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1. During the Proclamation of Emergency, the duration of the House of People may be extended by the Parliament for a period not exceeding at a time: —
a. One year
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. Eighteen months
2. A proclamation of national emergency automatically suspends: —
a. All fundamental rights
b. Right to freedom
c. Right to Constitutional remedies
d. No Fundamental right
3. Under Article 358 of the Constitution of India, which Article automatically becomes suspended on a proclamation of emergency?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 32
4. Under which of the following Articles the President of India has a right to suspend the implementation of fundamental rights during proclamation of emergency?
a. Article 359
b. Article 360
c. Article 354
d. Article 353
5. Which one of the following is not an automatic consequence of the proclamation of emergency?
a. Suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights except those conferred by Articles 20 and 21
b. Extension of the Union’s executive power to issue directions to any States as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
c. Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of the State list
d. Suspension of Article 19.
6. Article 19 will be suspended during the proclamation of emergency only when the emergency is declared on the ground of: —
a. war or external aggression or armed rebellion
b. war or external aggression or internal disturbance
c. war or armed rebellion
d. war or external aggression
7. When can the Governor recommend for imposition of President’s rule in the State?
a. On center’s recommendation
b. On recommendation of Chief Minister
c. On recommendation of Cabinet
d. When the Governor is satisfied that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
8. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution Provides that “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’ ?
a. Article 215
b. Article 275
c. Article 325
d. Article 355
9. A Proclamation under Article 356 is required to be approved by resolutions: —
a. Simple majority within one month
b. Special majority within one month
c. Special majority within two month
d. Simple majority within two month
10. Scope of Article 356 was examined in the case: —
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
c. Minerva Mills Lid. v. Union of India
d. U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
11. Provision for Financial emergency are laid down in Article of the Constitution of India: —
a. 352
b. 356
c. 360
d. 368
12. After declaration of financial emergency what is the maximum period its operation without approval of Parliament?
a. Four months
b. Three months
c. Two months
d. One month
13. In which way the Fundamental Rights can be suspended.
I. they can never be suspended.
II. If the President Orders it in the time of National Emergency.
III. If the Parliament passes a law by two-thirds majority.
IV. If the Supreme Court orders it.
a. I only
b. I & II only
c. II & IV only
d. II only
14. Which one of the following Articles deals with the amendment of the Constitution?
a. Article 374
b. Article 356
c. Article 368
d. None of the above
15. Article 368 of the Constitution provides-
a. procedure for amendment
b. power and procedure for amendment
c. power for amendment
d. None of the above
16. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
a. Ordinary Bill
b. Money Bill
c. Finance Bill
d. Constitution Amendment Bill
17. Amendment to which of the following provisions of Constitution requires ratification by the State?
a. Article 242
b. List-I of Seventh Schedule
c. Chapter V of Part lV
d. Chapter II of Part XI
18. Which of the following amendments was the most comprehensive amendment of the Constitution?
a. 52nd amendment.
b. 44th amendment.
c. 68th amendment.
d. 42nd amendment.
19. The first Constitutional Amendment was passed in-
a. 1950
b. 1951
c. 1952
d. none of the above
20. The provision relating to the Federal Structure can be amended by Parliament
a. By simple majority
b. By 2/3rd majority
c. By absolute majority
d. By 2/3rd majority of members present and voting and ratification by half of the State
21. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution is related with the reservation in private educational institutions?
a. Ninety-first Amendment
b. Ninety-second Amendment
c. Ninety-third Amendment
d. None of the above
22. 93rd amendment in the Constitution of India deals with:
a. Right to education
b. Right in respect of physically handicapped persons for appointments in the services under the States
c. Reservation for admission in educational institutions
d. Reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the state in favour of the other backward classes.
23. Which of the fundamental rights was amended by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 which got the President's assent on 12th January, 2012: —
a. Right to Equality
b. Right to Freedom
c. Right to Life
d. None of the above
24. Article 31 of Constitution of India dealing with right to property was repealed by which Constitutional Amendment?
a. 42nd Amendment 1978
b. 44th Amendment 1978
c. 70th Amendment 1991
d. 73rd Amendment 1992
25. The “Right to Property” as a fundamental right was removed by which one of the following Constitutional Amendment?
a. 25th Amendment
b. 93rd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 42nd Amendment
26. Which one of the following amendments accorded precedence to Directive Principle over Fundamental Rights?
a. 44th Amendment
b. 24th Amendment
c. 39th Amendment
d. 42nd Amendment
27. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments were made to nullify the decision of the Supreme Court in the Mandal Case?
1. The Constitution (Seventh-fifth Amendment) Act
2. The Constitution (Seventy-seventh Amendment) Act
3. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act
4. The Constitution (Eighty-first Amendment) Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below: —
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4
28. By the Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976: —
a. the provision for Equal Justice and free Legal Aid was inserted under Article 39A
b. the provision of organization of Village Panchayats was inserted
c. the provision for Eligibility for re-election of President was inserted under Article 57
d. the provision for protection of the Human Rights was inserted
29. By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution, Chapter of Fundamental Duties have been added as Chapter IVA in the Constitution?
a. 49th Amendment Act
b. 42nd Amendment Act
c. 45th Amendment Act
d. 49th Amendment Act
30. The 91st amendment of the Constitution pertains to: —
a. Panchayati Raj
b. Number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers
c. Election Petitions
d. Coalition Governments
31. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution made it mandatory for the President to accept the advice given by Council of Ministers?
a. 39th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 49th Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
32. The ratification by State Legislatures is not required for a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament in respect of an amendment of: —
a. Union List in Seventh Schedule
b. Article 241 with regard to High Courts for Union Territories
c. Articles 1 to 3 with regard to Union and its territory
d. Article 162 with regard to the extent of power of State executive
33. Which Constitution Amendment Act relating to appointments of judges came for consideration of the Supreme Court and was stuck down, being in violation of the basic feature doctrine of the Constitution of India?
a. 99th Amendment
b. 100th Amendment
c. 101st Amendment
d. 98th Amendment
34. Basic structure of Constitution can be amended: —
a. by simple majority
b. by 2/3 majority
c. by special majority and ratification by half of states
d. none of the above
35. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
a. 48th
b. 57th
c. 61st
d. 63rd
36. The subject of ‘Forests’ was transferred from State List (List II) to the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India by:—
a. The Constitution (24th Amendment) Act
b. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act
c. The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act
d. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act
37. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?
a. 51st Amendment
b. 52nd Amendment
c. 53rd Amendment
d. 54th Amendment
38. “Disqualification on the ground of defection shall not apply in case of split in the political party.” This provision has been deleted by-
a. Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
b. Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
c. Constitution (Ninety Fourth Amendment) Act, 2006
d. None of the above
39. In which case amendment in the Constitution, shall also be required to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one half of the States to that effect, where such an amendment is in respect of:
a. Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 or Article 241
b. Any of the lists in the seventh schedule
c. Representation of States in Parliament
d. Provisions relating to Part XII Chapter I
a. Only (a) and (b)
b. (a), (b) & (c)
c. Only (c) & (d)
d. (b), (c)&(d)
40. The Goods and Service Tax has been introduced by Constitutional Amendment Act.
a. 99th
b. 101st
c. 100th
d. 98th
41. What is the Constitutional significance of Kesavananda Bharati’s case?
a. For propounding doctrine of Basic Structure
b. For upholding reservation for OBC
c. For propounding doctrine of Judicial Review
d. For declaring National Judicial Appointment Commission as unconstitutional
42. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act a new Fundamental Duty was incorporated in the Constitution of India, which states who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years?
a. 84th Amendment Act
b. 85th Amendment Act
c. 86th Amendment Act
d. 87th Amendment Act
43. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Amendment) (Nature of Amendment)
A. 42nd Amendment 1. Disqualification
Act, 1976 for defection
B. 52nd Amendment 2. It amended
Act, 1985 Schedule VIII to
the Constitution
and added Sindhi
as recognized
language
C. 62nd Amendment 3. This Amendment
Act, 1989 inserted three new
words ‘Socialist’,
‘Secular’ and
‘integrity’ in the
Preamble
D. 21st Amendment 4. This Amendment
Act, 1989 has extended the
reservation of
States for SCs
and STs in the
House of the
People and
State Legislative
Assemblies
Codes:
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1 3 2 4
44. Which of the functionaries can be invited to give his opinion to the Parliament?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Chief Election Commissioner of India
c. Comptroller & Auditor General of India
d. Attorney General of India
45. Highest law officer of State is: —
a. Attorney-General
b. Advocate-General
c. Solicitor - General
d. None of the above
46. Who appoints Attorney General of India?
a. Parliament
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Prime Minister
d. President
47. Under Indian Constitution, in performance of his duties, Attorney General for India, shall have right of audience:
a. Only in Supreme Court
b. Only in all the High Courts
c. In all Courts of India
d. Only in Supreme Court and Tribunals established by Central Government
48. Who of the following cannot be removed by the Parliament?
a. Attorney General
b. Auditor General
c. Election Commissioner
d. Chief Justice of India
49. Which Law Officer holds the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament?
a. Solicitor General
b. Attorney General
c. Legal Advisor to President of India
d. Law Secretary, Government of India
50. Which of the following in not appointed by the President?
a. Advocate General
b. Comptroller and Auditor General
c. CJI
d. Attorney General of India
51. Which of the following, statements is incorrect about the Attorney General of India?
a. He must be qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court
b. He may be removed from his office in the same manner and on the same ground as of the Supreme Court judge
c. His duty is to give advice to the Government of India
d. He may sit in the Parliament even not being a member of it
52. Who of the following has the right to participate in the proceedings of State Legislature?
a. Chairman, State Public Service Commission
b. Chief Justice of High Court
c. Advocate General
d. Chief of Police Force in the State
53. Who among the following is known as the guardian of public purse in India?
a. Comptroller and Auditor General
b. Parliament
c. Finance Commission
d. Finance Minister
54. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed by-
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Council of Ministers
c. he President
d. The Chief Justice of India
55. In which Article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for "Finance Commission"?
a. 366(12)
b. 280
c. 265
d. None the above
56. The Finance Commission gives recommendations to President as to-
a. distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States
b. principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States of the Consolidated Funds of India
c. measures needed to augment the Consolidated Funds of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities
d. all the above
57. Which one of the following has been set up under the Constitution of India ?
a. The Planning Commission
b. The Law Commission
c. The National Commission to Review the Constitution
d. The Finance Commission
58. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of elections to-
a. The Parliament.
b. State Legislators
c. The offices of the President and Vice -President.
d. All the above
59. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by-
a. the Prime Minister of India
b. the President of India
c. the Chief justice of Supreme Court.
d. Parliamentary legislation
60. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office?
a. Chief Election Commissioner
b. Prime Minister
c. Home Minister in the same way as the judge of the High Court can be removed
d. President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
61. In India who accords recognition to the various political parties as national or regional?
a. The President
b. The Parliament
c. The Election Commission
d. None of these
62. Right to vote in election to Parliament is a-
a. fundamental right
b. constitutional right
c. legal right
d. natural right
63. Area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general elections is determined by: —
a. Delimitation Commission
b. Election Commission of India
c. Census Commission
d. President
64. Election dispute can be resolved only through election petition to the: —
a. District Court
b. Only Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. By Election Tribunal
65. Which one of the following is correct statement?
a. In deciding the question as to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President shall act
b. according to the opinion of the Election Commission
c. according to the opinion of the Supreme Court
d. with the aid and advice of the Council of Minister
66. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a. Five years
b. 62 years of age
c. Five years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier
d. Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
67. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office
a. by President of India
b. by Supreme Court of India
c. in manner and grounds as applicable for removal of judge of Supreme Court
d. by Government order
68. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The Chief Election Commissioner may be removed on the ground of violation of the Constitution
b. The Election Commission of India conducts the election of local bodies
c. Other Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
d. Provision for the appointment of the Election Commissioner is given in Article 325 of the Constitution
69. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
a. Election Commission
b. NITI Ayog
c. GST Council
d. Interstate Council
70. Which is not a Constitutional Commission
a. Law Commission
b. Finance Commission
c. Election Commission
d. UPSC
71. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Union Public Service Commission may serve needs of a State if requested by the Governor of that State and approved by the President
b. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by the Chief Minister of that State
c. Union Public Service Commission cannot serve the needs of a State
d. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State simply on request of Governor. Approval of the President is not necessary.
72. Who appoints UPSC member?
a. President
b. Prime Ministers
c. Chairman UPSC
d. Lok Sabha Speaker
73. Which among the following has the power to ex-tend functions of the State Public Service Commission?
a. The Governor
b. The State Legislature
c. The Chief Minister
d. The Advocate General
74. Who amongst the following can be removed from his office by the President without an impeachment motion having been passed by the Parliament?
a. A judge of the Supreme Court
b. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
c. The Chief Election Commissioner
d. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
75. Article 323 of the Constitution of India lays down that when the report of the Union Public Service Commission is not accepted the reasons for such non-acceptance are to be laid before: —
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
d. Cabinet Committee presided over by the Prime Minister
76. In which one of the following matters, the Union Public Service Commission is not required to be consulted?
a. Matters relating to the methods of recruitment to the civil service
b. Disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government
c. Claims by or in respect of a person who has served the government
d. The manner in which the Government is empowered to make reservation in the posts for government service
77. Consider the following statements: —
The Constitution provides for the establishment of Public Service Commission: —
1. for the Union
2. for each State
3. common for Union Territories
4. common for two or more States
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1,2 and 4
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
78. All India Services is created by: —
a. The Rajya Sabha
b. the Lok Sabha
c. both the Houses of the Parliament
d. the Union Public Service Commission
79. Every person who is a member of a civil service of a State holds office during the pleasure of: —
a. his immediate superior officer
b. the Chief Secretary
c. the Governor
d. the Government
80. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the establishment of Inter-State Council?
a. Article 261
b. Article 262
c. Article 263
d. Article 264
81. To adjudicate on any dispute relating to Inter State rivers or Inter- State river valley, the: —
a. Supreme Court only is empowered under Article 131 of the Constitution
b. High Court of concerned State enjoy concurrent jurisdiction
c. President of India only has power to decide
d. Parliament is empowered to establish Tribunal and to that extent jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be excluded
82. The Inter-State Council is headed by: —
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Home Minister
d. Law & Justice Minister
83. For the purpose of inquiring into and advising upon inter State dispute, if at any time, it appears to the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of such council, he is empowered to establish which one of the following?
a. Zonal Council
b. Inter-State Council
c. Inter-State Zonal Council
d. The Central Inter-Zonal Council
84. Constitution of India was adopted in
a. 26th January 1950
b. 26th November 1949
c. 15th August 1947
d. 2nd October 1950
85. Which Article provides for personal immunity to the President and Governor for official acts: —
a. 362
b. 363
c. 368
d. 361
86. How many representatives of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated to the State Legislative Assembly by the Governor of the State?
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
d. Nil
87. Article 361 of the Constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that, he shall: —
a. not participate in Parliamentary proceedings
b. only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India
c. address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session
d. not be answerable to any court during the term of his office
88. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following in any court during the term of his office?
a. President, Vice-President or Governor
b. President, Prime Minister and Governor
c. President and Governor only
d. President, Vice-President and Prime Minister
89. Provision for Administrative Tribunals was added in the Constitution of India.....by amendment.
a. 42nd
b. 46th
c. 36th
d. 78th
90. Tenth schedule of the Constitution provides for:
a. Disqualification on grounds of defection
b. Union list
c. Administration of tribal areas
d. Allocation of seats in council of states
91. Which article makes Hindi in Devnagari Script as the official language of the Union?
a. Article 342
b. Article 343(1)
c. Article 343(2)
d. Article 343(3)
92. Total number of languages recognized in the Constitution of India are:
a. 28
b. 31
c. 22
d. 18
93. Vote on account means-
a. Vote on the report of GAG
b. Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
c. Passage of Bills to meet unforeseen expenditure
d. Bill for initiation of budget
94. Article 239 AB of the Constitution provides-
a. Power of administrator to promulgate ordinances during recess of legislature.
b. Power of the President to make regulations for certain Union Territories.
c. Provision in case of failure of constitutional machinery of National Capital Territory.
d. None of the above
95. Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is laid down in-
a. Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India
b. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India
c. Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India
d. none of the above
96. In the Sixth schedule of the Indian Constitution, provisions with regard to administration of tribal areas of some States have been made. Which of the following States is not included therein?
a. Meghalaya
b. Mizoram
c. Tripura
d. Manipur
97. The Constitution Authority vested with power of declaring Castes or Tribes as Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the-
a. Parliament
b. Chairman SC/ST Commission
c. President of India
d. Home Minister
98. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with "Provisions as to the administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes"?
a. Sixth Schedule
b. Ninth Schedule
c. Tenth Schedule
d. Fifth Schedule
99. The Second Commission on Centre-State Relations is headed by-
a. VijayKelkar
b. R.S. Sarkaria
c. M.M. Punchhi
d. None of the above
100. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
"Full faith and credit" clause of the Constitution does not apply to-
a. Public acts
b. Public records
c. Acts of Corporation
d. Judicial proceedings
101. 'Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State,' is provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 261
b. Article 260
c. Article 32(3) and Article 226(3)
d. Article 226(2)
102. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of Inter-State rivers or river valleys?
a. Article 258
b. Article 260
c. Article 262
d. Article 264
103. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the establishment of Inter-State Council?
a. Article 261
b. Article 262
c. Article 263
d. Article 264
104. Taxation is a/an_____________power of the State and there is not fundamental right to be immune from taxation.
a. Independent
b. Statutory
c. Authoritative
d. Administrative
105. Assertion (A): Article 301 of the Constitution declares trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India free.
Reasoning (R): The State can impose taxes which do not directly affect the freedom of trade.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
106. Constitution Bench of Supreme court in 'Jindal Stainless v. State of Haryana' (AIR 2016 SC 5617), has explained the constitution provision regarding-
a. Use of religion in elections
b. Liquor vending on Highway
c. National Anthem
d. Restriction on trade commerce etc.
107. Part XIV of the Constitution of India relates to-
a. Elections
b. Special provision relating to certain classes
c. Services under the Union and the States
d. None from the above
108. Appropriate legislature is empowered to frame service rules under of Constitution of India.
a. Article 307
b. Article 309
c. Article 311
d. Article 320
109. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants have been given in Article-
a. 311
b. 300
c. 44
d. None of the above
110. Removal or suspension of a member of Public Service Commission shall be done in accordance with-
a. Art. 316
b. Art. 317
c. Art. 350
d. Art. 351
111. The reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes in the House of the People is provided under-
a. Article 325 of the Constitution
b. Article 327 of the Constitution
c. Article 330 of the Constitution
d. Article 332 of the Constitution
112. Article 338-A of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a-
a. National Commission for Backward Glasses
b. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
c. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
d. None of the above
113. Which Article gives the parliament the power to provide for the use of English Language after the initial 15 years period?
a. Article 343(1)
b. Article 343(3)
c. Article 343(2)
d. None of the above
114. Under the Constitution of India Hindi in Devanagari Script is-
a. National language of the Union of India
b. Official language of the Union of India
c. Mother language of the Union of India
d. None of the above
115. The Eighth schedule of the Constitution contain-
a. Fundamental Rights
b. Directive Principles
c. A list of 22 languages recognized by the Constitution
d. None of these
116. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Article 39A 1. Ordinance issuing
power of the
Governor
B. Article 213 2. Uniform Civil Code
C. Article 44 3. Separation of
Judiciary from
Executive
D. Article 50 4. Free Legal Aid
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 3 2
117. How many schedules are there in Constitution of India?
a. 10 schedules
b. 12 schedules
c. 14 schedules
d. 15 schedules
118. ....... of the total number of members of Goods and Service Tax Council shall constitute the 'Quo-rum' of it's meetings.
a. One third
b. One fourth
c. Half
d. Two third
119. Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc. until the Parliament otherwise provides shall be-
a. Proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in English Language.
b. Proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in Hindi Language.
c. Proceedings in the Supreme Court will be in English but in every High Court, the language shall be regional.
d. Proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English and in High Court language will be Hindi or as per choice of parties.
120. Establishment of Administrative Tribunals relates to which Article: —
a. Article 323
b. Article 323A
c. Article 232A
d. Article 233A
121. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution relates to creation of All India Judicial Service in India common to Union and the States?
a. Article 312
b. Article 312A
c. Article 313
d. Article 315
122. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down that the Union of India and the States can sue and be sued?
a. Article 301
b. Article 300
c. Article 304
d. Article 365
123. Which of the following is a Constitutional right but not a Fundamental right?
a. Protection of life and personal liberty
b. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
c. Right to assemble peaceably
d. Right to hold property
124. Which of the following Articles contains right to property?
a. Article 31 (A)
b. Article 19
c. Article 300
d. Article 300A
125. .....of the Constitution of India provides that subject to the other provisions of the Part XIII, Trade Commerce and Intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free. Fill in the blank from the following: —
a. Article 300
b. Article 300A
c. Article 301
d. Article 203
126. Under which Article of the Constitution, a State can impose tax on Inter-State trade with the approval of the President?
a. Art.302
b. Art.303(I)
c. Art.303(II)
d. Art.304
127. Which Constitutional provision provides that no bill or amendment for the purposes of imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse with or within a State as required in the public interest shall be introduced or moved in the Legislature of that State without the previous sanction of the President?
a. Article 301
b. Proviso to Article 304(b)
c. Article 303(2)
d. Article 304(b)
128. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a State for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without previous sanction of the President.
2. No bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament for altering the name of a State without the recommendation of the President and the concurrence of the State legislature concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: —
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
129. The Constitution of India makes special provisions for many States. The special provisions have not been made in the case of which one among the following States?
a. Assam
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Goa
d. Meghalaya
130. Article 309 enables the legislature to legislate: —
a. in regard to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union of any State.
b. regarding recruitment to Civil posts in connection with the affairs of the Union only
c. regarding appointment to Civil Service of the State only
d. regarding condition of service in connection of private undertakings only
131. The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India does not include which one of the following languages?
a. Nepali
b. Bodo
c. Bhojpuri
d. Dogri
132. Sikkim’s special status is mentioned in which of the following articles
a. Article 371
b. Article 371A
c. Article 371C
d. Article 371F
133. The short title of our Constitution is the ‘Constitution of India’. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution it has been mentioned?
a. Article 394
b. Article 394A
c. Article 393
d. Article 1
134. Which of the following language is NOT a part of Eighth Schedule?
a. Nepali
b. Sanskrit
c. Maithili
d. Rajasthani
135. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution relates to the laws
a. which cannot be judicially reviewed by the Courts and are protected from judicial scrutiny
b. the Law which are not in the concurrent lists
c. the Laws which deal with detention and curtailment of liberties during emergency
d. the Laws pertaining to acquisition or requisition of properties
136. In which schedule of Constitution of India, the three lists are mentioned
a. III
b. V
c. IX
d. VII
137. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. India, that is a Bharat 1. Preamble
is a Union of States
B. Liberty of Thought, 2. Right to
Expression and Worship Freedom
C. Freedom of Speech 3. Union and its
and Expression Territory
D. Protection of Interest 4. Cultural and
of minorities Educational
Rights
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 3 2 1
138. The Constitution of India secures to all its citizens-
a. Justice and Equality
b. Liberty
c. Fraternity
d. All of the above.
139. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers
b. The Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspiration of the people.
c. The Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution.
d. The Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution
140. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as: —
a. a Socialist democratic Republic
b. a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
c. a Sovereign Democratic Republic
d. a None of the above
141. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure: —
a. fundamental rights to all individuals
b. fundamental duties to citizens of India
c. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d. security of service to the Government servant -
142. In case there is a conflict between the Preamble and other provisions of the Constitution, which will prevail over the other: —
a. Preamble will prevail
b. Other provision will prevail
c. Both will go side by side
d. Interpretation of the Supreme Court will prevail
143. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of: —
a. Constituent Assembly of Free India
b. Constitution of India
c. Indian Independence Act
d. People of India
144. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the: —
a. Italian Constitution
b. Canadian Constitution
c. French Constitution
d. Constitution of USA
145. Preamble is the part of Constitution: —
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. May not be
146. In which case, the Supreme Court declared that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?
a. Golak Nath case
b. Berubari case
c. Kesavananda Bharati case
d. all the above cases
147. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution'?
a. In re: Golaknath case
b. In re: Maneka Gandhi
c. In re: Swaran Singh
d. In re: Keshwananda Bharti
148. Which of the following case is known as Fundamental Right Case?
a. ADM Jabalpur Case
b. Keshavananda Bharti Case
c. Golaknath Case
d. Maneka Gandhi Case
149. Which one of the following statements is more correct?
a. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368
b. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended
c. Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made
d. Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution
150. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is: —
a. not a part of the Constitution
b. a part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution
c. a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity
d. a part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution
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