8. Which of the following is a part of the Electoral College for the election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her im-peachment?

a. Lok Sabha.

b. Rajya Sabha.

c. State Legislative Assemblies.

d. State Legislative Councils.

9. The President of India is elected by an electoral college which will consist of: —

a. All members of both the Houses of Parliament

b. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of the State Assemblies of all the States

c. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of the States

d. All the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States

10. Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India?

a. Speaker of Lok Sabha

b. Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

c. President’s nominee in Rajya Sabha

d. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

11. The method of proportional representation is adopted in the election of: —

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Governor

d. Chief Justice of India

12. The term of office of the President of India is: —

a. 5 years form date of his election

b. 5 years from date of his entering upon his office

c. 7 years from date of his election

d. 7 years from date of his entering upon his office

13. Who is legally competent to declare war?

a. President of India

b. Prime Minister of India

c. Chief Justice of India

d. Law Minister of India.

14. Which one of the following pair of Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India?

a. Article 60 & Articles 61

b. Article 62 & Article 63

c. Article 99 & Article 100

d. Article 72 & Article 73

15. Who decides a dispute regarding the election of the President of India?

a. Election Commission

b. Chief Justice of India

c. Parliament

d. Supreme Court

16. Which of the following is not included in Elec-toral college for electing president?

a. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha

b. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State

c. Elected members of the Legislative Council

d. Elected members of the Lok Sabha

17. The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds?

a. Proved misbehaviour

b. Incapacity

c. Violation of the Constitution

d. All of the above

18. Under Indian Constitution, to whom the president addresses his resignation?

a. To the Government

b. To the Prime Minister

c. To the Chief Justice of India

d. To the Vice President

19. Which statement is correct as to the President of India?

a. He can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President

b. He can continue to hold office even after expiration of his term until his successor enters upon his office

c. He can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President and can continue to hold office even after expiration of his term until his successor enters upon his office

d. He shall not be impeached

20. In which Article of the Constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the President is given?

a. Article 57

b. Article58

c. Article 59

d. Article 60

21. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should be: —

a. 21 years

b. 25 years

c. 30 years

d. 35 years

22. Which of the following is not an eligibility criterion for election President of India ?

a. should be citizen of India

b. should be at least 35 years of age.

c. should be qualified for election the House of the People

d. he should be elected as a member of the House of the People

23. in the Indian Constitution the qualifications for the election of the President are mentioned in: —

a. Article 55

b. Article 56

c. Article 57

d. Article 58

24. The oath is administered to the President of India by: —

a. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

b. Prime Minister of India

c. Attorney General of India

d. Chief Justice of India

25. When the President is to be impeached, the charge shall be preferred by:—

a. Either House of the Parliament

b. The Upper House of the Parliament

c. The Lower House of the Parliament

d. Both the Houses of the Parliament simultaneously

26. The proposal to prefer charge against the Presi-dent of India should be moved by at least of the total number of member of the house : —

a. l/10th

b. l/5th

c. 2/3rd

d. l/4th

27. Procedure for impeachment of the President has been provided under Article of the Constitution of India.

a. 56

b. 60

c. 61

d. 63

28. Consider the following statements: —

1. The President of India may be removed from his office before expiry of his term for violation of the Constitution.

2. The impeachment charge against the President may be preferred by either House of the Parliament.

3. For the resolution of impeachment, votes of two-third of the Members of the House present and voting are required.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 only

29. The maximum time period to fill up vacancy in the office of President occurred due to death, resignation on removal or president is: —

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 60 days

d. 1 years

30. Article 123 deals with-

a. Power of the President to dissolve Lok Sabha

b. Power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances

c. Power of the President to promulgate ordinances

d. Power of the Parliament to pass the bills

31. An ordinance can be issued by the President at any time when: —

a. the Parliament is in session

b. Lok Sabha is not in session

c. Rajya Sabha is not in session

d. Both the houses or Parliament are not in session

32. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a-

a. Executive power

b. Legislative power

c. Constituent power

d. Quasi-judicial power

33. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which one of the following constitutional authorities?

a. President

b. President and Governor of a State

c. Governor

d. Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India

34. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend remit or commute sentences in certain cases?

a. Article 71

b. Article 72

c. Article 162

d. Article 77

35. The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment etc., under Article 72 of Constitution is exercised by the President of In-dia.

a. On the advice of the Prime Minister.

b. On his own as Head of the Union.

c. On the advice of the Council of Ministers.

d. On the advice of the Law Minister.

36. The President has no power to grant pardon un-der Article 72 the Constitution of India where the sentence: —

a. is given by a court martial

b. of death has been awarded

c. is for an offence relating to a matter to which the executive power of Union extends

d. is for an offence relating to a matter to which the executive power of State extends.

37. The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution India to commute the sentence of a person where:—

a. punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial

b. punishment or sentence is for offence against law relating to matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

c. sentence is a sentence of death

d. All these.

38. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?

a. The President of India is bound by the advice of Council of Minister

b. The President of India is not bound by the advice of Council of Minister.

c. The President of India may require Council of Ministers to reconsider advice.

d. The President of India is bound to accept advice of Council of Minister, tendered after reconsideration.

39. In which of the following amendments of the Constitution it mandatory for the President to accept the advice given by council of ministers-

a. 39th Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 49th Amendment

d. 44th Amendment

40. If the positions of President and Vice President are vacant, who among the following officiates as the President of India?

a. The Prime Minister

b. The Chief Justice of India

c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

d. None of the above

41. Which one of the following Chief Justice India has acted as President of India?

a. M. Hidayatullah

b. P.B. Gajendra gadkar

c. P.N. Bhagwati

d. All of the above

42. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?

a. Governor of the State

b. Chief Justice of the High Court

c. Vice President

d. Judge of the Supreme Court of India

43. Who presides over the sessions of Rajya Sabha?

a. President

b. Speaker

c. Deputy Speaker

d. Vice-President

44. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

a. Vice President of India

b. President of India

c. Chief Minister of India

d. Prime Minister of India

45. Who amongst the following elect the Vice Presi-dent of India?

1. Members of Lok Sabha

2. Members of Rajya Sabha

3. Members of Legislative Assemblies

4. Members of Legislative Councils

Select the correct answer from the code given below: —

a. (1) and (2)

b. (1) and (3)

c. (1), (2) and (3)

d. (1), (2), (3) and (4)

46. The Vice-President of India may be removed from his office by: —

a. impeachment

b. a resolution passed by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha with a two thirds majority

c. a resolution passed with a two-thirds majority in a joint session of Parliament

d. a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha with simple majority and agreed to by a majority members of Lok Sabha

47. Vice President of India makes and subscribes oath or affirmation before: —

a. Chief Justice of India

b. President of India

c. Prime Minister

d. Chief Election Commissioner

48. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

a. Members of the House of People

b. Members of the Parliament

c. The President of India

d. None of the above.

49. The Prime Minister is responsible to the: —

a. Council of Ministers

b. President

c. Rajya Sabha

d. Lok Sabha

50. Position of Prime Minister is what?

a. Head of Government

b. Head of State

c. Chief of Lok Sabha

d. Head of the Council of Minister

51. The minimum age required to become the Prime Minister of India is-

a. 30 years

b. 35 years

c. 25 years

d. 40 years

52. Which of the following provisions empower Presi-dent to appoint the Prime Minister?

a. Article 74

b. Article 75

c. Article 76

d. Article 77

53. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provisions of the post of the Prime Minister of India?

a. Article 73

b. Article 74

c. Article 75

d. Article 74(1)

54. Which provision of the Constitution of India in-corporates the “principle of collective responsibility” of the Council of Ministers?

a. Article 75(3)

b. Article 75(1)

c. Article 171(4)

d. Article 118(4)

55. The Union Council of Ministers appointed by: —

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Parliament

d. Vice-President

56. The Prime Minister is said to hold the office dur-ing the pleasure of the President but in reality he Stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of: —

a. The electorate

b. The Lok Sabha

c. The party of which he belongs

d. Parliament

57. The Council of Ministers remains in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of-

a. President

b. Lok Sabha

c. Speaker

d. Prime Minister

58. By which Constitution Amendment the number of Ministers have been limited to 15% of the total number of members of the Lower House?

a. Ninety First Amendment

b. Ninety Second Amendment

c. Ninetieth Amendment

d. None of the above

59. The total number of Minister, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not exceed: —

a. 20% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha

b. 15% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha

c. 20% of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha

d. 15% of the total number of members of both the Houses

60. Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President: —

a. on advice of the Council of Minister

b. on advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha

c. on his own wish

d. on recommendation of the Vice-President

61. Assertion (A): Courts cannot review the question as to what “aid and advice” is given by the Council of Ministers to the President.

Reason (R): The question of ‘aid and advice’ by the Council of Minister is a “non justiciable issue”.

a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true

62. Consider the following statements: —

A person who is not a member of Parliament

1. cannot be appointed as a Minister.

2. can be appointed as a Minister for six months.

3. can be appointed as a Minister for six months term renewable by another six months

4. can be appointed as a Minister beyond six months on his election to either House of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 2 and 4

b. 2,3 and 4

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3

63. A non-legislator can remain a Minister: —

a. for 6 months only

b. for 1 year only

c. for 5 years

d. till the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly

64. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha?

a. He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within six months

b. He/she can declare the government policies only in the Rajya Sabha

c. He/she cannot vote in a no confidence motion

d. He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberations in the Lok Sabha

65. State Executive power is vested with: —

a. Chief Minister

b. Council of Ministers

c. Chief Minister and Council of Ministers

d. Governor

66. Who administers oath to the Governor of a State?

a. President of India

b. Chief Justice of the State High Court

c. Advocate General of the State

d. None of the above

67. The Constitution Head with no security of tenure-

a. Member of the Public Service Commission

b. Comptroller and Auditor General

c. The Governor

d. Election Commissioner of India

68. Consider the following statements: —

1. The Governor of a State

2. is the Constitutional Head of the State.

3. always acts as an agent of the Centre.

4. is an integral part of the State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

69. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution gives the Governor the power to grant par-don in certain cases?

a. Article 165

b. Article 161

c. Article 151

d. Article 155

70. The Governor of a State shall have powers to grant pardon to any person convicted of any offence: —

a. and sentenced to death

b. and sentenced to life

c. relating to central law

d. relating to state law

71. Which one of the following statements with re-gard to the pardoning power of the Governor is correct?

a. The Governor can pardon the death sentence

b. The Governor has no power in relation to death sentence

c. The Governor can only suspend or remit the death sentence

d. The Governor can only suspend, remit or com-mute the death sentence

72. Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of President

b. The Governor of a State holds his office during the pleasure of the President

c. The Prime Minister can only be removed by a resolution passed both Houses of Parliament

d. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed at the pleasure of the President

73. Governor can resign from his post, his resignation will be addressed to the: —

a. President

b. Chief Minister

c. Vice-President

d. Both (a) and (b)

74. Which one of the following does not apply to the term of office of Governor?

a. The Governor shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President

b. Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be thirty-two year

c. The Governor may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the President

d. The term of Governor shall be five years

75. In which one among the following cases, the President of India is not bound by the advice of the Union Council of Ministers?

a. Exercise of power under Article 72

b. Exercise of power to appoint Attorney General of India

c. Exercise of power under Article 217(3)

d. Exercise of power under Article 30

76. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. The same person can be appointed as Governor of three States

b. A Governor can be appointed only in consultation with Chief Minister of the State concerned

c. A Governor has no power to entrust any of the function of the State to Government of India even with the latter’s consent

d. Only a person who has completed 30 years of age can be appointed as Governor of a State.

77. Which one of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature?

a. Article 206

b. Article 208

c. Article 213

d. Article 212

78. Consider the following statements: —

1. The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.

2. The Governor cannot commute death sentence to life imprisonment.

3. The President’s power to pardon extends to punishments or sentences by court martial

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. c. 1,2 and 3

d. 2 and 3 only

79. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor of a State lapses:—

a. after six months io its promulgation

b. after six months of its publication in the official gazette

c. after six weeks from the date of assembly of the House(s) of the State legislature

d. whenever the Council of States takes a decision

80. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. The Governor can issue Ordinances when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or only when two Houses are not in session

b. The Governor can at his discretion issue the ordinances whether the Assembly is in session or not

c. The Governor must be satisfied that/such circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action

d. The Governor’s ordinance shall have the same force and effect as an Act of the Legislature

81. To review the financial position of which one among the following the Governor of a State has power to constitute a Finance Commission?

a. Panchayats only

b. Municipal bodies only

c. State

d. Both Panchayats and Municipal bodies

82. Match List-I (Article) with List-II (Power) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: —

List-I List-II

(Article) (Power)

A. Article 72 1. President’s

ordinance making

power

B. Article 123 2. Governor’s

ordinance making

power

C. Article 161 3. President’s

pardoning power

D. Article 213 4. Governor’s pardoning

power

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2

83. The Constitutional authority vested with the power declaring castes or tribes as the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the: —

a. Parliament

b. Home Minister

c. President of India

d. Chairman, SC/ST Commission

84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List-I List-II

A. Article 61 1. Appointment of ad hoc

judges in the Supreme

Court

B. Article 71 2. High Courts are courts

of record

C. Article 127 3. Procedure for the

impeachment of the

President

D. Article 215 4. Matters relating to the

election of President

or Vice-President

Code:

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 3 4 1 2

85. Whenever the Constitution requires the ‘satisfaction’ of the President for the exercise of any power or function by him it retains: —

a. the personal satisfaction of the President

b. the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers

c. the satisfaction of the Members of the Parliament

d. None of the above

86. Who was the first lady Governor in India?

a. Sarojini Naidu

b. Dr. Kamala Beniwal

c. Ambika Soni

d. Margaret Alva

87. Under Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament for the Union consists of: —

a. The Lok Sabha and The Rajya Sabha

b. The Council of States and the House of People

c. President, the Council of States and the House of People

d. President and the Lok Sabha

88. The Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House of Parliament, has a maximum strength of-

a. 250 members

b. 225 members

c. 330 members

d. 350 members

89. The members of the Rajya Sabha (other than nominated members) are elected by the-

a. Elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies

b. Elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies and Lok Sabha

c. Elected members of Lok Sabha

d. None of the above

90. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?

a. The President

b. The Chairman, Rajya Sabha

c. The Lok Sabha

d. None of the above

91. According to our Constitution the Rajya Sabha is: —

a. dissolved once in 2 years

b. dissolved every 5 years

c. dissolved every 6 years

d. not a subject to dissolution

92. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is-

a. 550

b. 475

c. 470

d. 552

93. Seats are allocated to the various States in Lok Sabha on the basis of-

a. their size and resources

b. their population

c. their size, resources and population

d. None of the above

94. The minimum age to qualify for election to Lok Sabha is-

a. 35 years

b. 25 years

c. 21 years

d. 18 years

95. How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every two years?

a. 1/4

b. 1/3

c. 1/2

d. 1/10

96. What is the maximum gap permissible between two Sessions of the Parliament?

a. 6 months 10 days

b. 6 months

c. 4 months

d. 90 days

97. In which house is the Presiding Officer not a member of that House?

a. Lok Sabha

b. Rajya Sabha

c. Vidhan Sabha

d. Vidhan Prishad

98. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes

a. 1/10th of the total members

b. 1/10th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less

c. 1 /3rd of the total number

d. 100 members

99. How many members of Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President of India from amongst person who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service etc.

a. 2

b. 10

c. 12

d. 6

100. How many elected members are there in the Council of States?

a. 250

b. 240

c. 238

d. 235

101. The Joint sitting of both Houses takes place un-der Article-

a. 108

b. 109

c. 110

d. 112

102. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?

a. Prime Minister

b. President

c. Members of Lok Sabha

d. Members of Rajya Sabha

103. Who presides over joint Sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

a. President

b. Speaker of Lok Sabha

c. Parliamentary Affairs Minister

d. Vice-President

104. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill, then the deadlock is resolved by: —

a. A joint sitting of two Houses

b. The President of India

c. The Prime Minister of India

d. Special Committee

105. Which Bill provides for the holding of a joint sit-ting of both the Houses of the Parliament for its passage in case of a deadlock?

a. Ordinary Bill

b. Money Bill

c. Finance Bill

d. Both (a) and (b)

106. Money Bill can be initiated only in: —

a. Finance Commission

b. Rajya Sabha

c. Lok Sabha

d. None of these

107. In India, Money bill is certified by-

a. Prime Minister

b. Finance Minister.

c. Speaker.

d. Vice President

108. A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha, if no action is taken within: —

a. Three weeks

b. Fourteen days

c. Four weeks

d. Seventeen days

109. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a period of: —

a. 14 days

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. None of the above

110. Money Bills has been defined in : —

a. Article 110,199

b. Article 110,198

c. Article 111, 199

d. Article 111, 198

111. Who in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament, as statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for the year which is known as “annual financial statement”?

a. President

b. Prime Minister

c. Finance Minister

d. Speaker of the House

112. Which of the following sets of Bills is presented to the parliament along with budget ?

a. Direct taxes and indirect taxes bill

b. Contingency bill and Appropriation bill

c. Finance bill and Appropriation bill

d. Finance bill and Contingency bill

113. Act of Parliament is called: —

a. Enactment

b. Bill

c. Law

d. None of these

114. Which one of the following statements is correct?

An ordinary bill introduced in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha becomes law: —

a. when it is passed by both the Houses and assent of the President is received

b. as soon as it is passed by both the House

c. as soon as it is passed by the Houses in which it is originated

d. None of the above

115. The Act comes into the force on the day: —

a. it receives the assent of the President or Gover-nor as the case may be

b. it receives the consent of the President or Governor as the case may be

c. it is passed by the lower house

d. it is passed by both the houses after due deliberation

116. On the dissolution of Lok Sabha, a Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament and awaiting assent of President: —

a. lapses

b. does not lapse

c. needs approval of new Lok Sabha

d. needs approval of speaker of new Lok Sabha

117. The process which empowers Lok Sabha to draw funds in advance, pending the completion budgetary process

a. Appropriation bill

b. Vote-on-account

c. Finance bill

d. Ordinance

118. Which of the following is the correct statement of law?

a. Judges make the law

b. Judges do not make the law

c. Legislature makes the law and the judges interpret them

d. Legislature makes the law and the judges interpret them but the interpretation also becomes law.

119. Who among the following in India, does not take oath of his office: —

a. Vice-President

b. Speaker

c. Parliamentary

d. M.L.A.

120. Who presides over the meetings of Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker?

a. The President

b. The Vice-President

c. Deputy Speaker

d. Prime Minister

121. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed among the special powers of the Rajya Sabha?

a. Resolution for the removal of the Vice President of India can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha

b. Resolution for creation of new All India Services can be initiated in the Rajya Sabha only

c. Laws on any subject of State list can originate only in the Rajya Sabha if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in national interest

d. None of the above

122. The post of Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha was:

a. created by the Constitution

b. created through an Act of Parliament in 1977

c. created through an ordinance of the President during the national emergency

d. created in 1981 with the consent of leaders of all the national patties

123. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the: —

a. Ministry of Home Affairs

b. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

c. President of India

d. Lok Sabha Speaker

124. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?

a. Ordinary Bill

b. Money Bill

c. Finance Bill

d. Constitution Amendment Bill

125. ‘Prorogation’ means: —

a. Inviting the Members of Parliament

b. Asking Speaker to hold Session of Lok Sabha

c. Dissolution of Lok Sabha

d. Termination of Session

126. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker-

a. is removed from the office immediately

b. remains as Speaker until the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution

c. has to submit his resignation to the President of India within 24 hours

d. can continue as Speaker for the period or 30 days only

127. During the Proclamation of Emergency, the du-ration of the House of People may be extended by the Parliament for a period not exceeding at a time.

a. One year

b. Six months

c. Nine months

d. Eighteen months

128. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament with regard to conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article-

a. 121

b. 211

c. 124

d. None of the above

129. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any Court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament as provided in-

a. Article 101(2)

b. Article 103(2)

c. Article 104

d. Article 105(2)

130. The powers and privileges of a legislature are provided under-

a. Article 156 of the Constitution of India

b. Article 167 of the Constitution of India

c. Article 186 of the Constitution of India

d. Article 194 of the Constitution of India

131. The nature of power of Parliament to punish any person for breach of its privilege is :—

a. Judicial

b. Administrative

c. Quasi-Judicial

d. None of the above

132. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of the Parliament if he is so dis-qualified under the………….Schedule.

a. Sixth

b. Eighth

c. Seventh

d. Tenth

133. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of Member of Parliament?

a. President of India

b. Concerned House of Parliament

c. Election Commission

d. President in consultation with Election Commission

134. Which one of the following in correct statement?

In deciding the question as to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President shall act-

a. according to the opinion of the Election Com-mission

b. according to the opinion of the Supreme Court

c. with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers

d. in his own discretion

135. Which Constitution Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution'?

a. 51st Amendment

b. 52nd Amendment

c. 53rd Amendment

d. 54th Amendment

136. What is the maximum number of members of the House of the People representing the Union Territories?

a. Ten

b. Fifteen

c. Twenty

d. Twenty five

137. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Speaker may be removed: —

a. by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of total membership of the House

b. by a resolution of the House of the People passed by two-thirds majority of the members present and voting

c. by a resolution of the House of the People moved after 14 days' clear notice and passed by the majority of all the then members of the House

d. by a resolution of the House of the People moved after 14-day's clear notice and passed by two third majority of members present and voting.

138. The Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absent himself without permission from the session for:

a. 30 days

b. 60 days

c. 90 days

d. 120 days

139. A member of Parliament can claim immunity: —

a. both from civil as well as criminal cases

b. from civil cases only

c. from criminal case only

d. cannot claim immunity either for civil or criminal cases

140. The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be enlarged by the: —

a. Parliament by law

b. Parliament by resolution

c. President of India

d. President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

141. Consider the following statements: —

Parliament can legislate on a subject of State List

1. if the Council of States passes a resolution by two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is expedient in the national interest to do so.

2. it two or more State Legislatures pass a resolution to that effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

142. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State list: —

a. if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-third Majority resolution that it is expedient to do so in national interest

b. for the implementation of international treaties or agreements

c. if two or more States make a request to Parliament to do so

d. in all the above cases

143. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the-

a. Prime Minister

b. Governor

c. President

d. Vidhan Sabha

144. The duty of the Chief Minister regarding furnishing the information to the Governor is provided in the Constitution under-

a. Article 165

b. Article 166

c. Article 167

d. Article 168

145. Normal duration of the Legislative Assembly is

a. 2 years

b. 7 years

c. 5 years

d. 10 years

146. The minimum age fixed for the membership of the State Legislative Council or the Vidan Parishad where bicameral Legislature exists is-

a. 25 years.

b. 30 years

c. 35years

d. 45years

147. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed-

a. l/3rd of the total number of members in the Assembly

b. 2/3rd of the total number of members in the Assembly

c. 1/2 of the total number of members in the Assembly

d. None of the above

148. As per the Constitution of India, the legislative Assembly of a State shall consist of more than 500 and not less than 60 members, but which one of the following States has got only 32 members?

a. Delhi

b. Sikkim

c. Goa

d. Puducherry

149. Which of the following grounds is necessary to be proved in order to remove a speaker of any Legislative Assembly:

a. Misbehaviour

b. Incapacity

c. Conduct involving moral turpitude

d. None of the above

150. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoys the privilege of examination from arrest or detention in prison

a. Only under civil process and during the continuance of a Joint Sitting/Meeting/Conference or Joint Committees of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such Sitting/ Meeting/ Conference

b. Under civil as well as criminal process and at all times save with the permission of the Speaker of the Chairperson as the case may be

c. Under civil as well as criminal process but only when the House is in Session

d. Do not enjoy and such exemption

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Constitution MCQs Set-3

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