Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Mock Test-4

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1. World Wildlife Day is celebrated on:

a. 3 March

b. 5 June

c. 22 April

d. 16 September

2. Which disease is caused by Plasmodium?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Malaria

c. Cholera

d. Typhoid

3. Loo winds are common in:

a. Southern India

b. Northern Plains

c. Himalayan Region

d. Coastal Areas

4. National Voters' Day is observed on:

a. 24 January

b. 25 January

c. 26 January

d. 27 January

5. The temple complex of Belur and Halebidu was built by the:

a. Cholas

b. Pallavas

c. Hoysalas

d. Rashtrakutas

6. Sangam Age is associated with:

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. Tamil Nadu

c. Punjab

d. Bengal

7. The famous Sanskrit drama "Mrichchhakatika" was written by:

a. Kalidasa

b. Bhasa

c. Shudraka

d. Bhavabhuti

8. The hardest naturally occurring substance is:

a. Quartz

b. Graphite

c. Diamond

d. Corundum

9. Which district is associated with the Phogat sisters?

a. Rohtak

b. Charkhi Dadri

c. Bhiwani

d. Jhajjar

10. FATF is associated with:

a. Climate Change

b. Sports Governance

c. Anti-Money Laundering

d. Agriculture

11. The power to amend the Constitution is vested in:

a. President

b. Parliament

c. Supreme Court

d. Parliament and State Legislatures jointly

12. RBI launched the Digital Rupee as:

a. Cryptocurrency

b. CBDC

c. Stablecoin

d. Digital Token

13. Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin D

c. Vitamin K

d. Vitamin E

14. If APPLE = 50, BALL = ?

a. 35

b. 37

c. 39

d. 41

15. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on:

a. Tapi

b. Krishna

c. Narmada

d. Godavari

16. 5 km =

a. 500 m

b. 5000 m

c. 50000 m

d. 50 m

17. The "Ghoomar" dance is associated with:

a. Gujarat

b. Rajasthan

c. Haryana

d. Punjab

18. Haryana is primarily a:

a. Mining State

b. Agricultural State

c. Coastal State

d. Forest State

19. The Meghalaya Plateau is rich in:

a. Petroleum

b. Coal

c. Gold

d. Uranium

20. Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering it?

a. Retina

b. Cornea

c. Iris

d. Lens

21. The lander of Chandrayaan-3 was:

a. Pragyan

b. Vikram

c. Rohini

d. Kartik

22. 2 km =

a. 200 m

b. 2000 m

c. 20000 m

d. 20 m

23. The Kharosthi script was written from:

a. Left to right

b. Right to left

c. Top to bottom

d. Bottom to top

24. Which gas is responsible for acid rain?

a. Oxygen

b. Sulphur Dioxide

c. Hydrogen

d. Nitrogen

25. The unit of momentum is:

a. kg m/s

b. N/m

c. Joule

d. Pascal

26. The world’s largest producer of silk is:

a. India

b. China

c. Japan

d. Thailand

27. The official language of most Mauryan inscriptions was:

a. Tamil

b. Sanskrit

c. Prakrit

d. Greek

28. The headquarters of ILO is in:

a. Geneva

b. Rome

c. Paris

d. Vienna

29. Which country became a full member of BRICS in 2025?

a. Indonesia

b. Japan

c. Spain

d. Canada

30. If SOUTH is coded as TPVUI, NORTH will be coded as:

a. OPSUI

b. OPSUI

c. OPSUI

d. OPSUI

31. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report?

a. IMF

b. WTO

c. UNDP

d. World Bank

32. Haryanvi is mainly a dialect of:

a. Punjabi

b. Hindi

c. Urdu

d. Sanskrit

33. Which mirror is used in vehicle rear-view mirrors?

a. Plane Mirror

b. Concave Mirror

c. Convex Mirror

d. Cylindrical Mirror

34. International Day of Older Persons is observed on:

a. 1 October

b. 2 October

c. 10 October

d. 24 October

35. Which dynasty patronized Ajanta paintings?

a. Vakatakas

b. Mauryas

c. Guptas

d. Pallavas

36. Malik Kafur served under:

a. Balban

b. Alauddin Khalji

c. Akbar

d. Babur

37. Which country is known as the “Land of White Elephant”?

a. Thailand

b. Myanmar

c. Sri Lanka

d. Laos

38. The SI unit of luminous intensity is:

a. Lux

b. Lumen

c. Candela

d. Dioptre

39. The founder of the Slave Dynasty was:

a. Iltutmish

b. Balban

c. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

d. Razia

40. The state flower of Haryana is:

a. Lotus

b. Rose

c. Marigold

d. Sunflower

41. Find odd:

a. January

b. March

c. July

d. Monday

42. Shivaji’s military tactics are known as:

a. Mansabdari

b. Guerrilla Warfare

c. Blue Water Policy

d. Iqta System

43. Citizenship provisions are contained in:

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part III

d. Part IV

44. Which state leads in rubber production in India?

a. Tamil Nadu

b. Kerala

c. Karnataka

d. Assam

45. Silappadikaram belongs to:

a. Sanskrit literature

b. Persian literature

c. Pali literature

d. Tamil literature

46. Which Article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?

a. Article 19

b. Article 20

c. Article 21

d. Article 22

47. Jog Falls is located in:

a. Kerala

b. Karnataka

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Maharashtra

48. WHO headquarters is located in:

a. Paris

b. Geneva

c. Rome

d. Vienna

49. The Constitution is described as "a living document" because:

a. It is unwritten

b. It can be amended

c. It is judicially enforced

d. It is federal

50. Which city is called the “City of Weavers” in Haryana?

a. Panipat

b. Rohtak

c. Sirsa

d. Bhiwani

51. In mutual consent divorce, consent must not be:

a. Written

b. Registered

c. Obtained by force, fraud, or undue influence

d. Delayed

52. Which one of the following cases does not relate to intoxication?

a. D.P.P. v. Beard

b. Basudeo v. State of Pepsu

c. R. v. McNaughten

d. R. v. Tandy

53. Which provisions of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deal with the 'Solitary confinement' and 'limits on solitary confinement'?

a. Section 12 and Section 13

b. Section 9 and Section 10

c. Section 11 and Section 12

d. Section 10 and Section 11

54. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. An agreement is void unless it is duly supported by adequate consideration

b. In a valid contract, there can be an oral promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor

c. Under Indian Law, consideration need not move at the desire of the promisor

d. Indian Law does not recognize past consideration

55. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife, such a marriage shall be —

a. Void

b. Valid

c. Irregular

d. Voidable

56. The procedure for summary trial is provide in the following sections of the BNSS-

a. Section 251 to 259

b. Section 238 to 250

c. Section 283 to 288

d. Section 266 to 271

57. In criminal trials whenever the accused seeks the benefit of any exception the onus is on him to prove the applicability of Such exception:

a. Beyond reasonable doubt

b. On a preponderance of probabilities

c. To the satisfaction of the judge

d. All of the above

58. An application under Order IX, Rule 7 of CPC can be made

a. within 60 days of the Order

b. within 30 days of the Order

c. at any time on or before the next date of hearing

d. any time during the pendency of the suit

59. Which of the following is of the legal consequences of divorce under Muslim Law?

a. The parties acquire the right to contract another marriage.

b. Cohabitation becomes unlawful.

c. Mutual rights of inheritance ceases

d. All of the above

60. Which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of res judicata in writ petitions?

a. Satyadhan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi

b. Daryao v. State of UP

c. LIC v. India Automobiles & Co.

d. None of the above

61. The burden of proof regarding continuance of life for thirty years is contained in

a. Section 109 of the BSA

b. Section 110 of the BSA

c. Section 111 of the BSA

d. Section 112 of the BSA

62. An agent is a person who:

a. Buys goods for himself

b. Does any act for another or represents him in dealings with third persons

c. Only gives advice

d. Lends money

63. Under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 the Court cannot award damages

a. equal to the amount stated in the contract

b. less than the amount stated in the contract

c. more than the amount stated in the contract

d. none of the above

64. Adjournment of trial beyond the following day under Section 21B is allowed:

a. Without reason

b. Only on consent of parties

c. Only if court records reasons as necessary

d. Never allowed

65. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a

a. substantive law

b. procedural law

c. combination of substantive law and procedural law

d. directory law

66. Order of disposal of property at conclusion of trial is passed under

a. Section 489 of BNSS

b. Section 498 of BNSS

c. Section 499 of BNSS

d. Section 501 of BNSS

67. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Bloodstains 1. Reg v.

and blood Dodson group

B. Automac camera 2. State of Gujarat v.

Chhota Lai Patni

C. Tape-recorded 3. B v. Attorney-

General statement

D. Handwriting 4. Yusufalli v. State

of Maharashtra

A B C D

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 1 2 4 3

68. "An advocate is instructed by another advocate that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit." This illustration is based on which of the following Sections of the BSA?

a. Section 152

b. Section 153

c. Section 147

d. Section 145

69. If a party who has obtained and order to amend the pleading under CPC, if not amended, after expiration of how many days shall not be permitted to amend the same without the leave of the court?

a. 15 days

b. 90 days

c. 14 days

d. 30 days

70. Under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 substituted service of summons can be made:

a. By affixing summons on the house

b. By a Registered Post

c. By Courier

d. None of it

71. If the digital signature of any subscriber is alleged to have been affixed to an electronic record the fact that such digital signature is the digital signature of the subscriber must be proved, except in the case of a

a. secure digital signature

b. certified digital signature

c. computerized digital signature

d. official digital signature

72. Section 3(5) of BNS provides for liability based on common intention. Consider the following situations:

1. The weapon used in the offence was found in A's house

2. A has procured the weapon of offence voluntarily to aid the criminal gang

3. A was compelled under threat to his life to procure the weapon of offence

4. The weapon was supplied on receipt of value of the weapon (sale)

Which of the situation given above reflect(s) the correct ingredients with regard to Section 3(5)?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 4 only

73. During investigation by a police officer under directions of the Magistrate on complaint of 'A' alleging criminal misappropriation of his diamond ring by 'B', 'A' produces an invoice evidencing his title to the property. The invoice is found during investigation to be fabricated. On closure report, the Magistrate took cognizance and summoned 'A' to face trial on the charge of fabricating false evidence. The contentions of 'A' are:

a. The document (invoice) was not given in a judicial proceeding.

b. The police officer has not made a complaint.

Here:

a. Both (a) and (b) are correct

b. Only (b) is correct.

c. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.

d. Only (a) is correct.

74. According to Section 514 BNSS no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year:

a. after the expiry of one year

b. after the expiry of six months

c. after the expiry of three months

d. after the expiry of two years

75. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission or it may be proved on his behalf?

a. When it is relevant as dying declaration

b. When it is relevant as admission

c. When it is relevant as confession

d. When it is only an oral admission as to content electronic record

76. 'X' sues 'Y' for damage done by a dog of 'Y', which 'Y' knew to be ferocious. The fact that the dog had previously bitten 'A', 'B' and 'C' are

a. relevant

b. irrelevant

c. inadmissible

d. unreliable

77. Which one of the following Section of BNSS provides identification of arrested person?

a. Section 53

b. Section 54

c. Section 55

d. Section 60

78. The application for execution of decree may be transferred from one court to another court:—

a. if the party feels that there is a possibility of delay in justice on the part of court

b. if the defendant lives or does business in the jurisdiction of that court where the application for execution of decree have to transfer

c. if the plaintiff has gone from the jurisdiction of the court which has passed the decree

d. not included in these

79. In Shia Muslim marriage how many witnesses are compulsorily required?

a. One male and two females

b. Two males

c. No witness

d. Two females

80. Which of the following is a primary evidence:

a. copies made from and compared with the original

b. counterpart of document as against the parties who did not execute them

c. counterpart of a document as against the parties who executed it

d. certified copies of a document

81. Compensatory costs under Section 35A of CPC can be imposed to the extent of

a. Rs. 3,000

b. Rs. 6,000

c. Rs. 10,000

d. without any limit

82. Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Contract of indemnity

b. Contract of guarantee

c. Contract of bailment

d. Contract of agency

83. Assertion (A): ‘A’ supplies necessary necessities to ‘B’, a minor. ‘A’ can recover the payment from the estate of ‘B’.

Reason (R): An agreement with a minor is void ab initio

Codes:

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

84. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to agreements which are discovered void by:

a. Mistake

b. Failure of consideration

c. Impossibility

d. All the above

85. In calculating fraction of the term of life imprisonment under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is:

a. 14 years

b. 20 years

c. Whole of natural life

d. 10 years.

86. On default in filing of written statement under Order 8, pronouncement of judgment

a. is mandatory

b. Discretionary

c. Directory Rule 10 of CPC.

d. None of the above

87. Section 40 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Dissolution by agreement

b. Dissolution by notice

c. Dissolution by Court

d. Compulsory dissolution

88. “Custom” under Section 3 requires:

a. Temporary practice

b. Continuous and uniform observance for a long time

c. Court declaration only

d. Religious approval only

89. Which of the following punishment cannot be awarded under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. Forfeiture of property

b. Rigorous imprisonment

c. Transportation for life

d. Death

90. Verification of petitions under Section 20 must be done:

a. Only by court clerk

b. By petitioner or competent person as per law

c. Only by advocate

d. Only by respondent

91. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?

a. When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with

b. When the judgement is that of acquittal

c. In both (a) and (b) above

d. None of the above

92. A, a police officer, has a warrant of arrest for B. He asks C as to the identity of B. C knowingly tells A that P is B and consequently A arrests P. C is guilty of:

a. Abetment by aiding

b. Abetment by instigation

c. Abetment by false representation

d. Abetment of mischief

93. Under which section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 an accused person can himself be a competent witness for the defence?

a. Section 311

b. Section 351

c. Section 353

d. Section 319

94. Delivery to the bailee may be made by:

a. Written agreement only

b. Oral agreement only

c. Any act which puts goods in possession of bailee or his authorized person

d. Court order only

95. Only the ______ provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 apply.

a. Amended

b. Repealed

c. Unrepealed

d. Procedural

96. Right of private defence of property does not extend to causing death against the offence of

a. Robbery

b. House breaking by night

c. Trespass

d. Mischief by fire of building used for custody of property

97. Delivery to a carrier for transmission to buyer is:

a. Not delivery

b. Conditional delivery

c. Prima facie deemed delivery to buyer

d. Void delivery

98. The name under which the business of a partnership is carried on is called:

a. Trade name

b. Partnership title

c. Firm name

d. Commercial designation

99. A decision in a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of explanation

a. Ill to Section 11 of CPC

b. V to Section 11 of CPC

c. VI to Section 11 of CPC

d. IV to Section 11 of CPC

100. Which one of the following is not correct?

a. High courts should not pass interim orders which are likely to hamper investigation

b. A Magistrate can under section 175(3), Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 send a complaint of non- cognizable offence to the police

c. The power of the Magistrate of the first class to take cognizance of cognizable offence may be impaired by territorial restrictions

d. Dining the course of investigation by the police, the question of cross- examination does not arise

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