Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Mock Test-1

Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -1 PDF

1. Which Indian state implemented the Uniform Civil Code first in recent years?

a. Uttar Pradesh

b. Gujarat

c. Uttarakhand

d. Rajasthan

2. The Constitution of India is described as:

a. Completely Federal

b. Completely Unitary

c. Federal with Unitary Bias

d. Confederation

3. Agroha, associated with Maharaja Agrasen, is located in:

a. Sirsa

b. Hisar

c. Bhiwani

d. Jind

4. Which European power first established trade relations with India by sea route?

a. French

b. Dutch

c. Portuguese

d. English

5. Find odd pair:

a. Lion–Cub

b. Goat–Kid

c. Dog–Puppy

d. Horse–Calf

6. Headquarters of the IMF is located in:

a. Geneva

b. Paris

c. Washington D.C.

d. Vienna

7. Which acid is present in curd?

a. Citric Acid

b. Acetic Acid

c. Lactic Acid

d. Oxalic Acid

8. Which temple style is associated with South India?

a. Nagara

b. Dravida

c. Vesara

d. Gandhara

9. Which river is called the “Dakshin Ganga”?

a. Krishna

b. Godavari

c. Mahanadi

d. Kaveri

10. Which country hosts the headquarters of Interpol?

a. France

b. Germany

c. Belgium

d. Switzerland

11. The SI unit of electric potential difference is:

a. Ohm

b. Coulomb

c. Volt

d. Ampere

12. 14² =

a. 186

b. 196

c. 206

d. 216

13. Which gas is most abundant in the atmosphere after nitrogen?

a. Oxygen

b. Argon

c. Carbon Dioxide

d. Neon

14. The Konkan Coast lies between:

a. Goa and Kerala

b. Gujarat and Goa

c. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

d. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

15. The Palk Strait separates India from:

a. Maldives

b. Bangladesh

c. Sri Lanka

d. Myanmar

16. If all squares are rectangles, then:

a. All rectangles are squares

b. Some rectangles are squares

c. No rectangle is square

d. Cannot say

17. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in:

a. 1526

b. 1556

c. 1761

d. 1857

18. Which text is regarded as the oldest grammar of Sanskrit?

a. Ashtadhyayi

b. Mahabhashya

c. Amarakosha

d. Mitakshara

19. The SI unit of electric power is:

a. Joule

b. Watt

c. Volt

d. Ohm

20. The full form of CBDC is:

a. Central Bank Digital Currency

b. Central Digital Banking Coin

c. Currency Based Digital Coin

d. Central Blockchain Digital Currency

21. World Consumer Rights Day is observed on:

a. 13 March

b. 14 March

c. 15 March

d. 16 March

22. Simplify: 24 ÷ 6 + 8

a. 10

b. 12

c. 14

d. 16

23. Kabir preached:

a. Religious orthodoxy

b. Unity of God

c. Idol worship only

d. Caste superiority

24. Gurugram is known as:

a. Textile Hub

b. IT and Corporate Hub

c. Steel City

d. Cotton City

25. Which Article provides for a Uniform Civil Code?

a. Article 43

b. Article 44

c. Article 45

d. Article 46

26. Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya belonged to:

a. Suhrawardi Order

b. Chishti Order

c. Qadiri Order

d. Naqshbandi Order

27. The chief architect of Akbar’s religious discussions was:

a. Todar Mal

b. Birbal

c. Abul Fazl

d. Man Singh

28. The Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights in:

a. Shankari Prasad Case

b. Sajjan Singh Case

c. Golaknath Case

d. Kesavananda Bharati Case

29. The state tree of Haryana is:

a. Neem

b. Peepal

c. Banyan

d. Khejri

30. Which gas turns lime water milky?

a. Oxygen

b. Carbon Monoxide

c. Carbon Dioxide

d. Nitrogen

31. Vasco da Gama landed at:

a. Goa

b. Calicut

c. Surat

d. Bombay

32. Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs?

a. Pulmonary Vein

b. Aorta

c. Pulmonary Artery

d. Vena Cava

33. World Food Programme (WFP) is related to:

a. Food Assistance

b. Sports

c. Banking

d. Defence

34. The Right to Property is now a:

a. Fundamental Right

b. Constitutional Right

c. Natural Right

d. Legal Right only

35. Which Vedic deity was known as the god of fire?

a. Varuna

b. Indra

c. Agni

d. Soma

36. The theme of G20 South Africa 2025 was:

a. Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam

b. Solidarity, Equality, Sustainability

c. Green Future

d. Human First

37. The highest peak in India is:

a. Kanchenjunga

b. Nanda Devi

c. K2

d. Kamet

38. International Men's Day is observed on:

a. 18 November

b. 19 November

c. 20 November

d. 21 November

39. Buland Darwaza was built to commemorate:

a. Victory over Gujarat

b. Victory over Bengal

c. Victory over Mewar

d. Victory over Deccan

40. The highest peak of South India is:

a. Anaimudi

b. Doddabetta

c. Mahendragiri

d. Guru Shikhar

41. World Radio Day is celebrated on:

a. 11 February

b. 12 February

c. 13 February

d. 14 February

42. Which classical dance form originated in Kerala?

a. Kathak

b. Kathakali

c. Odissi

d. Manipuri

43. Kurukshetra is associated with:

a. Ramayana

b. Mahabharata

c. Buddhist Council

d. Jain Council

44. The largest ocean in the world is:

a. Atlantic Ocean

b. Indian Ocean

c. Arctic Ocean

d. Pacific Ocean

45. Which organ stores bile?

a. Liver

b. Pancreas

c. Gall Bladder

d. Spleen

46. Which lens is used to correct myopia?

a. Convex Lens

b. Concave Lens

c. Cylindrical Lens

d. Bifocal Lens

47. World Hearing Day is observed on:

a. 2 March

b. 3 March

c. 4 March

d. 5 March

48. If PEN = QFO, then BOOK = ?

a. CPPL

b. CPLL

c. CPPM

d. DQQL

49. The "Veena" is traditionally associated with:

a. Percussion

b. String Instrument

c. Wind Instrument

d. Brass Instrument

50. The longest mountain range in the world is:

a. Rockies

b. Alps

c. Andes

d. Himalayas

51. In a contract of guarantee under Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person for whom the guarantee is given is called

a. Surety

b. Principal Debtor

c. Creditor

d. None of the above

52. Under BSA:

A. “A' agrees absolutely in writing to pay 'B' Rs. 1000 on the 1st March, 2010. The fact that at the same time an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till the thirty-first March, cannot be proved.

B. 'A' Sells 'B' a horse and verbally warrants him sound. ‘A’ gives ‘B’ a paper in these words "Bought of ‘A’, a horse for Rs. 500". ‘B’ may prove the verbal warranty.

a. (A) incorrect, (B) correct

b. (B) incorrect, (A) correct

c. Both correct

d. Both incorrect

53. Can anticipatory bail be granted in respect of bailable offences, and if so in what circumstances?

a. Anticipatory bail cannot be granted in bailable offences

b. Bail can be granted only in case the petitioner is a woman, a minor or a sick person

c. There is no distinction between bailable and non-bailable offences so far as anticipatory bail is concerned

d. None of the above

54. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court—

a. can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed

b. can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides

c. either (a) or (b) at the opinion of the plaintiff

d. can be instituted anywhere in India

55. Risk passes to the buyer:

a. Only after delivery

b. Only after payment

c. Whether delivery has been made or not

d. Only after inspection

56. Section 21 empowers:

a. Supreme Court to frame rules

b. High Courts to make rules

c. District Magistrate to decide procedure

d. Police authorities

57. Under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, subject to the restriction laid down under its Section 37 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to the voluntary causing of

a. Grievous hurt

b. Death

c. Any harm other than death

d. Any harm other than death or grievous hurt

58. The provisions of plea bargaining are applicable: -

a. to juvenile offenders

b. at appellate stage

c. where punishment is for more than 7 years imprisonment

d. after issuance of process under section 227

59. When goods are mixed with the bailor’s consent:

a. Goods must be separated

b. Bailor loses ownership

c. Both bailor and bailee share interest proportionately

d. Bailee becomes owner

60. Under Proviso of Section 149 of the BSA, in a prosecution for rape in her cross-examination, the prosecutrix—

a. Can be put question as to her general immoral character

b. With the permission of the Court can be put questions as to her general immoral character

c. Cannot be put questions as to her general immoral character

d. Cannot be put question as to her rape

61. Consider the following statements):

i. A ‘decree’ means and includes

ii. formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit.

iii. any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from ah order.

iv. any order of dismissal of suit for default.

v. rejection of plaint.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iv)

d. All these

62. The maxim "de minimis non curat lex" is related to which of the following sections of the BNS?

a. Section 33

b. Section 27

c. Section 32

d. Section 31

63. Evidentiary value of a dying declaration

a. A conviction can be made only after corroboration

b. A conviction can be made even without corroboration

c. It has no evidentiary value

d. It is very weak evidence

64. Notice under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure is mandatory when

a. The suit is against a Co-operative Society

b. The suit is against the Government

c. The suit is against Gram Panchayat

d. The suit is against Municipal Corporation

65. A is a magistrate in his presence one murder took place during his morning walk, whether he can arrest the culprit himself:

a. No

b. Yes

c. Only police can arrest

d. As the Magistrate has to try the case he cannot arrest

66. Section 41 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deals with:

a. Dissolution by notice

b. Dissolution by the Court

c. Compulsory dissolution

d. Dissolution by agreement

67. A continuing guarantee under Section 130 is:

a. Irrevocable absolutely

b. Revocable as regards future transaction

c. Revocable absolutely

d. Either (a) or (b)

68. Facts can be:

a. physical facts

b. psychological facts

c. physical as well as psychological facts

d. only physical facts and not psychological facts

69. During the term of 'Muta Marriage'-

a. The wife has a right to divorce.

b. The husband has a right to divorce.

c. Husband and wife both have a right to divorce.

d. Neither the husband nor the wife has a right

70. A patient in a lunatic asylum who is at intervals of sound mind:

a. May not contract

b. May contract on Medical certificate

c. May contract during intervals

d. May contract after complete sound mind

71. For appointment of a special public prosecutor how many years experience is required as an practicing advocate:

a. 7 years

b. 10 years

c. 15 years

d. 5 years

72. In the "Ahsan Form" of talaq, the talaq is effective-

a. From the moment of pronouncement

b. On the expiration of Iddat period

c. On the third pronouncement

d. From the execution of writing of talaq-nama

73. In cases of common intention which of the following statements hold true?

a. The members of the mob are presumed to have common intention for the offences committed

b. In cases excluding gang rape cases it is necessary for the common intention to be there from the beginning

c. For establishing of common intention it is necessary to prove individual acts of the accused by direct evidence

d. In gang rape cases it is not necessary for the common intention to be from the beginning, it can be developed at the last minute before committing of the offence

74. In case a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried the presumption of legitimacy of child under section 116 of BSA arises:

a. If the father is alive on the day the child is born

b. If the father is not alive on the day the child is born

c. Irrespective of whether the father is alive or dead on the day the child is born

d. Either (a) or (b)

75. By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?

a. Hindu

b. Muslim

c. Kitabiya

d. None of the above

76. The binding nature of marriage under Saptapadi arises:

a. At engagement

b. At registration

c. On completion of seventh step

d. On cohabitation

77. Which one of the following is not a rule of pleading?

a. Plead the fact and not the law

b. State the law and plead the facts

c. Plead material facts only

d. Plead facts not evidence

78. Right of withholding delivery is:

a. Independent

b. Similar to lien and stoppage in transit

c. Absolute

d. Limited

79. Section 23A applies in proceedings for:

a. Only divorce

b. Divorce, judicial separation, or restitution of conjugal rights

c. Only annulment

d. Only maintenance

80. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are incorrect?

a. Nothing is offence which is done in exercise of right of Private Defence under BNS

b. A person has right to defend his own body only and not the body of other

c. Right of Private Defence is extended to cause death in defamation case

d. A person has even right of Private Defence where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities

Codes:

a. Only (c) is incorrect

b. (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect

c. (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect

d. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect

81. The right of private defence of body extends to causing death of the assailant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is of:

a. Wrongful restraint

b. Assault with the intention of committing rape

c. Hurt

d. Assault

82. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “every suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf.” This is provided under

a. Section 26

b. Section 20

c. Order 3 Rule 1

d. Order 4 Rule 1

83. Section 23 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies:

a. when the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody.

b. when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody.

c. when the person is in police custody but not an accused.

d. only (a) and (b)

84. If a confession is otherwise relevant, in which situation it will become irrelevant?

a. When it was made under a promise of secrecy

b. When the person making confession was drunk

c. When it was made in answer to questions which he need not have answered

d. None of the above

85. Which of the following is not correct?

a. A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if the act was committed under the influence of his mental disorder

b. The intoxication, in order to be available as defense must be of that degree and extent as renders the accused practically an automation

c. Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse for knowledge

d. Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable defense, if the act is done under the fear of instant death.

86. Which statement is correct regarding revocation of continuing guarantee?

a. It cancels liability for past transactions

b. It cancels all liabilities

c. It affects only future transactions after notice

d. It is not allowed by law

87. Section 35 of BNS expressly states that the right of private defence is subject to the restrictions contained in

a. Section 37 of BNS

b. Section 38 of BNS

c. Section 36 of BNS

d. Section 40 of BNS

88. Which one of the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail?

a. D.K. Ganesh Babu v. P.T. Manokaran

b. Tama v. State of West Bengal

c. Dinesh Dalmia v. C.B.I.

d. Dimple Gupta v. Rajiv Gupta

89. Notwithstanding Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a partnership contract may validly provide that:

a. A partner may engage in competing business freely

b. A partner shall not carry on any business other than that of the firm while he is a partner

c. A partner cannot withdraw from the firm

d. A partner must invest additional capital

90. Costs imposed under Section 35B of CPC:

a. shall be included in the costs awarded in the decree passed in the suit

b. shall not be included in the costs awarded in the decree passed in the suit

c. shall, if not paid, be executable against the person on whom the costs have been imposed

d. only (b) and (c)

91. No court shall take cognizance of an offence after expiry of period of limitation which is

a. six months, if offence is punishable with fine only

b. one year, if punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

c. 3 years, if punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding 3 years

d. all of the above

92. Which one of the following offences may not be tried summarily?

a. Offences punishable with imprisonment upto three years

b. Offences under Section 331(3) and 331(4) of BNS

c. Theft, under Sections 303, 305 and 306 of BNS where the value of the property stolen does not exceed two hundred rupees

d. Abetment of any of the foregoing offences

93. The accused mentioned in F.I.R. wants it to be quashed, he would approach the following one court

a. Only District Court

b. Only High Court

c. Only Supreme Court

d. All Court

94. Question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that he said, he had been robbed without making any complaint

a. is relevant showing preparation for relevant facts

b. is relevant showing conduct.

c. is relevant showing effect of relevant facts

d. may be relevant under Section 26 or Section 160 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

95. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 an ex parte order and ex parte decree may be set aside?

a. Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 10

b. Order 9, Rule 4 and Order 9, Rule 5

c. Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 13

d. Order 9, Rule 11 and Order 9, Rule 12

96. Court not competent to execute the decree: —

a. Court which has passed the decree.

b. Court to which it is sent for execution

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. court of collector

97. Section 173 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

a. Rights of pawnor

b. Pawnee’s right of retainer

c. General lien

d. Bailment

98. Z, a person of unsound -mind, attempts to kill A. Which one among the following statements, as per the provisions of BNS 2023, is correct?

a. Z is not guilty of any offence and A has no right of private defense against Z

b. A has no right of private defense against Z

c. Z is guilty of attempt to murder

d. Z is not guilty of any offence but A has a right of private defense against Z

99. In case of general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance if not required by the proposer. This has been held in:

a. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

b. Bhqgwandas v. Cirdharilal

c. Calmon Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

d. Kamji Dayawala and Sons v. Investment Import

100. Second motion must be made within:

a. 6 to 12 months

b. 6 to 18 months

c. 1 to 2 years

d. 3 months only

Download Haryana ADA Mock Test -1 PDF