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1. Who out of the following nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
a. Prime Minister of India
b. President of India
c. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
d. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
2. The final decision on questions of disqualifications of members of State Assembly shall be made by: —
a. Speaker of Assembly
b. Governor
c. Election Commissioner
d. Chief Justice of High Court
3. How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?
a. l/6th
b. l/12th
c. l/3rd
d. l/9th
4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: —
List-I List-II
A. Chief Election 1. Elected by
Commissioner Rajya Sabha
B. Deputy Chairman 2. Elected by
of Rajya Sabha Members of Lok
Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok 3. Appointed by
Sabha the President
D. Chairman of Public 4. Appointed by the
Accounts Committee Speaker of Lok
Sabha
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 3 2 1 4
5. The Supreme Court was established in-
a. 1950
b. 1949
c. 1962
d. 1980
6. What is the retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
a. 62 years
b. 58 years
c. 70 years
d. 65 years
7. In which of the following countries, the Supreme Court Judges are appointed for life tenure, terminating upon death, resignation, or conviction?
a. Canada
b. Australia
c. USA
d. Germany
8. The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath conducted by: —
a. Chief Justice of India
b. President or Vice President
c. President or some person appointed by him
d. None
9. When the Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President he is required to consult: —
a. the Council of Minister and all judges of the Supreme Court
b. the Prime Minister the Law Minister and the Attorney General of India
c. Such of the Ministers of the Cabinet and the Prime Minister, as he deems necessary
d. Such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he deems necessary
10. Who gives oath of the office and secrecy to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court?
a. Senior Judge of Supreme Court
b. President of India
c. Assumes Offices as his own
d. Law Minister
11. Judges of the Supreme Court, other than the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, are appointed by: —
a. The Prime Minister in consultation with the cabinet
b. The President in consultation with Chief Justice of India
c. Union Public Service Commission
d. Attorney General of India
12. The current sanctioned strength of the Judges (including the Chief Justice) of the Supreme Court of India is: —
a. 25
b. 27
c. 29
d. 34
13. A citizen of India can be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, if: —
a. he has been for at least three years a Judge of a High Court.
b. he has for at least 10 years held a judicial office.
c. he has been for at least 7 years as advocate of High Court
d. he is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
14. A Professor of a University, who is an eminent jurist, is eligible to be appointed as a judge of the: —
a. High Court
b. Both High Court and Supreme Court
c. Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the High Court
d. Supreme Court
15. Under which article of the Constitution a distinguished jurist can be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court?
a. Art. 124(2)
b. Art. 127
c. Art. 128
d. Art. 130
16. An eminent jurist can be appointed as a Judge/ member of: —
a. A High Court
b. The Administrative Tribunal
c. The Debt Recovery Tribunal
d. The Supreme Court
17. Who among the following can remove a Judge of High Court from his office?
a. President
b. President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
c. President on the basis of resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
d. Governor on the basis of resolution passed by the State Legislature
18. For removal of a judge of Supreme Court, the special majority resolution required to be passed in each House of Parliament is: —
a. two thirds of total number of the House
b. two thirds of total membership of the House
c. two thirds of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House
d. None of the above
19. A Judge of Supreme Court may resign his office by writing a letter to-
a. the Chief Justice of India
b. the President
c. the Prime Minister
d. None of the above
20. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of an acting Chief Justice?
a. Article 125
b. Article 126
c. Article 127
d. Article 130
21. Who may appoint ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court?
a. The Chief Justice of India with previous consent' of the President
b. The President of India with previous consent of the Chief Justice of India
c. The Chief Justice of India without consent of the President
d. None of the above
22. For how much period, the President can appoint additional and acting judges High Courts?
a. Not exceeding 2 years
b. Not exceeding 3 years
c. Not exceeding 1 years
d. Not exceeding 5 years
23. The Supreme Court of India shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself. It is provided under: —
a. Article 21
b. Article 32
c. Article 136
d. Article 129
24. What is the minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who must sit together to constitute a Constitution Bench?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
25. The minimum number of judges required for the purpose of hearing any reference by President of India is-
a. 8
b. 5
c. 2
d. 15
26. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is-
a. Appellate only
b. Original only
c. Original as well as appellate
d. Original, appellate and advisory
27. Which of the following jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India has been wrongly listed?
a. Original jurisdiction
b. Appellate jurisdiction
c. Advisory jurisdiction
d. Adjudicating administrative conflicts
28. Article 131-A was inserted in the Constitution by-
a. Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act 1976
b. Constitution (Forty-Third Amendment) Act 1977
c. Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978
d. Constitution (Forty-Sixth Amendment) Act 1980
29. In the following which dispute is not covered in original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
a. between the government of India and one or more States
b. between the Government of India and any State or States one side and one or more other States on the other
c. between two or more States
d. pre constitutional treaty or agreement.
30. Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under: —
a. Appellate jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction
c. Advisory jurisdiction
d. Review jurisdiction
31. The Supreme Court of India has original juris-diction to try a suit in
a. important question of interpretation of Constitutional provisions
b. important international disputes between a Corporation like O.N.G.C. and Corporation in U.S.A.
c. in disputes between national political parties
d. the civil disputes between two States
32. The Supreme Court does not have original juris-diction regarding a dispute between: —
a. the Government of India and a State or States
b. the Government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on the other side
c. two States
d. a citizen and a State
33. Right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law belongs to: —
a. President
b. Governor
c. Prime Minister
d. President and Governor
34. Power of the President to consult Supreme Court is conferred under-
a. Article 142 of the Constitution of India
b. Article 143 of the Constitution of India
c. Article 144 of the Constitution of India
d. Article 147 of the Constitution of India
35. The President can obtain opinion of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
a. Where he is advised by the Cabinet of Minister to refer the matter to the court for its opinion
b. Where he is advised by the Prime Minister to refer the matter to the court or its opinion
c. Where the question of law or fact has arisen or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the court.
d. None of the above
36. The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court: —
a. Is binding on the President
b. Is not binding on the President
c. Is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made
d. It not made public at all
37. The Constitution (Ninety Ninth Amendment), 2014 relates to-
a. General Sales Tax (GST)
b. National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
c. Enhancement of quota for SC's and STs
d. One Rank One Pension (OROP)
38. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme Court:
a. only against the orders and judgement of the High Courts
b. from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order under any cause or matter passed or made by any court or Tribunal in territory of India
c. against any appeallate order or judgement passed by the Courts or tribunal in India
d. against the order or judgement of the High Court passed only in Public Interest Litigation
39. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court has powers to review its decisions?
a. Article 135
b. Article 136
c. Article 137
d. Article 143
40. According to which Article of the Constitution of India, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India?
a. Article 123
b. Article 136
c. Article 137
d. Article 141
41. The law declared by Supreme Court of India is binding on all courts within the territory of India, but the Supreme Court is not bound by its decision was decided by the Supreme Court itself in-
a. Keshavanada Bharati v. State, of Kerala
b. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. RajNarain
c. Madhav Rao Schindia v. Union of India
d. Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar
42. Principle of stare decisis is incorporated in of Constitution of India.
a. Article 139
b. Article 140
c. Article 141
d. Article 142
e. None of these
43. Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts with in the territory of India, here ‘Courts’ means: —
a. all courts including the Supreme Court of India
b. all courts except the Supreme Court of India
c. all courts including the Supreme Court except such benches of the Supreme Court which consist of seven judges or more
d. all courts including Supreme Court except a bench of the Supreme Court which consist of all the judges of the Supreme Court
44. The Supreme Court of India has evolved curative petition under:—
a. Article 136 of the Constitution
b. Article 143 of the Constitution
c. Article 32 of the Constitution
d. Article 142 of the Constitution
45. Under Article……………………… of the Constitution of India the Supreme Court of India may make rules. Fill in the blanks from the following: —
a. Article 134
b. Article 142
c. Article 145
d. Article 141
46. Under Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court may make rules of regulating the practice and procedure of the Court with the approval of: —
a. Parliament
b. President
c. Government of India
d. None of the above
47. Supreme Court Rules, 2013 have been framed under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?
a. Article 146
b. Article 143
c. Article 144
d. Article 145
48. Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without fear or favour.
a. (A) is true but (R) is false
b. Both (A) and (R) and true
c. Both (A) and (R) and false
d. (A) Is false but (R) is true
49. Judicial Review means:—
a. Supreme Court can declare any law made or amended by the legislature as ultra-vires to the Constitution
b. Reviewing judgements of High Court
c. Reviewing judgements of Supreme Court
d. All of the above
50. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The power of judicial review means the power of the Supreme Court to
a. Set aside any executive decision if it is against statutory law
b. Set aside any provision of law if it is contrary to the Fundamental Rights.
c. Examine Constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as legislative action, provision and strike it down if not found in accordance with the Constitutional provision
d. Review its own decision or decision of any court or tribunal within the territory of India.
51. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by: —
a. Supreme Court alone
b. By all Courts
c. Supreme Court as well as High Court
d. None of the Courts
52. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are charged on: —
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Law
c. Contingency Fund of India
d. Consolidated Fund of India
53. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a court of record.
Reason (R): It delivers judgement in open court.
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
54. Adherence to precedent is called the doctrine of: —
a. Stare decisis
b. Commercial impracticability
c. Substantial performance
d. Nolo contendere
55. When the judgement of a court consists of certain observations which lay down certain principles of law, such observations are called: —
a. obiter dicta
b. stare decisis
c. ratio decidendi
d. None of the above
56. There shall be a High Court for each State is provided under the Constitution of India
a. Article 203
b. Article 206
c. Article 214
d. None of the above
57. The Judges of the State High Court are appointed by: —
a. Governor of the State
b. President of India
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Chief Justice of the State High Court
58. A Judge of the High Court can hold office up to the age of-
a. 60
b. 58
c. 65
d. 62
59. Appointment of retired judges at the sittings of High Courts is inserted by-
a. 12th Amendment Act
b. 14th Amendment Act
c. 15th Amendment Act
d. 17th Amendment Act
60. Questions as to the age of judge of a High Court are to be decided by-
a. President
b. Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
c. Governor
d. Chief Justice of India
61. Consider the following statements: —
The High Court has jurisdiction to: —
1. Punish for its contempt.
2. Tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the President
4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Funda-mental Rights or for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
62. Which of the following is not true?
a. The Gauhati High Court exercise jurisdiction over seven states
b. The Bombay High Court has original jurisdiction
c. Fillings in the Supreme Court can only be done by an Advocate on Record
d. Supreme Court is the only court of record
63. Which of the following statements is true:—
a. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by a High Court
b. The constitutional validity of a central law cannot be considered by a High Court
c. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by a District Judge
d. The constitutional validity of a central law can be considered by any court
64. The retirement age for a High Court Judge:—
a. Is the same as the retirement age for a District Judge
b. Is the same as the retirement age for a Supreme Court Judge
c. Is lower than the retirement age for a District Judge
d. Is lower than the retirement age for a Supreme Court Judge
65. A retired Judge of the High Court cannot: —
a. practice in the Supreme Court
b. practice in any High Court in India
c. practice in the High Court from where he has retired
d. None of the above
66. Study the following statements and pick up the correct code: —
Statement I: The power of High Court to issue writs under Article 226 is wider than the power of Supreme Court under Article 32.
Statement II: The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs only for violation of fundamental rights whereas the power of High Court under Article 226 can be invoked for the enforcement fundamental rights as well as legal rights.
a. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
b. Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect
c. Both the Statements are correct but Statement II does not justify Statement I.
d. Both the Statements are correct and Statement II justifies Statement I
67. Which of the following jurisdictions is NOT exercised by High Courts?
a. Writ Jurisdiction
b. Appellate jurisdiction
c. Original jurisdiction
d. Advisory jurisdiction
68. Under Article 226 of the Constitution the High Courts have power to issue directions, orders or writs: —
a. co-extensive with the Supreme Court
b. for the enforcement of the fundamental rights only
c. for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for any other purposes
d. inferior to that of Supreme Court
69. The transfer of Judges form one High Court to another High Court may be made by the: —
a. President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of that High Court
b. Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
c. Governor of the concerned State in Consultation with the Chief Justice of India
d. President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India
70. Under which provision of the Constitution High Courts have power to punish for contempt of it-self?
a. Article 214
b. Article 226
c. Article 215
d. Article 216
71. The Governor of a State does not appoint the: —
a. Chief Minister
b. Members of the State Public Service Commission
c. Judges of the High Court
d. Advocate General
72. Which is not a qualification to become a High Court Judge?
a. He should be a citizen of India
b. He has at least ten years of experience as an advocate of High Court
c. He has completed the age of 35 years
d. He has, for at least ten years, held a judicial office in India
73. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution deals with: —
a. High Courts’s power of superintendence
b. Power of speaker
c. Election of Vice President
d. None of the above
74. Under Article 227 of the Constitution who has superintendence over all the courts and tribunals located in the territory to which it exercises jurisdiction?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. High Court
75. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under: —
a. Article 20
b. Article 226
c. Article 32
d. Article 22
76. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 of the Constitution of India is not wider than that of the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 because the High Courts may exercise this power in relation to: —
a. civil and criminal matters
b. fundamental and other legal rights
c. fundamental rights and matters in appeals
d. fundamental rights and stay matters
77. Which of the following writs may be issued by HC-
a. Prohibition
b. Mandamus
c. Certiorari
d. All of those
78. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of his office shall be performed by: —
a. Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief Justice of India
b. Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the President of India
c. Any senior most judge of the Supreme Court after the Chief Justice
d. Any one of the above
79. Name of the first Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India was: —
a. Justic H.L.J. Kania
b. Justice Patanjali Shastri
c. Justice S.R. Das
d. Justice A.N. Ray
80. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. No mandamus can be issued to enforce an Act which has been passed by the Legislature.
b. Court can not issue any direction to the Legislature to make any particular kind of enactment
c. Supreme Court may give a direction for amending an Act
d. Under the Constitutional Scheme, Parliament and the State Legislatures exercise sovereign powers to enact law.
81. Which of the following is true: —
a. The State government can determine the language of each court within the State
b. The State Government can determine the language of each court within the State except the High Court
c. The State government cannot determine the language of any court within the State
d. The State government can determine the language only in administrative tribunals
82. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article.
a. 121
b. 211
c. 124
d. None of the above
83. Consider the following statements to answer this question: —
A. Parliament cannot extend the jurisdiction and power of the Supreme Court
B. No discussion can take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of judge of the Supreme Court in discharge of the duties.
C. A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot appear or plead in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
D. The salaries and allowances of the Supreme Court are fixed by the Constitution and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. B, Cand D
b. A and B
c. A and C
d. B and D
84. Puisne Judge of a Supreme Court means —
a. a judge of inferior scale
b. an additional judge
c. an associate judge
d. an ad hoc judge
85. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of ad hoc judges in the: —
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. District and Session Courts
d. All the above
86. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court including all salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of the officers and servants of the court, shall be charged upon: —
a. Contingency fund of India
b. Consolidated fund of India
c. taxes levied by Union of India
d. Consolidated fund of States
87. Consider the following statements: —
Judicial review under the Constitution of India
1. Is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
2. Can only be ousted or excluded by a constitutional amendment.
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
88. The real position of the High Courts is that they are: —
a. subordinate to the Supreme Court of India
b. under administrative control of the Supreme Court of India
c. subordinate to the Supreme Court of India and under administrative control of the State Governments
d. constitutional courts and only for the purpose of jurisdictional hierarchy subordinate to the Supreme Court of India.
89. Article 142 of the Constitution
a. is supplementary in nature.
b. gives preference to equity over law.
c. decisions under it do not constitute precedence under Article 141
d. All of the above
90. List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists: —
List-I List-II
A. Original jurisdiction of 1. Article 134
the Supreme Court
B. Appeal in criminal cases 2. Article 131
to the Supreme Court
C. Appellate jurisdiction 3. Article 143
of the Supreme Court for
appeals from the High……….
Courts in regard to Civil Cases
D. Advisory jurisdiction 4. Article 133
of the Supreme Court
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 3 4 2
91. Which Article in the Constitution deal with regulation of the subordinate courts?
a. Articles 78 to 101
b. Articles 145 to 148
c. Articles 233 to 237
d. Articles 266 to 253
92. According to the Constitution of India the term “District Judge” shall not include: —
a. Chief Presidency Magistrate
b. Session Judge
c. Chief judicial Magistrate
d. Chief Judge of Small Cause Court
93. The District Judge can be given power to issue prerogative writs by: —
a. order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India
b. Executive Orders issued by the Governor in consultation with the High Court Article 162 of the Constitution of India
c. the Parliament by law under Article 32 of the Constitution of India
d. the High Court by a decision of Full Court
94. According to Article 233 of the Constitution, a Districtjudge is appointed by the: —
a. Chief Justice of the State High Court
b. Governor of the State
c. Chief Minister of the State
d. None of the above
95. Who appoints judicial officers of the subordinate courts, other than District judges?
a. The Chief Justice of High Court
b. The Governor
c. State Public Service Commission
d. None of the above
96. Who has control over the subordinate judiciary?
a. The High Court
b. The Supreme Court of India
c. The Governor
d. None of the above
97. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the control of the High Court over subordinate Courts in matter of posting, promotion, leave etc.?
a. Article 226
b. Article 227
c. Article 235
d. Article 236
98. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus is related with: —
a. Article 13
b. Article 211
c. Article 245
d. Article 300
99. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision and definition.
Reason (R): The entries are not power but are only fields of legislation.
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
100. The exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent list or State list is vested in the:—
a. State Legislature
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Governor
101. Article…………………… of the Constitution of India vests the residuary power of legislation with the Parliament,
a. 246
b. 247
c. 248
d. 250
102. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Parliament has power to legislate with respect to any matter in the State list in the national interest: —
a. on passing resolution with required majority by the concerned State Legislative Assembly
b. on passing a resolution with required majority by the Rajya Sabha
c. on passing a resolution with required majority by the Lok Sabha
d. on promulgation of an ordinance by the President
103. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it is in the: —
a. national interest
b. interest of the State concerned
c. interest of the public
d. interest of the minority
104. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A resolution passed by the Council of States un-der Article 249 empowering Parliament to legis-late on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period:
a. not exceeding six months
b. not exceeding two years
c. not exceeding one year
d. of unlimited time
105. A Law made by the legislature of the State with respect to one of the matters in the Concurrent list containing any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by parliament shall prevail in that State, if: —
a. the Parliament ratifies the same
b. the State legislature has made the law with 2/3 majority of its total members
c. it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent
d. the Parliament doesn’t enact any law amending, varying or repealing the law, withing six months from the date of enactment.
106. The Parliament passes a legislation with respect to a subject in the State list in the national interest. The legislation contains certain provisions which are inconsistent with the provisions of a State legislation enacted on the same subject. With regard to the above which one of the following is correct?
a. The question of repugnancy has to be decided with reference to Article 254(1) of the Constitution of India
b. The question of repugnancy has to be decided with reference to Article 254(2) of the Constitution of India
c. The question of repugnancy has to be decided with reference to Article 251 of the Constitution of India
d. The legislation passed by Parliament shall cease to have effect after two years from the date of its enactment
107. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to Treaties and International Agreements?
a. Article 247
b. Article 246
c. Article 254
d. Article 253
108. Law made by the Parliament with respect to any matter enumerated in State list, during proclamation of emergency under Article 250 of the Constitution of India, will cease to have effect in which one of the following conditions?
a. When the proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
b. When it is repealed by the Parliament
c. On the expiration of six months after the proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
d. On the expiration of one year after the proclamation of emergency has ceased to operate
109. Which one of the following is correct?
The result of obtaining the assent of the President to a State law which is inconsistent with a Union law relating to a subject in the concurrent list would be that: —
a. the State law would be valid and the Union law would not be operative in that State
b. the Union law would override the State law
c. both laws would remain operative in the State
d. the Parliament can amend the State law with prior assent of the President.
110. In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by the State Legislatures, which one of the following shall prevail?
a. The law made by Parliament before the law made by the Legislature of the State
b. The law made by Parliament after the law made by the legislature of the State
c. The law made by Parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the State
d. The law made by the legislature of the State
111. Where a law is made by a State Legislature on the subject enumerated in the concurrent list, with the assent of the President, repugnant to the earlier law made by Parliament, then the law so made by the State
a. Shall prevail in the State
b. Shall not prevail in the State
c. Shall prevail with the permission of Supreme Court
d. Shall prevail with the permission of High Court
112. A State legislature passed an Act banning the use of loud speakers within 100 meters of educational institutional and also between 10.00 p.m. and 4.00 a.m. The validity of the legislation is challenged on several grounds. Which one of the following correctly states the law?
a. The Act is invalid as it is relatable to entry 31 of the List I (broadcasting and other like forms of communication).
b. The Act is valid as it is relatable to entry 1 (Public Order) and entry 6 (Public Health) of the List II.
c. The Act is valid as the same was enacted from the educational institutions and resident welfare associations.
d. The Act is invalid as it violates the freedom of trade and freedom of speech and expression.
113. The statement "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly" relates to the doctrine of-
a. Doctrine of pith and substance
b. Doctrine implied power
c. Doctrine of severability
d. Doctrine of colourable legislation
114. The case of State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh is related with which of the following doctrines?
a. Doctrine of Basic Structure
b. Doctrine of Eclipse
c. Doctrine of Pith and substance
d. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
115. In which case, the Supreme Court gave ‘Doctrine of Prospective Overruling’.
a. Shankari Prasad, v. Union of India
b. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
c. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
d. Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
116. Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to-
a. Interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same field
b. Serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violate Fundamental Rights
c. Interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of territorial nexus
d. Interpretation of statutes to' solve problems of waiver of Fundamental rights
117. Which one of the following doctrines is not related to Article 13 of the Constitution?
a. Doctrine of Eclipse
b. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
c. Doctrine of Waiver
d. Doctrine of Severability
118. Criminal Procedure is a subject of: —
a. State List
b. Union List
c. Concurrent List
d. Either (a) or (b)
119. Match List I will List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: —
List-I List-II
(Doctrine) (Meaning)
A. Doctrine of Pith and 1. You cannot do
Substance directly what
you cannot
do indirectly
B. Doctrine of Incidental
Encroachment 2. The part of
Statute which is
bad can be
served from
the rest
C. Doctrine of Severability 3. A law is not
invalid even
though
trenched
incidentally to
another List
D. Doctrine of Colourable 4. True nature
and character
of the
legislation
Code
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 3 2 1
120. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to define: —
a. The powers of the Union Government
b. The Centre-State relations
c. The powers of the State Government
d. Allocation of taxes between Centre and States
121. Under the Constitution of India all aspects of family law are provided in the: —
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. None of the above
122. Delegatus non potest delegare means: —
a. a delegate can further delegate its powers
b. delegated legislation is valid
c. a delegate cannot further delegate his powers
d. None of the above
123. Matters pertaining to the validity of exercise of legislative power as distributed between the Union and the States under different lists are scrutinized with the help of which of the following principles?
1. Doctrine of Severability
2. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
3. Doctrine of Eclipse
4. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
124. One of the following subjects is not in the State list.
a. Police and prisons
b. Public health and sanitation
c. Markets and fairs
d. Bankruptcy and insolvency
125. Prevention of cruelty to animals comes under which of the following List in the Constitution.
a. Union List
b. Concurrent List
c. State List
d. None of these
126. The subject "Bill of Exchange", falls in which list of VII Schedule to the Constitution of India.
a. State List
b. Union List
c. Concurrent List
d. None of these
127. Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution deals with: —
a. Agriculture
b. Education
c. Police
d. Reserved Power
128. Which schedule of the Constitution mentions the Union List, State List and Concurrent List: —
a. Seventh Schedule
b. Article 246
c. Eighth Schedule
d. Article 245
129. In which list is the subject ‘Pilgrimages Places outside India’ enumerated?
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. None of the above
130. Which one of the following is not included in Union List?
a. Postal service
b. Defence
c. Audit and Accounts
d. Public Health
131. Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
a. Inter-State Rivers
b. Trade Unions
c. Citizenship
d. Local Government
132. Under which list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, does the subject ‘banking’ occur?
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Both the Union List and State List
d. Concurrent list
133. In which List-I is the subject of Preventive Detention enumerated?
a. The Union List
b. The Concurrent List
c. The State List
d. None of the above
134. Part IX of the Constitution dealing with Panchayats was inserted by-
a. 72nd Amendment
b. 73rd Amendment
c. 74th Amendment
d. none of the above
135. The Concept of Panchayati Raj was introduced in the Indian Constitution through: —
a. Article 123
b. Article 300A
c. Article 243A
d. None of these
136. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is concerned with the-
a. matters relating to the responsibilities of municipalities
b. the Legislative Assemblies for Delhi and Pondicherry
c. powers and functions of the Panchayat Raj Institutions
d. the election of the Panchayati Raj in all States.
137. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by-
a. 74th Amendment
b. 73rd Amendment
c. 65th Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
138. Provision regarding ‘Constitution of Municipalities are in Article
a. 243P
b. 243Z
c. 243Y
d. 243Q
139. Municipalities have become constitutional functionaries by insertion of Article: -
a. 243Y
b. 243Q
c. 243Z
d. None of these
140. The election to the Municipalities is provided under-
a. Article 243 Y
b. Article 243 Z
c. Article 243 ZA
d. Article 243 ZC
141. Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India provides for……….
a. Municipalities
b. District Planning Committee
c. Metropolitan Planning Committee
d. Finance Commission
142. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India containing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT pertaining to the Cooperative Societies was inserted by:
a. Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992
b. Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011
c. Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
d. Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment) Act, 2010
143. The provision regarding emergency was adopted
a. Constitution of France
b. Constitution of Japan
c. U.K. constitution
d. German Constitution
144. How many types of Emergency have been envisaged by the Indian Constitution?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. None of these
145. Who is empowered to proclaim emergency?
a. The Prime Minister
b. Council of Minister
c. The President of India
d. The Election Commission
146. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The President can issue a proclamation of emergency: —
a. on the advice of the Prime Minister
b. on the advice of the Council of Minister
c. in his own discretion
d. when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issuance of such a proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
147. The clause (3) to Article 352 of the Constitution requiring the President to issue a proclamation of emergency only after the decision of the Union Cabinet has been communicated to him in writing was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?
a. 44th Amendment, 1978
b. 73rd Amendment, 1992
c. 70th Amendment, 1991.
d. 42nd Amendment, 1976
148. The Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within from the date of issue.
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
149. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation: —
I. the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised.
II. the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws on the subject which is not enumerated in the Union List
Which of the above statements is/ are found to be correct?
a. Only (I)
b. Only (II)
c. Both (I) and (II)
d. Neither (I) nor (II)
150. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When Emergency is in operation, the President of India may declare that: —
a. all Fundamental Rights are suspended
b. all Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 are suspended
c. all Fundamental Rights except Articles 19 and 20 are suspended
d. all Fundamental Rights except Articles 21 and 22 are suspended