only Hindu customs
b. Only personal laws
c. Any other law inconsistent with the Act
d. Only state laws
86. Under C.P.C., which of following is not a decree?
a. Dismissal of suit in default
b. Rejection of a plaint
c. Dismissal of suit in default & rejection of a plaint
d. None
87. A summon issued by a Court must be in:
a. writing
b. duplicate
c. signed by the presiding officer of the Court or other officer as directed by the High Court
d. all the above
88. Necessary expenses include:
a. Personal expenses
b. Expenses for preservation and possession of goods
c. Travel expenses
d. Court fees only
89. Under which Section of BNSS the summons may be served by leaving it with some adult member of the family of concerned person?
a. Section 62
b. Section 63
c. Section 66
d. Section 65
90. Examine the two statements and give the correct answer:
Assertion (A): A boy of six and half year old intentionally kills B. A is not liable for murder.
Reason (R): A child under the age of seven years is immune from criminal liability
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
91. The plea of 'Alibi' is established by:
a. prosecution
b. accused
c. either by prosecution or by accused
d. none of the above
92. In which set of Sections of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 even death can be caused in exercise of right to private defence of person and property?
a. Sections 38 and 41
b. Sections 38 and 39
c. Sections 40 and 43
d. Sections 38 and 40
93. Under which Section Magistrate has power to issue 'commission' for examination of witness in prison?
a. Section 305
b. Section 306
c. Section 307
d. Section 308
94. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I List-II
A. Novation 1. Sec. 70 I.C.A.
B. Unjust enrichment 2. Sec. 62 I.C.A.
C. Party competent to contract 3. Sec. 15 I.C.A.
D. Dispossession of property 4. Sec. 11 I.C.A
induces by threat to cause
death
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 4 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 3 1 2 4
95. Contravention of Section 5(iii) (age condition) is punishable with:
a. Simple imprisonment up to 1 month
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹1 lakh or both
c. Life imprisonment
d. No punishment
96. Dying declaration may be made to a
a. doctor
b. magistrate
c. any other person
d. all of the above
97. Under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if a person is arrested by Police Officer without warrant, whether such person, has been admitted to bail or otherwise, the officer in-charge of the police station shall report to
a. The District Magistrate only
b. The sub-divisional Magistrate only
c. The District Magistrate or if he so directs, to the Sub-divisional Magistrate
d. The Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
98. One right of unpaid seller is:
a. Ownership
b. Lien on goods while in possession
c. Mortgage
d. Lease
99. Consent will be said to be free, when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The term ‘free consent’ has been defined in which Section of the Contract Act?
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16
d. Section 7
100. Under the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provision of Section 144 BNSS may be given by the parties —
a. Either jointly or separately
b. Separately
c. Jointly
d. None of the above
Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -8 PDF