Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Mock Test-5

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1. The famous Star Monument of Kos Minars is related to:

a. Mughal Road System

b. Mauryan Empire

c. Gupta Period

d. British Era

2. National Milk Day in India is celebrated on:

a. 24 November

b. 26 November

c. 26 January

d. 14 November

3. The Council of States is another name for:

a. Lok Sabha

b. Rajya Sabha

c. Parliament

d. Legislative Council

4. The chemical symbol of Potassium is:

a. P

b. Po

c. K

d. Pt

5. The chemical formula of ozone is:

a. O

b. O₂

c. O₃

d. O₄

6. The architectural treatise "Manasara" is related to:

a. Music

b. Dance

c. Architecture

d. Medicine

7. World Food Day is observed on:

a. 14 October

b. 15 October

c. 16 October

d. 17 October

8. The famous Sultanpur National Park is located in:

a. Karnal

b. Gurugram

c. Rewari

d. Kaithal

9. The "Warli" tribal painting tradition belongs to:

a. Maharashtra

b. Gujarat

c. Odisha

d. Chhattisgarh

10. Malabar Coast lies in:

a. Eastern Coast

b. Western Coast

c. Northern Plains

d. Deccan Plateau

11. HCF of 21 and 35:

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

12. International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is observed on:

a. 15 October

b. 16 October

c. 17 October

d. 18 October

13. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed in:

a. 1765

b. 1757

c. 1773

d. 1784

14. The three crowned kingdoms of Sangam Age were:

a. Chola, Chera, Pandya

b. Maurya, Gupta, Kushana

c. Pallava, Chalukya, Rashtrakuta

d. Sunga, Satavahana, Gupta

15. Akbar’s revenue system was developed by:

a. Abul Fazl

b. Birbal

c. Todar Mal

d. Tansen

16. Which acid is present in ant sting?

a. Acetic Acid

b. Citric Acid

c. Formic Acid

d. Oxalic Acid

17. The White Nile originates from:

a. Lake Victoria

b. Lake Tana

c. Caspian Sea

d. Red Sea

18. Which river forms the estuary in India?

a. Godavari

b. Krishna

c. Tapi

d. Mahanadi

19. The headquarters of ADB is located in:

a. Tokyo

b. Beijing

c. Manila

d. Seoul

20. Which writ is issued to prevent an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

a. Habeas Corpus

b. Mandamus

c. Prohibition

d. Quo Warranto

21. International Day against Corruption is observed on:

a. 10 December

b. 9 December

c. 24 October

d. 5 June

22. The Directive Principles are borrowed from the Constitution of:

a. USA

b. Canada

c. Ireland

d. Australia

23. The Strait of Malacca lies between:

a. India and Sri Lanka

b. Sumatra and Malay Peninsula

c. Africa and Europe

d. Japan and Korea

24. The author of Tarikh-i-Firozshahi was:

a. Ziauddin Barani

b. Abul Fazl

c. Badauni

d. Amir Khusrau

25. Digital India initiative is related to:

a. Defence

b. Digital Empowerment

c. Agriculture

d. Tourism

26. Humayun regained his throne with help from:

a. Turks

b. Persians

c. Afghans

d. Portuguese

27. Which Gupta ruler is known for patronizing art and culture?

a. Samudragupta

b. Chandragupta I

c. Chandragupta II Vikramaditya

d. Kumaragupta

28. Find the missing number:

a. 3, 6, 12, 24, __

b. 36

c. 48

d. 72

29. The SI unit of pressure is:

a. Newton

b. Joule

c. Pascal

d. Watt

30. Which scientist discovered the electron?

a. Rutherford

b. Bohr

c. J.J. Thomson

d. Chadwick

31. Ziauddin Barani was a:

a. Architect

b. Historian

c. Musician

d. Painter

32. HCF of 28 and 42:

a. 7

b. 14

c. 21

d. 28

33. Bahadur Shah Zafar was the:

a. First Mughal ruler

b. Greatest Mughal ruler

c. Last Mughal emperor

d. Founder of Mughal Empire

34. Kaiga Atomic Power Station is located in:

a. Karnataka

b. Kerala

c. Gujarat

d. Rajasthan

35. Statement: All books are papers.

a. Conclusion: Some papers are books.

b. True

c. False

d. Cannot say

36. The Gupta Age is known as the:

a. Stone Age

b. Golden Age

c. Iron Age

d. Dark Age

37. Which gas is known as marsh gas?

a. Ethane

b. Methane

c. Propane

d. Butane

38. The Western Yamuna Canal originates from:

a. Tajewala/Hathnikund

b. Panipat

c. Karnal

d. Kurukshetra

39. Red soil gets its colour due to:

a. Humus

b. Iron oxide

c. Manganese

d. Lime

40. Which organ controls and coordinates body activities?

a. Heart

b. Brain

c. Liver

d. Kidney

41. Which district is famous for handloom products?

a. Panipat

b. Hisar

c. Jind

d. Fatehabad

42. ASEAN headquarters is located in:

a. Bangkok

b. Jakarta

c. Hanoi

d. Manila

43. The headquarters of AIIB is:

a. Tokyo

b. Beijing

c. Singapore

d. Seoul

44. World Diabetes Day is observed on:

a. 10 November

b. 12 November

c. 14 November

d. 16 November

45. The Public Accounts Committee consists of:

a. Members of Lok Sabha only

b. Members of Rajya Sabha only

c. Members from both Houses of Parliament

d. Ministers only

46. Which river forms part of Haryana's eastern boundary?

a. Ravi

b. Yamuna

c. Beas

d. Chenab

47. Retreating monsoon causes rainfall mainly in:

a. Punjab

b. Rajasthan

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Gujarat

48. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin B

c. Vitamin C

d. Vitamin K

49. If TREE = USFF, then GRASS = ?

a. HSBTT

b. HSBST

c. HRAST

d. HSBTU

50. Which Indian mission aims to send astronauts into space?

a. Chandrayaan

b. Aditya-L1

c. Gaganyaan

d. NISAR

51. Insanity produced by drunkenness is a

a. Good defense to the crime charged

b. Weak defense to a crime charged

c. Way to reduce the gravity of crime charged

d. Way to increase the gravity of crime charged

52. A sues B on an agreement and gives B notice to produce it. At the trial, A calls for the document and B refuses to produce it. A gives secondary evidence of its contents. B seeks to produce the document itself to contradict the secondary evidence given by A.

a. He cannot do so

b. He can do so with the consent of the other party.

c. He can do so with the order of the Court.

d. Both (b) and (c)

53. The experience required to be appointed as Special Public Prosecutor

a. 20 years

b. 10 years

c. 7 years

d. 5 years

54. Under which Section of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, the confession before the Magistrate is relevant?

a. Section 24

b. Section 25

c. Section 23(2)

d. Section 27

55. A contract not specifying the place of performance:

a. Can be performed at any place to the knowledge Of the promisee

b. The promisor need not seek any instruction from the promisee as to the place of performance

c. The promisor has to apply to the promisee for appointment of a place of performance and perform the promise at that place

d. The promisor can perform the promise at a place other than the place appointed by the promise

56. Lien arises where goods are sold on credit and:

a. Buyer refuses delivery

b. Term of credit has expired

c. Price is fixed

d. Contract is void

57. Wife loses maintenance under Section 25 if:

a. She becomes employed

b. She remarries or is not chaste

c. She shifts residence

d. She files appeal

58. Under Section 396(2) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 which of the Authority is authorized to decide quantum of compensation?

a. Sessions Judge

b. Legal Service Authority

c. Chief Judicial Magistrate

d. District Magistrate

59. Communication made 'without prejudice' are protected

a. Under Section 20 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

b. Under Section 21 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

c. Under Section 23 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

d. Under Section 22 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

60. The expression 'harm' is used in Section 19 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in the sense of

a. Hurt

b. Injury or damage

c. Physical injury

d. Moral wrong or evil

61. "Offence" is defined under:

a. Section 2(23) of BNS

b. Section 2(24) of BNS

c. Section 2(25) of BNS

d. Section 2(26) of BNS

62. In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as against the proposer?

a. When the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission so as to be out of power of the acceptor.

b. When the letter of acceptance has been written.

c. When the letter of acceptance has been received.

d. When the letter of acceptance has been read by the proposer.

63. Which one of the following statements is correct? A struck B on the neck with a knife and this was seen by C who exclaimed, "A is killing B". C's exclamation is

a. relevant because it was spontaneous

b. relevant because it forms part of the transaction

c. relevant because it is relatable to the transaction

d. relevant because it is a fact in issue

64. Right of private defence of body extends to causing assailant's death if assailant's act is of such nature that it

a. Causes apprehension of death

b. Causes apprehension of grievous, hurt

c. Expresses intention of committing rape

d. All of the above

65. X instigates Y to murder Z, Y in pursuance of the instigation stabs Z. Z recovers from the wound. Which one of the following is the liability of X?

a. Since essentials to constitute an offence of abetment are not fulfilled, X is not guilty of instigating to commit murder

b. Z is alive and hence X is not guilty of instigating to commit murder

c. X is guilty of instigating Y to commit murder even if Z recovers and does not die

d. Since death of Z does not ensure, the criminal liability, if any, will be that of only Y

66. Connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct response:

a. This right is not available against an unsound person

b. This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age

c. This right is available against any person

d. This right is not available against parents

67. A child with one Hindu parent is considered Hindu if:

a. Child chooses religion at majority

b. Child is brought up in that parent’s community

c. Court declares so

d. Father alone is Hindu

68. In the case of sentence of death, power to suspend, remit or commute is conferred upon:

a. State Government

b. Central Government

c. State as well as Central Government

d. President

69. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit

a. for partition

b. for partnership

c. for possession and mesne profit

d. All these

70. The manager of wakf is known as-

a. Sajjadanashin

b. Khadim

c. Mutawalli

d. Mujawar

71. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. Chief Judicial Magistrate

b. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

c. 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate

d. None of the above

72. A agrees to pay B, a teacher, Rs. 15,000 if B passed his son in the examination. B does so but A refuses to pay the money. In this case, which one of the following gives the correct legal position of the agreement?

a. The agreement is valid and enforceable

b. The agreement is void being opposed to public policy

c. The agreement is void because the object is unlawful and forbidden by law

d. The agreement is voidable at the option of B

73. 'A' a child of exact seven years of age commits an offence. 'A' will:

a. Not be guilty under section 20 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Be guilty if he is of sufficient maturity

c. Not be covered by section 20 and 21 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Be guilty under section 21 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

74. By the third pronouncement (utterance) of 'Talaq', which kind of 'Talaq' becomes effective?

a. Talaq-e-Hasan

b. Talaq-e-Ahsan

c. Talaq-e-Tafweez

d. None of the above

75. Section 349 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 empowers the Magistrate of First Class to

a. Summon material witness

b. Postpone or adjourn proceedings

c. Order person to give specimen signatures

d. Visit and inspect any place in which an offence is alleged to have been committed

76. A notice in writing under Section 80 of the Civil Procedure Code has to be given to the:—

a. Secretary to Central Government in case of suit against that Government

b. President of India in case of suit against the Central Government

c. Secretary of Railways, in case of suit against Central Government involving railways

d. (a) and (c) both

77. Under Order 6 Rule 16 C.P.C., pleading can be struck on the ground that it is:

a. Scandalous

b. Unnecessary

c. Vexatious

d. All of the above

78. A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of-

a. Affinity

b. Consanguinity

c. Fosterage

d. None of the above

79. The Doctrine of Holding out is an application of the principle of:

a. Agency

b. Estoppel

c. Vicarious liability

d. Privity of contract

80. A sells and delivers goods to B, C afterwards without consideration, agrees to pay for them in default of B:

a. The agreement is valid

b. Agreement is void

c. Agreement is voidable

d. C has no right to agree

81. Section 24 aims to ensure:

a. Punishment of spouse

b. Financial support during litigation

c. Divorce delay

d. Property division

82. 'A' sues 'B' for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’. 'B' affirms that the matter alleged to: be libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when- the libel was published' may be relevant

a. As constituting: a motive for fact in issue

b. As conduct influenced by fact in issue

c. As introductory to facts in issue

d. As preparation for fact in issue

83. The indemnity-holder is entitled to recover from the promisor:

a. Only damages

b. Only costs

c. Only compromise amount

d. Damages, costs, and sums paid under compromise

84. Section 178 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Bailment

b. Pledge by mercantile agent

c. Rights of pawnor

d. Contract of guarantee

85. A Public Prosecutor for the High Court is appointed under Section 18 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 by the

a. Central Government without consultation with the High Court

b. State Government without consultation with the High Court

c. State Government after consultation with the Central Government

d. State Government or Central Government after consultation with the High Court

86. The report of a Medical Officer stating the injuries of the victim is:

a. Conclusive in nature

b. Relevant and admissible in evidence

c. Irrelevant

d. Substantive piece of evidence

87. Part delivery with intention of severing:

a. Transfers whole property

b. Transfers nothing

c. Does not operate as delivery of remainder

d. Transfers ownership automatically

88. Which of the following courts can transfer a criminal case, pending in a court of one district, to a court of another district:

a. Court of Sessions of the district where such case is pending

b. Court of Sessions of the district where such case is sought to be transferred

c. High Court of the State

d. None of the above

89. Section 22 primarily restricts:

a. Filing of petitions

b. Evidence production

c. Public disclosure and publication of proceedings

d. Jurisdiction of courts

90. Which one among the following is the role of the trial judge under the provisions of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. To be impartial and maintain complete silence during the trial

b. To be impartial and at the same time play a proactive role while examining witnesses

c. To be impartial, play a proactive role while exercising his powers of examining/reexamining material witnesses and also the accused person after the prosecution evidence is closed

d. To maintain complete silence and observe as far as possible the principles of natural justice during the trial

91. Which of the following is not a supplemental proceeding?

a. grant of temporary injunction

b. appointment of a receiver

c. direction to defendant to furnish security

d. issuance of a commission

92. What will be the nature of an order passed by Court rejecting the plaint for non payment of a Court fee?

a. Decree

b. Preliminary decree

c. Interlocutory Order

d. Final Order

93. Section 3 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Registration of firms

b. Application of provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Determination of partnership

d. Rights of partners

94. The expression, “Each party shall bear his own costs” implies that

a. both the parties are entitled to cost from each other

b. both the parties are not to be deprived of costs

c. both the parties are to be deprived of costs

d. both the parties are not entitled to cost from each other

95. In one trial A is awarded with the sentence which is not appealable whereas sentence against B is appealable. Whether A can file an appeal against his sentence?

a. No

b. Only with special leave

c. Yes

d. There is no such provision

96. What is the position of a contract when it is being caused by mistake of law?

a. Voidable

b. Void

c. Not voidable

d. Illegal

97. Which one of the following is NOT a suit of civil nature?

a. Suit relating to rights of worship

b. Suit involving purely religious rights

c. Suit for rent

d. Suit for rights to hereditary office

98. Estoppel

a. Is a cause of action in itself

b. Creates a cause of action

c. Both (a) & (b) are correct

d. Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

99. Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under

a. Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

b. Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

c. Section 148B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

d. Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

100. The burden of proving that the person had no knowledge of his admission to the benefits of partnership lies on:

a. The minor

b. The Registrar of Firms

c. The persons asserting that fact

d. The managing partner

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