Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Mock Test-6

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1. The main language of Haryana is:

a. Punjabi

b. Hindi

c. Haryanvi

d. Sanskrit

 

2. Which scientist gave the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a. Lamarck

b. Darwin

c. Mendel

d. Haeckel

 

3. The theme of India's BRICS Chairship 2026 is:

a. Global Peace and Security

b. Building Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability

c. Green Growth for All

d. One World One Future

 

4. Which city is known as the “Cyber City” of Haryana?

a. Panipat

b. Gurugram

c. Faridabad

d. Ambala

 

5. Which organization publishes the Global Risks Report?

a. IMF

b. WEF

c. WTO

d. ADB

 

6. Ahmad Shah Abdali belonged to:

a. Persia

b. Afghanistan

c. Turkey

d. Arabia

 

7. Which scientist discovered penicillin?

a. Edward Jenner

b. Alexander Fleming

c. Louis Pasteur

d. Robert Koch

 

8. Which district of Haryana borders Delhi?

a. Gurugram

b. Faridabad

c. Sonipat

d. All of these

 

9. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:

a. Geneva

b. New York

c. Paris

d. Vienna

 

10. International Literacy Day is observed on:

a. 5 September

b. 8 September

c. 14 September

d. 21 September

 

11. Which disease is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B3?

a. Pellagra

b. Beriberi

c. Scurvy

d. Rickets

 

12. If x − 4 = 10, x = ?

a. 12

b. 13

c. 14

d. 15

 

13. The Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is:

a. Constitutional Bill

b. Finance Bill

c. Money Bill

d. Ordinary Bill

 

14. Zero Discrimination Day is observed on:

a. 1 March

b. 2 March

c. 3 March

d. 4 March

 

15. The unit of force is:

a. Joule

b. Watt

c. Newton

d. Volt

 

16. Buddha delivered his first sermon at:

a. Rajgir

b. Vaishali

c. Sarnath

d. Taxila

 

17. Which blood cells help in clotting?

a. RBC

b. WBC

c. Platelets

d. Plasma

 

18. The atomic number of hydrogen is:

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

 

19. The instrument used to measure blood pressure is:

a. Thermometer

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. Lactometer

d. Hygrometer

 

20. The famous traveller Marco Polo visited India during the rule of:

a. Vijayanagara Empire

b. Pandya Kingdom

c. Delhi Sultanate

d. Mughal Empire

 

21. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India?

a. Rajiv Kumar

b. Gyanesh Kumar

c. Arun Goel

d. Sushil Chandra

 

22. The largest artery in the human body is:

a. Pulmonary Artery

b. Coronary Artery

c. Aorta

d. Carotid Artery

 

23. Which ancient Indian ruler maintained a large standing army as described by Megasthenes?

a. Harsha

b. Chandragupta Maurya

c. Kanishka

d. Samudragupta

 

24. The headquarters of Maruti Suzuki is located in:

a. Faridabad

b. Gurugram

c. Rohtak

d. Sonipat

 

25. Which Amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

 

26. Which Article provides for Special Leave Petition (SLP)?

a. Article 131

b. Article 136

c. Article 141

d. Article 142

 

27. BRICS New Development Bank headquarters is in:

a. Beijing

b. New Delhi

c. Shanghai

d. Moscow

 

28. World Ozone Day is celebrated on:

a. 5 June

b. 16 September

c. 21 March

d. 22 April

 

29. Bindusara was the son of:

a. Ashoka

b. Chandragupta Maurya

c. Harsha

d. Bimbisara

 

30. Army Day in India is celebrated on:

a. 14 January

b. 15 January

c. 16 January

d. 17 January

 

31. The Sun Temple of Modhera is located in:

a. Rajasthan

b. Gujarat

c. Madhya Pradesh

d. Maharashtra

 

32. The Bahmani kingdom later split into:

a. Two states

b. Three states

c. Five Deccan Sultanates

d. Ten provinces

 

33. National Youth Day in India is celebrated on:

a. 10 January

b. 11 January

c. 12 January

d. 13 January

 

34. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble?

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

 

35. Statement: Some apples are fruits.

a. Conclusion: Some fruits are apples.

b. True

c. False

d. Cannot say

 

36. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

a. Tamil Nadu

b. Maharashtra

c. Gujarat

d. Andhra Pradesh

 

37. The traditional theatre form "Tamasha" belongs to:

a. Gujarat

b. Maharashtra

c. Karnataka

d. Goa

 

38. Tehri Dam is located on river:

a. Yamuna

b. Ganga

c. Bhagirathi

d. Alaknanda

 

39. The Indian mainland extends from north to south by approximately:

a. 2,000 km

b. 2,500 km

c. 3,214 km

d. 4,000 km

 

40. 9 × 7 − 13 =

a. 40

b. 45

c. 50

d. 55

 

41. The "Bani Thani" painting belongs to:

a. Kishangarh School

b. Kangra School

c. Bundi School

d. Jaipur School

 

42. Find next:

a. 5, 10, 20, 40, __

b. 60

c. 70

d. 80

 

43. The eastern coastal plains are wider in:

a. Gujarat

b. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

c. Kerala

d. Goa

 

44. If DOG = EPH, then CAT = ?

a. DBU

b. DBT

c. EBU

d. DCU

 

45. Which river flows through a rift valley?

a. Krishna

b. Mahanadi

c. Narmada

d. Godavari

 

46. Which ocean surrounds Antarctica?

a. Pacific Ocean

b. Atlantic Ocean

c. Southern Ocean

d. Arctic Ocean

 

47. Which district is known as the "Gateway of Haryana"?

a. Ambala

b. Panipat

c. Sonipat

d. Karnal

 

48. Savannah climate is characterized by:

a. Heavy snowfall

b. Tropical grasslands

c. Desert vegetation

d. Mediterranean crops

 

49. Sufism emphasized:

a. Materialism

b. Love and devotion to God

c. Idol worship

d. Military conquest

 

50. The Greek ambassador Deimachus visited the court of:

a. Ashoka

b. Chandragupta Maurya

c. Bindusara

d. Harsha

 

51. In which of the following cases, the Supreme court has observed that there is no right of private defence against the right of private defence?

a. State of Punjab v. Sohan Singh

b. Surjeet Singh v. State of Punjab

c. State of U.P. v. Ram Swaroop

d. M.R. Singh v. State of Gujarat

 

52. Which Section is based on the maxim 'Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem cause' i.e. a man shall not be twice vexed for one and the same cause?

a. Section 337

b. Section 301

c. Section 302

d. Section 303

 

53. 'A' is carried off by a tiger. 'Z' fires at the tiger in good faith intending to rescue 'A', knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill 'A'. The shot fired by 'Z' gives 'A' a mortal wound. 'Z' has committed

a. No offence

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

c. Offence of causing death by negligence.

d. Murder.

 

54. Section 22 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Admission of partners

b. Mode of doing acts to bind the firm

c. Dissolution of partnership

d. Registration of firms

 

55. Which Section of BNSS authorizes the Public Prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution?

a. Section 304

b. Section 358

c. Section 360

d. Section 323

 

56. Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature?

a. Suits relating to right of worship

b. Suits relating to partnership

c. Suits relating to common law rights

d. Suits relating to political questions

 

57. Section 21B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with:

a. Transfer of petitions

b. Special provision relating to trial and disposal of petitions

c. Grounds of divorce

d. Maintenance

 

58. A, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his house keeper. In return, B agreed to pay A Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is:

a. valid

b. void

c. void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object

d. unlawful being opposed to public policy

 

59. Consider the following statements:

1. The police officer is not bound to give information about the arrest of the accused to any of his relations or friends.

2. A registered medical practitioner cannot use force to examine a person accused of rape sent by the police for such examination.

Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

60. Following is a case on Promissory Estoppel:

a. KedarNath v. Gorie Mohammed

b. Delhi Cloth and General Mills ltd. v. Union of India

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above

 

61. Who may not be released on probation?

a. A person above the age of 21 years who is convicted of an offence punishable with an imprisonment for a term of 7 years

b. A person below the age of 21 years who is convicted of an offence punishable with life imprisonment

c. A woman who is convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment of 10 years

d. None of the above

 

62. When a man advertises that he has stock of books to sell, he is making:

a. an offer

b. an invitation to offer

c. a special offer

d. a standing offer

 

63. One of the most important principles of the law of evidence is that "evidence is to be weighed and not to be counted." This has been incorporated under which Section of , BSA mainly under

a. Section 132

b. Section 133

c. Section 123

d. Section 139

 

64. Decree shall be deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.—

a. Wrong

b. Right

c. It includes rejection of plaint but does not includes the determination of any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.

d. It includes determination of any question within Section 144 but shall not include the rejection of a plaint

 

65. "Summons Case" means a case relating to an offence, punishable with:

a. Death

b. Imprisonment for life

c. Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years

d. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years

 

66. Admissions and confessions are—

1. Exception to the hearsay evidence

2. Part of hearsay evidence

3. Form relevant evidence

4. Admitted in evidence on proof

Select the correct answer by using the code given below—

Code:

a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 2

d. 2

 

67. Which final judgement, order or decree of a Competent Court, among the following is a judgement in rem?

a. In a money suit

b. In a suit for permanent injunction

c. In exercise of matrimonial or insolvency jurisdiction

d. None of the above

 

68. If respondent has not been heard of for 7 years, petition may be filed where:

a. Respondent’s birthplace

b. Petitioner’s residence

c. Marriage place only

d. Supreme Court only

 

69. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Mistake of fact is excused under criminal law because:

a. It is in the interest of public

b. There is no mens rea

c. It is a mistake

d. It is in interest of court

 

70. To ensure fairness and accuracy in a Test Identification Parade, the requirement is

a. parading persons of a social Status

b. parading persons of same or similar physical appearance along with the suspect

c. parading be done in presence of all the witnesses simultaneously

d. none of these

 

71. The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 extends to the whole India except

a. the State of Jammu & Kashmir

b. the State of Nagaland and Tribal Areas

c. (a) and (b) both

d. None of the above

 

72. The essential of valid gift under Muslim Law is-

a. Delivery of possession of the property

b. The declaration by the donor

c. The acceptance by the donee.

d. All of the above

 

73. In which of the following the right of private defence of property under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, does not extend to causing death?

a. Robbery

b. House breaking by night

c. Mischief giving apprehension of death or grievous hurt

d. Mischief by fire

e. None of these

 

74. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure it is necessary for a party to prove that in spite of all due diligence, the matter could not be raised before the commencement of the trial:

a. Order XI Rule 12

b. Order VI Rule 17

c. Order VI Rule 16

d. Order V Rule 15

 

75. In a summons case, at the time of appearance of the accused before the Magistrate, it is unnecessary to:

a. state the particulars of the offence of which he is accused

b. Frame a formal charge

c. Ask him whether he pleads guilty

d. Ask him whether he has any defence to make

 

76. Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Factual 

Situation: A, B, C and D who were unemployed, decided to loot the house of a rich businessman one night. When all of them were about to jump the compound wall, D decided to remain at the gate and warn them, in case of any problem. A, B and C entered the house and took cash and gold ornaments. While coming out of the house B tripped on a rubber hose pipe creating a sound. By this the watchman who had otherwise asleep woke up. B suddenly took the rubber hose and strangled the watchman's neck thus killing him. Later all A, B, C and D were arrested and prosecuted.

a. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the minder of the Watchman as murdering any one was not in their plan.

b. A, B and C are all liable for the robbery. B in addition, is liable for the murder of the Watchman. D is innocent of both the crimes as he was only guarding at the gate and did not participate in the crimes.

c. A, B, C and D are all liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was done in order to carry out their common plan.

d. A, B and C are liable for the robbery and murder of the Watchman as it was in fulfillment of their common plan. D is innocent as he did not participate in any of the crimes.

 

77. A muslim is prohibited to have two wives at a time, if these two wives are related to each other by —

a. Consanguinity

b. Affinity

c. Fosterage

d. All the above

 

78. A decree can be:

a. Preliminary

b. Final.

c. First preliminary then final

d. Either preliminary or final

 

79. Admissions by agents are:

a. Always admissible in civil proceedings.

b. Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions.

c. Not admissible in criminal proceedings.

d. Both (b) and (c).

 

80. The case of R v. Dudley and Stephens is known for its use as criminal defense of:

a. Necessity

b. Self defense

c. Good faith

d. Mistake of fact

 

81. Renunciation of the world means:

a. Leaving home temporarily

b. Joining religious order

c. Going abroad

d. Changing job

 

82. After rejection of plaint, whether the plaintiff can institute fresh suit on the same cause of action:—

a. can institute another suit

b. cannot instate another suit

c. can institute with the permission of the high court

d. None of the above

 

83. The Court, after the commencement of prosecution evidence, allows the Assistant Public Prosecutor to Withdraw the prosecution. The accused shall be:

a. Released

b. Discharged

c. Acquitted

d. None of the above

 

84. A person enjoying the benefits of a lawful non- gratuitous act of another:

a. is liable to compensate that another

b. is not liable to compensate that another

c. that another cannot claim any compensation

d. both (b) and (c)

 

85. Read the following:

1. The maxim "Actus me invito factus non est mens actus" finds application in Section 32 BNS.

2. The maxim "de minimis non curat lex" has been incorporated in Section 33 of BNS

Of the above:

a. (1) is true but (2) is false

b. (1) is false but (2) is true

c. Both (1) and (2) are true

d. Both (1) and (2) are false

e. None of these

 

86. The right of private defence is based on the natural instinct of:

a. Self-reliance

b. Self-respect

c. Self-sufficiency

d. Self-preservation

 

87. Which of the following sections of Indian Contract Act embodies the rule of Clayton’s case relating to appropriation of payments?

a. Section 59

b. Section 61

c. Section 60

d. Section 58

 

88. Which of the following is the wife's right when her husband does not pay dower?

a. Refuse consummation

b. File suit for recovery of dower

c. Keep possession over dead husband's property

d. All of the above

 

89. Burden of proving reasonable excuse lies on:

a. Aggrieved party

b. Court

c. Person who withdrew

d. Both parties equally

 

90. In a case of murder by A of B which facts are relevant

a. that A left immediately the place of crime before police reached

b. that A told his friends about taking revenge for his father's death

c. That A was seen fleeing with a knife immediately after murder of B

d. All of the above

 

91. A fact is conclusive proof of another fact. If that fact is proved then:

a. the court can call upon a party to prove another fact.

b. the court can allow opposite party to adduce the evidence to disprove another fact

c. both (a) and (b)

d. the court shall regard another fact as proved

 

92. Section 23 of the BSA 2023 states that a confession made to a police officer shall:

a. Be proved against a person accused of any offence

b. Not be proved against a person accused of any offence

c. Be valid if made in the presence of a lawyer

d. Be valid if recorded on video

 

93. The condition for transfer of property is that the goods must be:

a. Delivered

b. Paid for

c. Ascertained

d. Inspected

 

94. Under Section 31 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 every person is bound to assist a Magistrate or a Police Officer

a. in the taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such Magistrate or Police Officer is authorized to arrest

b. in the prevention or suppression of a breach of peace

c. in the prevention of any injury attempted to be committed to railways

d. All of the above

 

95. Which contract is void abinitio?

a. A contracts to let her daughter on hire to B for concubinage.

b. While entering into contract to see a cow, a disclosed B that the cow gives five liters milk in a day whereas it gives four liters in a day

c. At the time of contract of selling a car, A told B that mileage of the car is 20 km per liter whereas its mileage is 18 km per liter.

d. At the time of contract, A told B that the area of his house is 1400 sq. feet but on measurement the area of the house is found 1398 sq. feet

 

96. Foreign judgment as defined under Section 2(6) of CPC means:

a. judgment given by an Indian court in respect of foreigners;

b. judgment given by a foreign court.

c. judgment given by an Indian court

d. none of the above

 

97. A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of

a. discovery of new & important evidence, not within the knowledge of the party concerned

b. mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record

c. both (a) & (b)

d. none of the above

 

98. Where the property in goods is transferred from seller to buyer, the contract is called:

a. Agreement to sell

b. Bailment

c. Sale

d. Mortgage

 

99. A restriction on the implied authority of a partner does not affect a third party unless:

a. The act is unlawful

b. The third party knows of the restriction or does not know or believe the person to be a partner

c. The firm is unregistered

d. The partner acts outside India

 

100. The first case on the ‘doctrine of frustration’ as decided by the Supreme Court of India is:

a. Basanti Bastralaya v. River Steam Navigation Co.Ltd

b. Raja Dhruv Dev Chand v. Raja Harmohirider Singh

c. Sushila Devi v. Hari Singh

d. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mungneeram

 

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