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1. Which one out of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
a. Right to strike
b. Right against exploitation
c. Right to equality
d. Right to freedom of religion
2. Which one of the following is not a ground on which a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of speech and expression can be imposed?
a. Security of the State
b. Public Order
c. Morality
d. Public Policy
3. Which one of the following is a ground on which the State can impose reasonable restriction on the right to move freely throughout the territory of India: —
a. Security of the State
b. Decency
c. Morality
d. Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe
4. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as right to freedom under Article 19:
a. right to vote
b. right to citizenship
c. right to contest election
d. right to assemble peacefully without arms
5. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes: —
a. Right to strike
b. Right to collective bargaining
c. Right to lockout
d. None of these
6. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India?
a. Article 19(1) (a)
b. Article 19(1) (d)
c. Article 19(1) (e)
d. Article 19(1) (g)
7. Right of a citizen to carry on any occupation, trade or business is a: —
a. Contractual right
b. Right under Transfer of Property Act
c. fundamental Right
d. Right under Partnership Act
8. The State can make any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the right of the citizens to form associations: —
a. in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India
b. in the interest of friendly relations with foreign states
c. in relation to defamation
d. in relation to incitement of an offence
9. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Art. 19(1) (c):
a. Associations
b. Unions
c. Organizations
d. Co-operative Societies
10. Pursuant to a Constitutional amendment, "cooperative society" finds a place among fundamental rights in-
a. Article 19(1) (a)
b. Article 19(1) (b)
c. Article 19(1) (c)
d. None of the above
11. The freedom of Press in India is : —
a. available to the people under the laws of the Parliament
b. specifically provided in the Constitution of India
c. implied in the right of freedom of expression
d. available to the people under executive orders
12. It has observed by the Supreme Court of India that the world ‘socialist’ in the Preamble enables the court to lean more and more in favour of nationalization and State ownership of industry in: —
a. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b. Excel wear v. Union of India
c. A.B.S.K. Sangh (Bjiilway) v. Union of India
d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
13. What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?
a. Sing and stand respectfully
b. Stand respectfully
c. Sing the same
d. To bow
14. Right to information is essential part of Article: —
a. 19(l)(a)
b. 21
c. 19(l)(g)
d. None of these
15. Which of the following is/are not within the jurisdiction of Right to Information Act?
1. The Supreme Court of India
2. Rajiv Gandhi Foundation
3. President of India
Choose All the correct answer: —
a. All of the above
b. Only (1)
c. Only (2)
d. Only (3)
16. Which constitutional right is not a fundamental right?
a. Right to equality
b. Right to freedom
c. Right to life
d. Right to property
17. The Right to Property ceased to be Fundamental Right from-
a. 1975
b. 1976
c. 1978
d. 1979
18. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
a. Supreme Court
b. Parliament
c. President
d. None of these
19. Protection in respect of conviction for offences' is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
a. Article 22
b. Article 21
c. Article 20
d. Article 19
20. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India?
a. ex post facto laws
b. Preventive detention
c. Double jeopardy
d. Self-incrimination
21. Article 20 of the Constitution of India has close relationship with-
a. Article 11 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
b. Article 16 of the U.N. Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
c. Article 15(1) of the Constitution of the United States
d. Article 50 of the Japanese Constitution of 1946
22. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution recognizes the Doctrine of Double Jeopardy?
a. Article 22(2)
b. Article 21(2)
c. Article 20(2)
d. None of them
23. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means: —
a. Trying two persons jointly for the same offence.
b. Trying the same person for two offences at two different times
c. Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence
d. Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident.
24. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of protection in respect of conviction for offences: —
a. Ex post facto laws - double jeopardy - self incrimination
b. Double jeopardy - ex post facto penal laws - self incrimination
c. Self-incrimination - double jeopardy - ex post factor penal laws
d. Ex post facto laws - self-incrimination - double jeopardy
25. “Autre fois Acquit’ principle is related to: —
a. Retrospective operators
b. Double Jeopardy
c. Ex post Facto Law
d. Self-incrimination
26. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once: —
a. Is a principle of natural justice
b. Is contained in the BNS
c. Is contained in the Constitution of India
d. Is a principle evolved by the Courts
27. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is re-lated to Doctrine of self-incrimination?
a. Article 20(1)
b. Article 22
c. Article 20 (3)
d. Article 20 (2)
28. Doctrine of Self Incrimination enacted in Article 20(3) means-
a. No person accused of an offence can be the Judge against himself.
b. No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be the witness against himself.
c. No person accused of an offence can be compelled to give evidence against others.
d. None of the above.
29. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that polygraph test conducted under compulsion is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?
a. Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)
b. Aruna R Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)
c. Rattan Lai v. State of Punjab (1965)
d. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)
30. Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India guaran-tees the 'right against Self-incrimination' to-
a. A witness
b. An accused
c. Any person
d. None of the above
31. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.
Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against him-self.
a. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true
b. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false
c. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
d. None of the above
32. The protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is: —
a. available to citizens only
b. available to any person
c. not available to enemy alien
d. not available to a person arrested under a preventive detention law
33. Which Fundamental Right is available to all persons?
a. Right to form Union
b. Protection of life and personal liberty
c. Right to assemble peaceably
d. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
34. The protection of life and personal liberty under the Constitution of India is corresponding to-
a. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States
b. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States
c. The Sixth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States
d. The First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States
35. The words, 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 means-
a. that due process of law must be followed
b. a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority.
c. the same things as due process of law
d. a law which is reasonably fair and just
36. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has recognised "Transgender per-sons" to be persons of "Third gender"?
a. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
b. NALSAR University Hyderabad v. Union of India
c. State 'Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
d. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naaz Foundation
37. Fair trial in a criminal case is guaranteed in the constitution of India by Article: —
a. 14
b. 20
c. 21
d. 32
38. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in: —
a. the Right to Freedom
b. the Right to Personal liberty
c. the Right to Equality
d. the Right against Exploitation
39. Right of accused to speedy trial is a fundamental right under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a. 21
b. 32
c. 226
d. None of the above
40. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides for-
a. minority rights
b. equality before law
c. abolition of tides
d. right to education
41. “Article 21A-Right to education to all children of the age of six — fourteen years” has been inserted — the Constitution by: —
a. The Constitution43rd Amendment Act, 1977
b. The Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002
c. The Constitution 70th Amendment Act, 1992
d. The Constitution 74th Amendment Act, 1992
42. Assertion (A): Right to education is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R) : Our Constitution has no provision for education before making to education as Fundamental Right.
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
43. Right to free and compulsory education to children between six and fourteen years of age is provided by which Article of the Constitution?
a. Article 21A
b. Article 14
c. Article 21
d. Article 45
44. In which of the following case, majority judgement of the Supreme Court held that Aadhar not only gave them a unique identity but also a life dignity?
a. Justice K S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India.
b. B. L. Kapoor v. State of Karnataka
c. Joseph v. Union of India
d. None of the above
45. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of: —
a. Six to fourteen years
b. Six to twelve years
c. Six to ten years
d. Six to eighteen years
46. In India right to education is a: —
a. constitutional right
b. statutory right
c. fundamental right
d. common law right
47. Which provision of the Constitution spells out “right to clean environment” as a fundamental right?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
48. On Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the President has power to suspend the Fundamental Rights except the right secured by: —
a. Articles 19 and 20
b. Articles 20 and 21
c. Articles 21 and 22
d. Articles 19,20 and 21
49. The Supreme Court has held that prostitutes are entitled to a life of dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. The statement is: —
a. True
b. False
c. Partly correct
d. None of the above
50. While deciding cases of terrorists, which procedure is to be followed?
a. Procedure established by law
b. Procedure established by the Constitution
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. None of the above
51. Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution?
a. Articles 14,15 and 16
b. Articles 20,21 and 22
c. Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles
d. Articles 14,19 and 21
52. Safeguards against the arrest and detention are provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 25
b. Article 22
c. Article 14
d. Article 19
53. Every person who is arrested or detained is re-quired to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of: —
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. None of these
54. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?
a. Article 22(1)
b. Article 22(3)
c. Article 212
d. Article 22(4)
55. In which of the following cases die Supreme Court called Article 22 of the Constitution as ‘'Ugly provision of the Constitution?
a. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b. Keshvananda Baharti v. State of Kerala
c. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
d. A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras
56. No person has fundamental right to:
a. basic education
b. practice a profession
c. form association
d. approach the High Courts for enforcement of his fundamental rights
57. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called?
a. Right to rem
b. Right in personam
c. Fundamental right
d. Locus standi
58. Which one of the following correctly describes the provision of Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
a. The technicalities of the principle of res-judicata are irrelevant while dealing, with fundamental rights under Article 32
b. A person aggrieved by the decision of High Court in a writ petition under Article 226 may approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 on the same facts
c. The right to approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 is a Fundamental Right
d. A writ petition under Article 32 is a curative petition
59. In which of the following cases, a Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India has held that “whenever a person complains and claims that there is a violation of any provision of law or a Constitutional provision, it does not automatically involve breach of fundamental right for the enforcement of which alone Article 32 of the Constitution is attracted”:—
a. Ramdas Athwale v. Union of India
b. Mulchand v. State of M.P.
c. K.P. Choudhary v. State of M.P.
d. State of Kerala v. KM. Cheria Abdulla
60. The royal command of a Court for enforcement of a Fundamental Right is called: —
a. Public Interest Litigation
b. Writ
c. Direction
d. None of the above
61. By a Parliamentary legislation, the district courts were empowered to enforce the fundamental rights of citizens in service matters. The legislation is
a. invalid
b. invalid if the decisions of the district courts are subject to appeal before the Supreme Court
c. valid
d. valid even if the powers of other courts are ousted
62. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue or the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a. Six
b. Four
c. Five
d. Three
63. ‘Pubic Interest Litigation’ is filed in: —
a. Subordinate Courts
b. High Court or Supreme Court
c. Only Supreme Court
d. Central Administrative Tribunal
64. The person associated with PIL is: —
a. Justice Bhagawati
b. Justice R.N. Mishra
c. Justice Venkatachelliah
d. None of the above
65. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Writ of prohibition: available against public servant only
b. Writ of quo warranto: available against subordinate courts only
c. Writ of habeas corpus: available against private individual as Well as state
d. Writ of certiorari: available against autonomous body only
66. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution?
a. Quo Warranto
b. Certiorari
c. Prohibition
d. Interrogatory
67.Public Interest Litigations are entertained by the Supreme Court under: —
a. Article 19
b. Article 36
c. Article 32
d. Article 131
68.The system of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India: —
a. through Constitutional Amendments
b. by judicial initiative
c. by political parties
d. by a Parliamentary Act
69. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention?
a. Writ of Prohibition
b. Writ of Mandamus
c. Writ of Habeas Corpus
d. Writ of Quo Warranto
70. Which of the following protects personal freedom?
a. Quo-warranto
b. Mandamus
c. Habeas Corpus
d. Certiorari
71. The writ of Habeas corpus means: —
a. To produce the body of a person illegally detained before a Court
b. Respect the Human Rights of a person
c. Stop the violation of a right of a man
d. None of the above
72. Which of the following can be issued against pri-vate individual as well as public authority?
1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3.Prohibition
Select the correct answer given above
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
73. The principle of res judicata does not apply in case of writ Of: —
a. Habeas corpus
b. Mandamus
c. Quo-warranto
d. Prohibition
74. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued: —
a. by a superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review
b. in the form of an order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bring that person before court and show authority for such detention
c. by a superior court to a subordinate court to do something in the nature of its allotted duty
d. in the form of an order to stop proceedings in a certain case
75. A writ of mandamus can be issued: —
a. only against subordinate courts
b. against any person or authority
c. only against tribunals
d. only against the executive bodies.
76. A command asking a public authority to perform its public duty is called the writ of: —
a. Habeas corpus
b. Quo warranto
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
77. Why is the writ of ‘mandamus’ issued?
a. To direct Public Authority to perform its public duty
b. To Quash quasi-judicial proceedings
c. To Quash illegal appointment in public office
d. To prohibit a person from holding public office
78. Writ of Quo Warranto is related with: —
a. Illegal detention of a person
b. Want of Jurisdiction or a court
c. Illegal holder of a Public Office
d. None of the above
79.Which among the following writs literally means what is your authority: —
a. Certiorari
b. Habeas corpus
c. Quo warranto
d. Prohibition
80. Which writ can be issued when appointment is contrary to the statutory provisions?
a. Mandamus
b. Certiorari
c. Quo warranto
d. Prohibition
81. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against: —
a. A person exercising purely administrative powers
b. Against a Minister
c. Against any Quasi-Judicial or Judicial authority
d. None of the above
82. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice it is called a writ of: —
a. Certiorari
b. Mandamus
c. prohibition
d. Habeas Corpus
83. On which of the following grounds may the writ of certiorari be issued?
a. When the inferior tribunal has the jurisdiction to decide the matter but the finding is erroneous not being an error apparent on the face of the record.
b. When the inferior tribunal acts in contravention of the rules of natural justice
c. When the cause of action arises out of a contract not involving the violation of any statutory or constitutional provision
d. If the act done by the inferior body/authority is an executive or ministerial act.
84. An order or decision which suffers from an error of law apparent on the face of record can be quashed by a writ of: —
a. certiorari
b. mandamus
c. Prohibition
d. quo-warranto
85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: —
List-I List-II
(Writ) (Matter in dispute)
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Appointment of
a university teacher
B. Mandamus 2. Custody of a child
by parents
C. Quo Warranto 3. Violation of natural
justice
D. Certiorari 4. Refund of money illegally
collected access by taxing
authority
code
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
86. Which one of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131
b. Taking cognizance of public interest litigation matters through letters addressed to the Court
c. Enforcement of decrees and orders
d. Supreme Court under Article 142
87. Which among the following is not a fundamental right: —
a. Right to equality
b. Right to freedom of religion
c. Right to constitutional remedies
d. Equal justice & free legal aid
a. (a),(b)&(C)
b. Only (a)
c. Only (d)
d. Only (b)
88. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Article 31 A-Acquisition of estates
b. Article 31B-Exercise of police power
c. Article 32—Appointment of Chief Justice of India
d. Article 148-Attorney General of India
89. Basic structure cannot be changed. This principal of law relates to
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. BNSS
c. Constitution of India
d. Indian Contract Act
90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: —
List-I List-II
(Constitution) (Subject)
A. Article 17 1. Maternity relief
B. Article 42 2. Abolition of untouchability
C. Article 21 3. Freedom of Press
D. Article 19 4. Protection of life and personal liberty
code
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 2 1 4 3
91. Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India confers a right on all minorities to establish educational institutions.
Reason (R): The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion.
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R)' are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
92. Assertion (A): Article 15 of the Constitution of India is a particular application of the right to equality.
Reason (R): Articles 14,15 and 16 of the Con- situation of India collectively lay down the principles of equality and prohibition of discrimination.
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
93. Assertion (A): Part III and Part IV of the Constitution of India are supplementary to each other.
Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are enforceable.
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
94. When was Magna Carta granted in England?
a. 1832
b. 1911
c. 1949
d. 1215
95. State which of the following statements is correct?
a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the Indian Constitution
b. No person can waive his fundamental rights un-der the Indian Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with them.
c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights
d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his individual benefit.
96. Which one among the following statements is correct?
a. The powers of High Courts under Article 227 of the Constitution of India can be ousted
b. No one can be subjected to narcoanalysis test without his consent
c. All India Services can be created under Article 312 and 320 of the Constitution of India
d. Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction in civil matters.
97. Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the very soul of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation of Fundamental Rights. Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
98. Right of life does not include Right to die was held in the case of: —
a. K Rathinam v. Union of India
b. State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
c. Chennaagdeshwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh
d. Smt. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
99. The Supreme Court of India held that the right to life includes the right to enjoy unpolluted air and water was made in one of the following cases: —
a. Francis Coralie v. the Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi
b. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra, Dehradun v. State of Uttar Pradesh
c. S.jagannath v. Union of India (ShrimpCulture Case)
d. Subash Kumar v. State of Bihar
100. The conclusive part of Article 31 C, i.e. “and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy” was struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of: —
a. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab. AIR 1967 SC ,1643
b. Minerva Mills v U0I, AIR 1980 SC 1789
c. Bhim Singh v. UOI, AIR1981 SC234
d. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461.
101. In which one of the following cases, has the Su-preme Court observed that judicial review is a basic structure of the Constitution?
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
c. Maneka Gandhi, v. Union of India
d. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
102. Which Article in Part IV of the Constitution pro-vides for Promotion of Education and Economic Interest of the weaker section?
a. 36
b. 46
c. 59
d. 69
103. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is : —
a. Public Opinion
b. Government
c. Constitution
d. Administration
104. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of: —
a. U.S.A.
b. Canada
c. Ireland
d. Russia
105. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the con-science of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution." This was described by-
a. Granville Austin
b. A. V. Dicey
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d. K. C. Wheare
106. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed-
a. There is remedy in the court
b. There is no remedy by Judicial proceedings
c. There is remedy in Lok Adalat
d. There is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate
107. Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court.
Statement No. 2: Directive Principle of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.
a. Both the statements are true
b. Both the statements are false
c. Statements No. 1 is true but Statement No. 2 is false
d. Statement No. 2 is true but Statement No. 1 is false
108. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
a. Fundamental Rights
b. Fundamental Duties
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
109. The enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy primarily depends on : —
a. The choice of Government
b. Judiciary
c. Parliamentary Committee
d. Resources available with the Government
110. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a. The main objectives of the framers of the constitution
b. The principles that are expected to guide the State in the good governance of the country
c. The ideals of a welfare State that should be acceptable to all right thinking persons
d. Social rights as approved to personal rights enumerated in Part III
111. The Directive Principles of State Policy are: —
a. Justiciable
b. Non Justiciable
c. Not all are justiciable but some are
d. Justiciable so for do not conflict with Fundamental Rights
112. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are: —
a. fundamental in the governance of the country
b. binding on the State
c. enforceable at the instance of the President of India
d. superior of Fundamental Rights
113. Which of the following directive principles is a socialistic principle?
a. Equal pay for equal work to all
b. Protection of the health of the workers
c. Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production
d. all the above
114. The concept of equal justice and free legal aid is given under Article-
a. 14 of the Constitution of India
b. 16 of the Constitution of India
c. 39-A of the Constitution of India
d. 43-A of the Constitution of India
115. Article 39(a) of the Constitution of India obliges the State of secure: —
a. an adequate means of livelihood
b. equal pay for equal work for both men and women
c. the material resources are so distributed to serve the common good
d. the health and strength of workers, men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and the citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength
116. ‘Equal pay for equal work’ to woman is provided in which Act : —
a. Workman Compensation Act
b. Equal Remuneration Act
c. Trade Union Act
d. Industrial Dispute Act
117. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’, is a: —
a. Directive Principle of State Policy
b. Statutory provision in Labor-Law
c. Fundamental Right
d. Matter of State to pass Bill
118. By which Constitutional Amendment has Article 39A been inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act 1976
b. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978
c. The Constitution (46th Amendment) Act 1982
d. The Constitution (29th Amendment) Act 1972
119. Which decision of the Supreme Court has dealt with the right of a prisoner to a speedy trial and legal aid?
a. Kharak Singh a State of U.P.
b. A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras
c. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secy., State of Bihar
d. Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar
120. Which one of the following is Directive Principle of State Policy?
a. To organize Village Panchayats
b. Right to education
c. Right to property
d. Right to move Supreme Court
121. 'Which one of the following' is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
a. Organization of Village Panchayats.
b. Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non-citizens.
c. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.
d. Separation of Judiciary from executive.
122. The State shall endeavor to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines as laid down in-
a. Article 38 of the Constitution
b. Article 42 of the Constitution
c. Article 48 of the Constitution
d. Article 52 of the Constitution
123. It is the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as specified in-
a. Article 41 of the Constitution
b. Article 43 of the constitution
c. Article 47 of the Constitution
d. Article 50 of the Constitution
124. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organize Village Panchayats?
a. Article 40
b. Article 41
c. Article 42
d. Article 43
125.“Right to Work” in the Constitution can be traced in: —
a. Fundamental Rights
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Preamble of the Constitution
d. None of the above
126. The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under: —
a. Article 40
b. Article 43
c. Article 42
d. Article 41
127. Article 43A which deals with the participation of workers in management of industries was added in constitution by . —
a. 44th Amendment
b. 45th Amendment
c. 42nd Amendment
d. 7th Amendment
128. In which of the following Article of the Constitution provision regarding Uniform Civil Code has been given?
a. 43
b. 44
c. 46
d. 47
129. According to the Constitution of India, Uniform Civil Code is
a. a fundamental right
b. a statutory right
c. a directive principle of state policy
d. a state subject
130.Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers to:—
a. free and compulsory education for children
b. free and compulsory education to all children of the age six to fourteen years
c. education to children up to six years of age
d. none of the above
131. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Article 40 of the Constitution is related with organization of village panchayats
b. Article 47 of the Constitution is related with the promotion of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections
c. Article 48 of the Constitution is related with the agriculture and animal husbandry
d. Article 39A of the Constitution is related with the equal justice and free legal aid
132. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India relates/relate to the protection and improvement of environment?
a. Article 48A only
b. Article 51A only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A
133.The Constitution of India recognizes International Law under-
a. Article 51 and 253
b. Article 51 and 252
c. Article 50 and 253
d. Article 50 and 252
134. According to Article 50, the State Shall take steps to: —
a. Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
b. Separate functioning of judiciary from executive
c. Separate the powers of judiciary from the executive
d. Separate the powers of judiciary from the legislature
135.Separation of judiciary from the executive has been provided in which of the following?
a. The Preamble of the Constitution of India
b. The fundamental rights of the Constitution of India
c. The Directive Principles of the State Policy of the Constitution of India
d. The Seventeen Schedule of the Constitution of India
136. Assertion (A) : The Directive Principles are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Articles 19.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles have been declared superior to fundamental rights.
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
137. In which one of the following cases were the pro-visions of the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act which gave precedence to all or any Directive Principles of States Policy over the Fundamental Rights invalidated by the Supreme Court?
a. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
b. Woman Rai v. Union of India
c. Keshvananda Bharathi v. State of Kerala
d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India.
138. In which case curative petition was innovated by the Supreme Court of India?
a. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978)
b. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (1973)
c. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra, (2002)
d. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India, (2008)
139. Fundamental duties lie in part: —
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IVA
140. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen are: —
a. Enshrined in the original Constitution
b. Added to the Constitution by 42nd amendment
c. Added to the Constitution by 44th amendment
d. Added to the Constitution by the Supreme Court judgement
141. The number of Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution is: —
a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 13
142.Which of the following is not the fundamental duty of every citizen of India: —
a. to value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
b. to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
c. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
d. to confess guilt and ensure justice
143. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
a. To protect Sovereignty
b. To defend the Country
c. To respect National Anthem
d. To promote Indian Culture
144. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures is, for every citizen of India: —
a. a fundamental right
b. a legal right
c. a fundamental duty
d. none of the above
145. Which of the following duties have been pre-scribed for the citizens?
To defend to country
2. To preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
3. To organize village panchayats
4. To minimize inequalities in income
5. To secure a uniform civil code
6. To defend to country
a. 1,3,4
b. 3,4,5
c. 1,2,6
d. 2,5,6
146. Protection of lakes is an objective expressly stated in which one of the following?
a. Fundamental Duties
b. Directive Principles of State Policy
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution
147. Which of the following is not a Fundamental duty under Article 51A?
a. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
b. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
c. To provide opportunity of education to the child below the age of six by his parent or guardian
d. To have compassion for living creatures.
148. Consider the following statements: —
The Fundamental Dudes provided in the Constitution are
to cherish and follow the noble ideals
2. to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
3. to safeguard private property
4. to protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. b. Only 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1,2 and 4
149. Under Indian Constitution, Fundamental duties enshrined under Article 51A does not include the duty: —
a. To uphold and protect sovereignty of India
b. To defend the country when called upon to do so
c. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
d. To protect monuments, places and objects of national importance
150. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, who is a Parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his children or as the case may be; ward between the age of six and fourteen years.” By which Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty included?
a. By 42nd Amendment
b. By 44th Amendment
c. By 86th Amendment
d. By 92nd Amendment
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