Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Mock Test-10

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1. Which plateau is known as the “Storehouse of Minerals” in India?

a. Deccan Plateau

b. Chotanagpur Plateau

c. Malwa Plateau

d. Meghalaya Plateau

2. Haryana is a leading producer of:

a. Bajra

b. Wheat

c. Mustard

d. All of these

3. Find the next term:

a. A, C, F, J, O, __

b. S

c. T

d. U

4. COP conferences are related to:

a. Education

b. Trade

c. Climate Change

d. Sports

5. Surdas was a devotee of:

a. Shiva

b. Rama

c. Krishna

d. Buddha

6. World Water Day is observed on:

a. 22 March

b. 5 June

c. 7 April

d. 11 July

7. Municipalities were constitutionalized by:

a. 72nd Amendment

b. 73rd Amendment

c. 74th Amendment

d. 75th Amendment

8. Which organ produces urine?

a. Liver

b. Kidney

c. Pancreas

d. Spleen

9. The normal human body temperature is:

a. 35°C

b. 36°C

c. 37°C

d. 38°C

10. The classical language Tamil is associated with which literary tradition?

a. Sangam Literature

b. Prakrit Literature

c. Pali Literature

d. Apabhramsha Literature

11. Which district is known for dairy development?

a. Jind

b. Karnal

c. Hisar

d. Sirsa

12. Statement: All dogs are mammals.

a. Conclusion: Some mammals are dogs.

b. True

c. False

d. Cannot say

13. Which style of painting is associated with Bijapur and Golconda?

a. Mughal

b. Rajput

c. Deccani

d. Pahari

14. The capital of Magadha under Bimbisara was:

a. Pataliputra

b. Rajgir

c. Taxila

d. Champa

15. G20 is a grouping of:

a. 10 Nations

b. 15 Nations

c. 20 Major Economies

d. 30 Nations

16. At present, the Eighth Schedule contains:

a. 18 Languages

b. 20 Languages

c. 22 Languages

d. 24 Languages

17. The famous Pinjore Gardens are situated in:

a. Ambala

b. Panchkula

c. Kurukshetra

d. Yamunanagar

18. The chemical symbol of tin is:

a. Ti

b. Tn

c. Sn

d. St

19. Kanishka’s capital was:

a. Purushapura

b. Pataliputra

c. Ujjain

d. Mathura

20. Oath of office for Union Ministers is contained in:

a. First Schedule

b. Second Schedule

c. Third Schedule

d. Fourth Schedule

21. Guru Shikhar is located in:

a. Rajasthan

b. Gujarat

c. Madhya Pradesh

d. Maharashtra

22. Which country is known as the “Pearl of the Indian Ocean”?

a. Maldives

b. Sri Lanka

c. Mauritius

d. Seychelles

23. Which ancient text is a dialogue between Yajnavalkya and Gargi?

a. Brihadaranyaka Upanishad

b. Arthashastra

c. Manusmriti

d. Ramayana

24. Average of 5, 15, 25, 35, 45:

a. 20

b. 25

c. 30

d. 35

25. Find next alphabet:

a. A, D, G, J, __

b. K

c. L

d. M

26. National Maritime Day in India is observed on:

a. 3 April

b. 4 April

c. 5 April

d. 6 April

27. World Earth Day is celebrated on:

a. 21 March

b. 22 April

c. 5 June

d. 16 September

28. The deficiency of Vitamin D causes:

a. Scurvy

b. Beriberi

c. Rickets

d. Goitre

29. Nathula Pass is located in:

a. Uttarakhand

b. Himachal Pradesh

c. Sikkim

d. Arunachal Pradesh

30. Which enzyme converts starch into maltose?

a. Pepsin

b. Trypsin

c. Amylase

d. Lipase

31. Haryana has how many divisions?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

32. The famous folk dance "Dhamal" belongs to:

a. Haryana

b. Punjab

c. Gujarat

d. Odisha

33. Which organization issues SDRs?

a. WTO

b. IMF

c. World Bank

d. ADB

34. Earliest agricultural evidence in India comes from:

a. Harappa

b. Taxila

c. Mehrgarh

d. Ujjain

35. International Day of Women and Girls in Science is observed on:

a. 9 February

b. 10 February

c. 11 February

d. 12 February

36. The SI unit of work-energy is:

a. Watt

b. Joule

c. Newton

d. Pascal

37. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is observed on:

a. 8 January

b. 9 January

c. 10 January

d. 11 January

38. International Holocaust Remembrance Day is observed on:

a. 26 January

b. 27 January

c. 28 January

d. 29 January

39. 75% of 200 =

a. 100

b. 125

c. 150

d. 175

40. The ancient university of Nalanda was primarily a center of:

a. Jain Learning

b. Buddhist Learning

c. Vedic Learning

d. Islamic Learning

41. Ashoka’s Minor Rock Edicts mention:

a. Revenue reforms

b. Personal conversion to Buddhism

c. Gupta administration

d. Sangam trade

42. The SI unit of inductance is:

a. Tesla

b. Henry

c. Farad

d. Weber

43. Which organization publishes the World Investment Report?

a. IMF

b. WTO

c. UNCTAD

d. OECD

44. Jim Corbett National Park is located in:

a. Rajasthan

b. Uttarakhand

c. Gujarat

d. Madhya Pradesh

45. Uttaramerur inscriptions relate to:

a. Gupta taxation

b. Chola local administration

c. Mauryan trade

d. Kushana art

46. The Great Bath was discovered at:

a. Harappa

b. Mohenjo-Daro

c. Dholavira

d. Chanhudaro

47. The Indian Desert receives rainfall less than:

a. 100 cm

b. 50 cm

c. 25 cm

d. 10 cm

48. Fundamental Duties were added by:

a. 24th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment

d. 52nd Amendment

49. The genetic material in most organisms is:

a. RNA

b. Protein

c. DNA

d. Lipid

50. The largest desert in the world is:

a. Sahara

b. Gobi

c. Arabian

d. Antarctica

51. When examined under Section 351 BNSS a circumstance incriminating the accused is not put to the accused for the explanation. The said circumstances cannot be used against the accused because:

a. It is inadmissible in evidence

b. It becomes irrelevant for purposes of evidence

c. Law mandates that it cannot be taken into consideration

d. All of the above

52. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a. Inquiry - Section 2(k)

b. Judicial proceedings - Section 2(m)

c. Police Station - Section 2(o)

d. Warrant case - Section 2(z)

53. Under Section 23A, the respondent may:

a. Only deny allegations

b. Only file appeal

c. File counter-claim for relief under the Act

d. Only seek maintenance

54. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 3(5) of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

a. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra

b. Niharendu Dutta v. King Emperor

c. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor

d. Kedar Nath v. State of West Bengal

55. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

All evidence taken in the course of the trial or other proceeding must be taken in the presence of the

1. accused only.

2. accused and his pleader.

3. pleader of the accused, when the attendance of the accused is dispensed with.

4. accused, except as otherwise provided under Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 2

b. 1

c. 3 and 4

d. 4 only

56. Which one of the following Sections of BNS defines 'Gaining Wrongfully and Losing Wrongfully'?

a. Section 2(37)

b. Section 2(38)

c. Section 2(39)

d. Section 2(31)

57. Section 21 of BNS enunciates:

a. A presumption of fact

b. An inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law

c. Conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law

d. Irrebuttable presumption of fact

58. The Court draws a presumption of legitimacy when any person is born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man. This presumption is relevant under Section 116 of the BSA when there is a dispute relating to the

a. maternity of the child

b. paternity of the child

c. both maternity and paternity

d. guardianship of the child

59. Equal contribution among co-sureties applies:

a. Only when they know each other

b. Only when contracts are same

c. Whether jointly or severally and even without knowledge of each other

d. Only when court orders

60. Where does compulsion amount to a defense?

a. Act done by a person who is compelled to do it by threat of instant death

b. Mischief caused by a person when he was compelled to do so by threat to his property

c. Murder committed by a person in order to gain custody of his kidnapped child

d. Act done by a person who is compelled to do it by threat of death within seven days

61. Under Order IV Rule 1, sub rule (1) of CPC, a suit is instituted when:

a. A copy of plaint is presented to the court

b. A plaint in duplicate is presented to the court

c. A plaint in triplicate is presented to the court

d. The court taken the plaint in consideration

62. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose is known as:

a. Bailment

b. Pledge

c. Hypothecation

d. Mortgage.

63. Proceedings under Section 22 are conducted:

a. Open court

b. In camera

c. In public auditorium

d. By jury system

64. Under BSA, a document required by law to be attested, can be proved by calling:

a. both the attesting witnesses

b. at least one of the attesting witness

c. any other person

d. a legal heir of the attesting witness

65. Which of the following statements is correct:

a. Estoppel is not a rule of evidence

b. Estoppel from record constitutes bar of res-judicata

c. There can be estoppel on a point of law

d. There cannot be estoppel when the truth of the matter is known to both parties

66. Under Muslim Law, a divorce by Khula is a di¬vorce with the consent and at the instance of —

a. Husband

b. Wife

c. Kazi

d. Husband and wife

67. Which of the following is correct statement of law as per Sections 84 and 85 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. The court may order attachment of property belonging to an accused before declaring him a proclaimed person under Section 84

b. The court may order attachment of property of a person after publication of a written proclamation under Section 84 requiring him to appear before it

c. The court may order attachment of property of a person regardless of whether or not he has been- declared proclaimed offender

d. None of the above

68. If leave is obtained by misrepresentation, court may:

a. Automatically dismiss petition

b. Increase compensation

c. Make decree ineffective until expiry of one year or dismiss petition

d. Convert it into judicial separation

69. Match the List:

List-I List-II

(Subject matter) (Section of BSA.)

A. Indecent and 1. Section 158

Scandalous questions

B. Impeaching credit of 2. Section 155

witness

C. Question intended to 3. Section 157

insult or annoy

D. Question by party to his 4. Section 154

own witness

A B C D

a. 1 4 2 3

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 4 2 1 3

d. 4 1 2 3

70. Exception applies where seller:

a. Refuses delivery

b. Assents to such sale or disposition

c. Delays delivery

d. Files suit

71. Interrogatories shall be answered as provided under Order XI, Rule 8 of CPC

a. on a simple application

b. on an affidavit

c. by filing the documents

d. all of the above

72. In which Section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the words 'Good faith' has not been used?

a. Section 28

b. Section 27

c. Section 30

d. Section 31

73. Whether a Muslim may give 'Talaq' in the state of intoxication or under pressure?

a. Yes, recognized under the 'Sunni' Muslim Law

b. Yes, recognized under the 'Shia' Muslim Law

c. Yes, according to the 'Ismailiya' Law

d. Yes, according to the "Usuli' Law

74. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the warrant case, the Magistrate may discharge the accused if:

a. The proceedings have been instituted upon complaint.

b. The offence is non-cognizable or compoundable.

c. The charge has not been framed.

d. All of the above

75. A sum fixed beforehand as, amount of compensation payable in the event of breach of contract is called

a. liquidated damage

b. penalty

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. Neither (a) and (b)

76. The principle of constructive res-judicata was explained by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of

a. Daryao v. State of U.P.

b. State of U.P. v. Nawab Hussain

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. None of the above

77. In Indian Contract Act, the responsibility of finder of goods is provided under:

a. Section 68

b. Section 69

c. Section 70

d. Section 71

78. Civil Procedure Code Pleading does not include

a. Plaint

b. Written Statement

c. Evidence

d. Material Facts

79. The principle of common intention applies only when

a. At least 5 persons involved

b. At least 2 persons involved

c. At least 1 persons involved

d. None of the above

80. Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Contract of indemnity

b. Continuing guarantee

c. Surety’s liability

d. Breach of contract

81. Which contract is specifically enforceable?

a. Contract by 'B' to deliver a lecture of law at Jabalpur University.

b. Contract of Marriage

c. Contract by 'B' with 'A' to supply’ goods as of when A' requires.

d. None of these

82. 'A' an officer of a Court, being ordered by the Court to arrest V, and after due enquiry, believing Z to be Y, arrests Z. What mistake has been committed by A?

a. Mistake of fact

b. Mistake of law

c. Both (a) and (b) above

d. None of these

83. If both petitions are filed in the same district court:

a. One petition is dismissed

b. Both are transferred to High Court

c. Both are tried and heard together

d. Only later petition is heard

84. Which one of the following is not included in the expression 'Court' under the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

a. All judges

b. All persons legally authorized to take evidence

c. All Magistrates

d. arbitrators

85. The seller may reserve the right of disposal:

a. Only by law

b. By terms of the contract or appropriation

c. By court order

d. By buyer’s consent

86. In the case of a public nuisance a suit under Section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure for a declaration and injunction may be instituted by

a. A person aggrieved

b. A person to whom special damage has been caused by reason of such public nuisance

c. With the leave of the court of two or more persons, even though no special damage has been caused to such persons

d. Two or more persons to whom special damage has been caused by reason of such public nuisance

87. The principle stated in Section 109 of the BSA is an application of the principle of

a. res gestae

b. res ipsa loquitur

c. res-judicata

d. rebus sic stantibus

88. ln how many years a sentences of imprisonment for life can be commuted by the Government (as per sec 474 of BNSS)

a. Not less than 20 years

b. Not less than 18 years

c. Not less than seven years

d. Not less than12 years

89. In the case of an accused facing inquiry or trial though not of unsound mind but not capable of understanding the proceedings:

a. the court shall proceed with the inquiry or trial

b. the court shall not proceed with the inquiry or trial

c. the court may proceed with the inquiry or trial after obtaining necessary orders from the High Court

d. the court may proceed with inquiry or trial and in the case the same results in conviction, forward the proceeding to the High Court along with a report on which High Court shall pass such orders as deemed fit.

90. Section 20 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Extension and restriction of partner's implied authority

b. Dissolution of partnership

c. Registration of firms

d. Admission of partners

91. The Sections in the Code of Civil Procedure

a. can be amended by the Parliament

b. can be amended by a High Court or the State Legislature

c. can be amended by the Court hearing the suit

d. can be amended by the parties to the suit

92. A necessary party is one in whose

a. absence no order can be made effectively

b. absence an order can be made but whose presence is necessary for the complete decision of the case

c. only (b) is correct

d. none of above

93. The Supreme Court affirmed that Section 144 of the BNSS is a secular law applicable to all citizens, including divorced Muslim women, who are entitled to maintenance from their former husbands if unable to support themselves, even after the iddat period. Consider the above statement.

a. Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985 SC 945

b. (Danial Latifi and others v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740

c. (Razia v. State of U.P. (2022)

d. None of the above

94. The court can record demeanor of a witness under which section of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

a. Section 315

b. Section 310

c. Section 318

d. Section 320

95. Public document under the BSA can be proved by:

a. Oral evidence

b. The writer of the certified copy

c. Certified copy

d. Any of the above

96. Order II, Rule 2 of CPC does not apply to

a. application for execution

b. writ petitions

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of the above

97. Under Section 528 BNSS, the High Court exercises:

a. Inherent powers

b. Appellate powers

c. Revisional powers

d. Review powers

98. Rescission of the Contract means:

a. the renewal of original contract

b. cancellation of contract

c. alteration of contract

d. substitution of new contract in place of earlier one

99. Where business is continued without settlement of accounts, the outgoing partner is entitled to:

a. No claim

b. Share of profits attributable to use of his share or interest at 6% per annum

c. Only capital

d. Only goodwill

100. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. Admissions can be oral only

b. Admission can be documentary only

c. Admissions can be oral or documentary

d. Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

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