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The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 MCQs Set-2
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1. The State Board advises in the selection and management of:
a. Industrial zones
b. Protected areas
c. Municipal corporations
d. Mining areas
2. The State Board advises in formulation of policy for:
a. Tourism only
b. Wildlife and specified plant conservation
c. Trade regulation only
d. Revenue administration only
3. The State Board may advise on matters relating to:
a. Amendment of any Schedule
b. Criminal trials only
c. Banking regulation
d. Election disputes
4. Under Section 8(cc), the State Board advises on measures for harmonising:
a. Industrial development with trade
b. Needs of tribals and forest dwellers with wildlife protection
c. Urbanisation with transport
d. Fisheries with mining
5. Section 9 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Constitution of Boards
b. Prohibition of hunting
c. Penalties
d. Licences
6. Under Section 9, hunting of wild animals specified in which Schedules is prohibited?
a. Schedules I, II, III and IV
b. Schedule V only
c. Schedule VI only
d. All schedules without exception
7. Hunting under Section 9 is prohibited for:
a. Every citizen except forest officers
b. No person shall hunt specified wild animals
c. Only foreigners
d. Only licensed dealers
8. Hunting of wild animals may be allowed only as provided under:
a. Sections 11 and 12
b. Sections 5 and 6
c. Sections 20 and 21
d. Sections 50 and 51
9. Section 11 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Constitution of Boards
b. Hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases
c. Trade in animal articles
d. National Parks
10. Under Section 11(1)(a), the Chief Wild Life Warden may permit hunting of a Schedule I animal if it:
a. Is useful for trade
b. Has become dangerous to human life
c. Is old in age only
d. Is found in forest area
11. Hunting of a Schedule I animal may also be permitted if the animal is:
a. Beyond recovery due to disability or disease
b. Captured by villagers
c. Used in circus
d. Kept in zoo
12. Permission under Section 11(1)(a) must be granted:
a. Orally
b. By order in writing with reasons
c. Through newspaper publication
d. By village panchayat resolution
13. A wild animal shall not be ordered to be killed unless:
a. It cannot be captured, tranquilised or translocated
b. Public demands it
c. It enters agricultural land
d. Forest officers request it
14. If a captured wild animal cannot be rehabilitated in the wild:
a. It must always be released
b. It may be kept in captivity with written reasons recorded
c. It must be sold
d. It becomes private property
15. Under Section 11(1)(b), the Chief Wild Life Warden or authorised officer may permit hunting of animals specified in:
a. Schedule I only
b. Schedule II, III or IV
c. Schedule V only
d. Schedule VI only
16. Hunting under Section 11(1)(b) may be permitted where the animal becomes dangerous to:
a. Human life
b. Property including standing crops
c. Both A and B
d. Tourism only
17. Killing or wounding a wild animal in good faith in defence of oneself or another person:
a. Is always an offence
b. Is not an offence
c. Requires prior permission
d. Is punishable with fine only
18. Any wild animal killed or wounded in defence of any person shall be:
a. Property of hunter
b. Property of village panchayat
c. Government property
d. Property of forest officer
19. Section 18 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act deals with:
a. Declaration of National Park
b. Declaration of Sanctuary
c. Constitution of Zoo Authority
d. Hunting permits
20. Under Section 18, the State Government may declare an area as:
a. Reserve Forest
b. Sanctuary
c. Private land
d. Industrial zone
21. Before declaring a Sanctuary under Section 18, the State Government must:
a. Consult Supreme Court
b. Issue notification and consider ecological importance
c. Take permission from private owners only
d. Conduct criminal trial
22. Section 19 of the Act relates to:
a. Acquisition of rights in or over land in proposed sanctuary
b. Hunting offences
c. Trade in animals
d. Zoo management
23. Under Section 20, claims relating to rights in sanctuary land are decided by:
a. Central Government
b. Collector/Authorised Officer
c. Supreme Court
d. Police Commissioner
24. Section 21 provides for:
a. Prohibition of entry in sanctuary without permit
b. Hunting licence
c. Tax exemption
d. Zoo registration
25. Entry into a sanctuary without permission is:
a. Fully permitted
b. Restricted and requires permit of Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Allowed only at night
d. Allowed for everyone
26. Section 22 deals with:
a. Grant of permit for entry or residence in sanctuary
b. Wildlife census
c. Trade regulation
d. Forest taxation
27. A permit under Section 22 may be granted for:
a. Scientific research
b. Tourism and photography
c. Official duties
d. All of the above
28. Section 23 empowers:
a. Chief Wild Life Warden to control sanctuary management
b. Supreme Court to manage forest
c. Police to issue hunting licence
d. Private companies to manage sanctuaries
29. Section 24 relates to:
a. Bar of acquisition of rights after declaration of sanctuary
b. Appeal procedure
c. Compensation for animals
d. Zoo establishment
30. Section 25 deals with:
a. Declaration of National Park
b. Prohibition of destruction in sanctuary
c. Wildlife census
d. Hunting rewards
31. In a Sanctuary, destruction of wildlife habitat is:
a. Fully allowed
b. Prohibited without permission
c. Encouraged for development
d. Optional
32. Section 26 provides punishment for:
a. Illegal entry and violation of sanctuary rules
b. Only civil liability
c. Tax evasion
d. Zoo licensing violation only
33. The main objective of Sanctuary provisions is:
a. Promote hunting
b. Conserve wildlife and habitat
c. Encourage mining
d. Industrial expansion
34. Under the Wildlife Protection Act, sanctuaries are primarily:
a. Industrial zones
b. Protected areas for conservation of wildlife
c. Private hunting grounds
d. Agricultural land
35. Section 17F of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Possession of plants by licensee
c. Constitution of Boards
d. National Parks
36. Under Section 17F, no licensee shall keep in possession any specified plant in respect of which:
a. Tax has not been paid
b. Declaration under Section 17E has not been made
c. Forest officer has not inspected
d. Market value is unknown
37. A licensee cannot possess any specified plant which:
a. Is lawfully acquired
b. Is cultivated with licence
c. Has not been lawfully acquired under the Act
d. Is declared under Section 17E
38. Under Section 17F(a)(ii), possession is prohibited if the specified plant:
a. Was lawfully acquired
b. Was not lawfully acquired under the Act or rules
c. Was grown in private land only
d. Is transported legally
39. A licensee shall not pick or uproot any specified plant except:
a. According to personal choice
b. In accordance with licence conditions and rules
c. During daytime only
d. With village approval
40. Section 17F also regulates:
a. Collection and acquisition of specified plants
b. Sale and transport of specified plants
c. Custody and possession of derivatives
d. All of the above
41. A licensee may sell or transport specified plants only:
a. Freely without restriction
b. According to licence conditions and rules under the Act
c. With police permission only
d. Through auction only
42. Which of the following is prohibited under Section 17F?
a. Acquiring unlawfully obtained specified plants
b. Possessing undeclared stock
c. Transporting specified plants contrary to licence conditions
d. All of the above
43. The restrictions under Section 17F apply to:
a. Every citizen
b. Licensees under this Chapter
c. Judges only
d. Forest officers only
44. Section 17F aims to ensure:
a. Proper regulation of possession and trade in specified plants
b. Expansion of commercial exploitation
c. Reduction of forest officers
d. Promotion of hunting
45. Section 17G of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Purchase of specified plants
c. Constitution of Boards
d. National Parks
46. Under Section 17G, no person shall purchase or acquire specified plants except from:
a. Any trader
b. Forest officer only
c. Licensed dealer
d. Village authority
47. Section 17G applies to:
a. Specified plants only
b. Part or derivative of specified plants also
c. Timber only
d. Domestic crops only
48. The proviso to Section 17G exempts persons referred to in:
a. Section 11
b. Section 12
c. Section 17B
d. Section 50
49. Section 17H deals with:
a. Trade in trophies
b. Plants to be Government property
c. Constitution of State Board
d. Hunting restrictions
50. Every specified plant in respect of which an offence has been committed shall be property of:
a. The offender
b. State Government
c. Local authority
d. Village Panchayat
51. If a specified plant is collected from a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, it shall be property of:
a. State Government
b. Forest officer
c. Central Government
d. Local municipality
52. Section 17H applies where offence is committed against:
a. This Act
b. Rules made under the Act
c. Orders made under the Act
d. All of the above
53. Under Section 17H(2), provisions of Section 39(2) and 39(3) apply in relation to:
a. Specified plants and derivatives
b. Revenue records only
c. Criminal courts only
d. Tourism activities
54. Section 17G mainly regulates:
a. Lawful purchase and acquisition of specified plants
b. Hunting of Schedule I animals
c. Constitution of National Board
d. Appointment of officers
55. Section 18 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. National Board
b. Declaration of sanctuary
c. Hunting permits
d. Trade in plants
56. Under Section 18, a sanctuary may be declared by:
a. Central Government only
b. State Government by notification
c. Supreme Court
d. District Magistrate
57. The State Government may declare its intention to constitute an area as sanctuary if it has:
a. Commercial importance only
b. Adequate ecological, faunal, floral or zoological significance
c. Industrial significance only
d. Religious importance only
58. Section 18 applies to areas other than:
a. Agricultural land
b. Municipal areas
c. Reserve forest or territorial waters
d. Highways only
59. A sanctuary may be declared for the purpose of:
a. Protecting wildlife or environment
b. Propagating wildlife
c. Developing wildlife
d. All of the above
60. The notification under Section 18(1) shall specify:
a. Tax details
b. Situation and limits of the area
c. Population data only
d. Names of villagers only
61. The situation and limits of sanctuary area are to be specified:
a. Exactly with survey maps only
b. As nearly as possible
c. Only by court order
d. By municipal notification only
62. For purposes of Section 18, the area may be described by:
a. Roads and rivers
b. Ridges and known boundaries
c. Readily intelligible boundaries
d. All of the above
63. Which of the following significance is relevant for declaration of sanctuary?
a. Geomorphological significance
b. Ecological significance
c. Floral significance
d. All of the above
64. The main object of declaring a sanctuary under Section 18 is:
a. Urban development
b. Protection and development of wildlife and environment
c. Industrial growth
d. Revenue collection
65. Section 18A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Protection to sanctuaries
c. Trade in plants
d. Constitution of Boards
66. When the State Government declares intention to constitute an area as sanctuary, provisions of Sections 27 to 33A:
a. Apply after final notification only
b. Come into effect forthwith
c. Never apply
d. Apply after court approval
67. Section 18A applies to areas not comprised within:
a. Agricultural land only
b. Reserve forest or territorial waters
c. Municipal limits only
d. National highways only
68. Until rights of affected persons are settled under Sections 19 to 24, the State Government shall:
a. Evict all persons immediately
b. Make alternative arrangements for fuel, fodder and forest produce
c. Close all forest access permanently
d. Impose penalties only
69. Alternative arrangements under Section 18A(2) are made according to:
a. Oral claims only
b. Government records of rights
c. Newspaper reports
d. Orders of village panchayat only
70. Section 18B deals with:
a. Appointment of Collectors
b. Constitution of National Board
c. Hunting licences
d. Tax collection
71. The State Government shall appoint an officer to act as Collector:
a. Within ninety days of the 2002 Amendment Act
b. Within thirty days of issue of notification under Section 18
c. Either A or B as applicable
d. Within five years only
72. The Collector appointed under Section 18B shall inquire into:
a. Criminal offences only
b. Rights of persons in or over the land comprised within sanctuary limits
c. Tax liabilities only
d. Election disputes only
73. The Collector determines:
a. Existence, nature and extent of rights
b. Wildlife population only
c. Industrial development plans
d. Revenue collection targets
74. The land inquired into by the Collector is land comprised within:
a. National highways
b. Municipal areas
c. Limits of the proposed sanctuary
d. Industrial zones only
75. Section 19 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Determination of rights by Collector
c. National Board
d. Penalties
76. After notification under Section 18, the Collector shall inquire into:
a. Tax disputes only
b. Rights of persons in or over the land within sanctuary limits
c. Election disputes only
d. Industrial licences only
77. The Collector determines:
a. Existence, nature and extent of rights
b. Wildlife population only
c. Forest produce prices only
d. Tourism policies only
78. Section 20 deals with:
a. Declaration of sanctuary
b. Bar of accrual of rights
c. Trade in specified plants
d. Appointment of officers
79. After issue of notification under Section 18, no right shall be acquired over the land except by:
a. Sale only
b. Mortgage only
c. Succession, testamentary or intestate
d. Lease only
80. Section 21 requires the Collector to publish:
a. Government order only
b. Proclamation in regional language
c. Court decree only
d. Police notice only
81. The proclamation under Section 21 shall be published:
a. Within thirty days
b. Within sixty days
c. Within ninety days
d. Within one year
82. The proclamation shall be published in:
a. Every town and village in or near the area
b. Parliament only
c. Supreme Court premises only
d. Foreign newspapers only
83. The proclamation shall specify:
a. Situation and limits of the sanctuary
b. Criminal penalties only
c. Tax liabilities only
d. Wildlife census only
84. Any person claiming rights under Section 19 must file written claim before the Collector within:
a. Fifteen days
b. One month
c. Two months from date of proclamation
d. Six months
85. Section 22 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Inquiry by Collector
b. Hunting permits
c. National Parks
d. Penalties
86. Under Section 22, the Collector shall inquire after:
a. Police investigation
b. Service of prescribed notice upon claimant
c. Court decree only
d. Newspaper publication
87. The Collector shall inquire into claims preferred under:
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. Section 21(b)
d. Section 50
88. The inquiry under Section 22 includes:
a. Claims filed before the Collector
b. Existence of unclaimed rights under Section 19
c. Both A and B
d. Wildlife census only
89. The Collector shall inquire into rights mentioned in:
a. Section 5
b. Section 11
c. Section 19
d. Section 39
90. Rights not claimed under Section 21(b) may still be inquired into if:
a. They are ascertainable from Government records or evidence
b. Approved by Parliament only
c. Mentioned in newspapers
d. Directed by police only
91. The Collector shall conduct inquiry:
a. Slowly and periodically
b. Expeditiously
c. Only after court order
d. After final notification only
92. Evidence for inquiry under Section 22 may include:
a. State Government records
b. Evidence of persons acquainted with such rights
c. Both A and B
d. Forest maps only
93. The prescribed notice under Section 22 is served upon:
a. Wildlife officers
b. Claimant
c. State Legislature
d. National Board
94. The object of inquiry under Section 22 is to determine:
a. Criminal liability only
b. Rights in or over land within sanctuary limits
c. Industrial ownership only
d. Tax assessment only
95. Section 23 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Powers of Collector
b. Hunting permits
c. National Parks
d. Trade in plants
96. For inquiry under Section 23, the Collector may:
a. Enter upon any land
b. Survey and demarcate land
c. Make a map of the land
d. All of the above
97. The Collector may authorise another officer to:
a. Conduct elections
b. Survey and demarcate land
c. Levy taxes
d. Issue licences only
98. Under Section 23(b), the Collector has powers vested in:
a. Criminal court only
b. Revenue court only
c. Civil court for trial of suits
d. Supreme Court only
99. Section 24 deals with:
a. Acquisition of rights
b. Constitution of Boards
c. Hunting of animals
d. Penalties
100. Under Section 24(1), the Collector may:
a. Admit or reject claim wholly or partly
b. Only reject claims
c. Only admit claims
d. Refer all claims to court
101. If a claim is admitted, the Collector may:
a. Exclude land from proposed sanctuary
b. Acquire land or rights
c. Allow continuation of rights in consultation with Chief Wild Life Warden
d. All of the above
102. Acquisition of land or rights under Section 24 is subject to compensation as provided in:
a. Indian Forest Act, 1927
b. Land Acquisition Act, 1894
c. Environment Protection Act, 1986
d. Transfer of Property Act, 1882
103. Rights may continue within sanctuary limits in consultation with:
a. State Legislature
b. National Board
c. Chief Wild Life Warden
d. District Magistrate
104. Under Section 24(2)(b), acquisition may not proceed where:
a. The owner agrees to surrender rights to Government
b. The land is agricultural
c. Forest officer objects
d. Wildlife population is low
105. Section 25 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Acquisition proceedings
b. Hunting permits
c. Constitution of Boards
d. Trade in plants
106. For acquisition under Section 25, the Collector shall be deemed to be a Collector proceeding under:
a. Indian Forest Act, 1927
b. Land Acquisition Act, 1894
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Environment Protection Act, 1986
107. Under Section 25(1)(b), the claimant is deemed to be:
a. A forest officer
b. A person interested under the Land Acquisition Act
c. A government servant
d. A trespasser
108. The provisions preceding Section 9 of the Land Acquisition Act shall be deemed:
a. Not applicable
b. Repealed
c. To have been complied with
d. Unconstitutional
109. If the claimant does not accept the compensation award, he may:
a. Lose all rights permanently
b. Claim relief under Part III of the Land Acquisition Act
c. File criminal case only
d. Seek relief from Panchayat only
110. Compensation under Section 25 may be awarded:
a. Only in money
b. Only in land
c. In land or money or partly both
d. Only in forest produce
111. Compensation in land or money may be awarded:
a. Without consent
b. With consent of claimant or both parties, as applicable
c. Only by Parliament
d. Only by Supreme Court
112. In case of stoppage of a public way or common pasture, the Collector may provide:
a. Industrial land
b. Alternative public way or common pasture
c. Private road only
d. Railway line only
113. Provision of alternative public way or pasture requires previous sanction of:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. National Board
114. Acquisition under the Wild Life (Protection) Act is deemed to be acquisition for:
a. Commercial purpose
b. Public purpose
c. Religious purpose
d. Private purpose
115. Section 25A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Delegation of powers
b. Time-limit for completion of acquisition proceedings
c. Hunting permits
d. National Parks
116. The Collector shall, as far as possible, complete proceedings under Sections 19 to 25 within:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Five years
117. The period of two years under Section 25A is counted from:
a. Date of court order
b. Date of notification declaring sanctuary under Section 18
c. Date of compensation award
d. Date of final acquisition only
118. If proceedings are not completed within two years, the notification under Section 18:
a. Automatically lapses
b. Remains valid
c. Becomes unconstitutional
d. Requires Supreme Court approval
119. Section 25A(2) specifically states that the notification shall:
a. Expire automatically
b. Not lapse
c. Be renewed every year
d. Be cancelled by Collector
120. Section 26 deals with:
a. Acquisition of rights
b. Delegation of Collector’s powers
c. Hunting of animals
d. Trade in specified plants
121. Under Section 26, powers exercisable by Collector under Sections 19 to 25 may be exercised by:
a. Any private person
b. Such other officer as specified by State Government
c. Parliament only
d. National Board only
122. Delegation under Section 26 may be made by:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Supreme Court
d. District Magistrate
123. The State Government may delegate powers by:
a. Oral direction only
b. General or special order
c. Newspaper publication only
d. Panchayat resolution
124. Section 26 permits delegation of:
a. Collector’s powers and functions under Sections 19 to 25
b. Judicial powers of High Court
c. Parliamentary functions
d. Police investigation powers only
125. Section 26A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Hunting permits
b. Declaration of area as sanctuary
c. Trade in plants
d. Penalties
126. The State Government may declare an area as sanctuary after:
a. Expiry of claim period and disposal of claims
b. Approval by village panchayat only
c. Court decree only
d. Election notification only
127. Under Section 26A(1)(b), reserve forest or territorial waters may be included in sanctuary if they possess:
a. Commercial significance only
b. Ecological, faunal, floral or zoological significance
c. Industrial importance only
d. Religious importance only
128. The State Government shall declare sanctuary by:
a. Oral order
b. Notification specifying limits of the area
c. Police notice only
d. Court decree only
129. If territorial waters are included in sanctuary, prior concurrence is required from:
a. National Board
b. Central Government
c. District Magistrate
d. State Legislature
130. Limits of territorial waters included in sanctuary shall be determined in consultation with:
a. Chief Naval Hydrographer of Central Government
b. Chief Justice of High Court
c. Election Commission
d. Director of Tourism
131. While including territorial waters in sanctuary, adequate measures must be taken to protect interests of:
a. Industrialists
b. Local fishermen
c. Tourists only
d. Mining companies
132. Under Section 26A(2), notification declaring sanctuary shall not affect:
a. Fishing rights entirely
b. Right of innocent passage of vessels or boats
c. Railway transport
d. Air traffic only
133. Boundaries of a sanctuary may be altered by the State Government only on recommendation of:
a. State Board
b. National Board
c. Supreme Court
d. District Collector
134. The notification under Section 26A specifies:
a. Compensation amount only
b. Limits of the sanctuary area and date from which it becomes sanctuary
c. Wildlife census only
d. Criminal penalties only
135. Section 27 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Restriction on entry in sanctuary
b. Hunting permits
c. Trade in plants
d. Constitution of Boards
136. Which of the following persons may enter or reside in a sanctuary without permit under Section 28?
a. Public servant on duty
b. Person permitted to reside within sanctuary
c. Person having right over immovable property within sanctuary
d. All of the above
137. A person passing through sanctuary along:
a. Railway line only
b. Public highway
c. Private farmland
d. Forest path only
138. Dependants of persons referred to in Section 27(1)(a), (b) and (c):
a. Cannot enter sanctuary
b. May enter or reside in sanctuary
c. Need permission of Parliament
d. Are treated as offenders
139. Persons other than those specified in Section 27(1) may enter sanctuary only:
a. Freely without restriction
b. Under permit granted under Section 28
c. By oral permission only
d. During daytime only
140. Every person residing in sanctuary is bound to:
a. Prevent commission of offences under the Act
b. Help discover and arrest offenders
c. Both A and B
d. Promote hunting
141. A person residing in sanctuary shall report:
a. Illegal trade only
b. Death of any wild animal
c. Village disputes only
d. Agricultural activities only
142. Until the Chief Wild Life Warden takes charge, the person shall:
a. Destroy remains of wild animal
b. Safeguard remains of dead wild animal
c. Sell the remains
d. Ignore the matter
143. Every person residing in sanctuary is bound to:
a. Extinguish and prevent spread of fire
b. Encourage burning of forest land
c. Report only after court order
d. Ignore forest fires
144. A resident of sanctuary must assist:
a. Forest officer
b. Chief Wild Life Warden or Wild Life Warden
c. Police officer demanding aid
d. All of the above
145. Section 28 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 deals with:
a. Restriction on hunting
b. Grant of permit
c. Constitution of Boards
d. Acquisition proceedings
146. Under Section 28, permit to enter or reside in a sanctuary may be granted by:
a. Central Government
b. Chief Wild Life Warden
c. Supreme Court
d. District Magistrate
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