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1. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme source of power?
a. Supreme Court of India
b. Parliament of India
c. President of India
d. Constitution of India
2. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to: —
a. The Constituent Assembly
b. The Parliament
c. The whole society
d. The people of India
3. The Constitution defines and determines the relation between
a. Various institutions and the areas of Government
b. Executive, the legislative and the Judiciary
c. Central Government, State Government and the Local Governments
d. All the above
4. The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was: —
a. 448 Articles and 12 Schedules
b. 440 Articles and 9 Schedules
c. 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
d. 395 Articles and 7 Schedules
5. How many parts are present in the Constitution of India?
a. XXV parts
b. XXIV parts
c. XXII parts.
d. XXIII parts.
6. Who is known as the architect of the Constitution of independent India?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Rajendra Prasad
c. S. Radhakrishnan
d. B.R. Ambedkar
7. The idea of forming the Constituent Assembly of India was contained in the-
a. Cripps Proposals
b. Cabinet Mission Plan
c. Govermment of India Act, 1935
d. Simon Commission Report
8. 'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following?
a. The Indian Council Act, 1909
b. The Government of India Act, 1935
c. The Government of India Act, 1919
d. None of the above
9. Which one of the following Acts made the Central Legislature bicameral i.e. the Council of States and the Legislative Assembly-
a. Indian Councils Act, 1909
b. Indian Councils Act, 1919
c. Government of India Act, 1909
d. Government of India Act, 1919
10. What was the basis of constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?
a. Wavell Plan
b. 'Puna Swaraj resolution
c. Cabinet Mission Plan
d. All of the above
11. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on-
a. 18 July, 1947
b. 14 August, 1947
c. 3 June, 1947
d. 26 July, 1947
12. The first Constituent Assembly's meeting held on 9-12-46 was presided over by-
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Shri jawaharLal Nehru
c. Shri jawaharLal Nehru
d. None of the above
13. Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Acharya J.B. Kripalani
c. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
d. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
14. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was-
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Jaiprakash Narayan
c. Rajagopalachari
d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
15. Which day is observed as 'Law Day'?
a. 9th November
b. 25th November
c. 26thNovember
d. 18thDecember
16. On which amongst the following days the Constitution of India came into effect?
a. 26th November, 1949
b. 26th January, 1950
c. 26th March, 1950
d. 26th April, 1950
17. Sovereignty under Constitution belong to
a. the President
b. the Parliament
c. the People
d. the Executives, Judiciary and Legislature
18. Which Indian artist decorated the hand written copy of the Constitution?
a. Mihir Sen
b. S.N. Banergi
c. Mukesh Bandhopadhyaya
d. Nand Lal Bose
19. Which among the following is described as 'Lawyers' Paradise?
a. Constitution of India
b. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
c. Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
d. Supreme Court of India
20. In India we follow-
a. Adversarial system of justice
b. Inquisitorial system of justice
c. Amicus Curie system of justice
d. Both (a) and (b)
21. Who was the first Indian Governor General of free India?
a. Sri C. Rajagopalachari
b. Lord Mountbatten
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. None of these
22. Which was the first country to have a written Constitution?
a. UK
b. USA
c. France
d. Russia
23. The Constitution of India is :—
a. Highly federal
b. Highly unitary
c. Neither federal nor unitary
d. Partly federal and partly unitary.
24. “The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal State with subsidiary unitary features.”
a. Sir Ivor Jennings
b. A.V. Dicey
c. Prof K.C. Wheare
d. S.A. Desmith
25. Who amongst the following has said that “Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency?
a. K.C. Wheare
b. A.V. Dicey
c. Sir Ivor Jennings
d. None of the above
26. Which one of the following is not an essential characteristic of a federal Constitution?
a. Distribution of Powers
b. Supremacy of the Constitution
c. Presidential form of Government
d. A written Constitution
27. The basic characteristic of a Federal Constitution is that the Constitution:—
a. is written
b. provides for division of powers in writing
c. provides for separation of powers
d. is written and provides for separation of powers
28. Which of the following determines the federal character of the Indian Constitution?
a. Written Constitution
b. Independent judiciary
c. Distribution of Power between the Centre and the State
d. Judicial Review
29. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution?
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. None of these
30. What are the 4 objectives mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a. Justice, liberty, equality and fraternity
b. Social, secular, democratic and republic
c. Liberty, equality, fraternity and secular
d. Justice, liberty, federal and democratic
31. The Constitution of India secures to all its citizens-
a. Justice and Equality
b. Liberty
c. Fraternity
d. All of the above.
32. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers
b. The Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspiration of the people.
c. The Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution.
d. The Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution
33. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as:—
a. a Socialist democratic Republic
b. a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
c. a Sovereign Democratic Republic
d. a None of the above
34. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:—
a. fundamental rights to all individuals
b. fundamental duties to citizens of India
c. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d. security of service to the Government servant -
35. In case there is a conflict between the Preamble and other provisions of the Constitution, which will prevail over the other: —
a. Preamble will prevail
b. Other provision will prevail
c. Both will go side by side
d. Interpretation of the Supreme Court will prevail
36. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of: —
a. Constituent Assembly of Free India
b. Constitution of India
c. Indian Independence Act
d. People of India
37. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the: —
a. Italian Constitution
b. Canadian Constitution
c. French Constitution
d. Constitution of USA
38. Preamble is the part of Constitution:—
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. May not be
39. In which case, the Supreme Court declared that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?
a. Golak Nath case
b. Berubari case
c. Kesavananda Bharati case
d. all the above cases
40. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution'?
a. In re: Golaknath case
b. In re: Maneka Gandhi
c. In re: Swan Singh
d. In re: Keshwananda Bharti
41. Which of the following case is known as Fundamental Right Case?
a. ADM Jabalpur Case
b. Keshavananda Bharti Case
c. Golaknath Case
d. Maneka Gandhi Case
42. Which one of the following statements is more correct?
a. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368
b. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended
c. Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made
d. Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution
43. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is:—
a. not a part of the Constitution
b. a part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution
c. a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity
d. a part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution
44. Consider the following objectives stated in the Preamble of the Constitution: —
1. Equality of Status and of opportunity
2. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
3. Justice, social, economic and political
4. Liberty of thought, expression and belief
What is the correct order in which these find places in the Preamble?
a. 4-3-2-4
b. 2-3-1-4
c. 1-4-3-2
d. 3-4-1-2
45. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except: —
a. Equality of status
b. Adult Franchise
c. Fraternity
d. Justice
46. Which of the following is correct about the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
a. It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution
b. It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights.
c. It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
d. It is not a part of the Constitution.
47. Which among the words appears first in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
a. Liberty
b. Equality
c. Justice
d. Fraternity
48. Preamble was amended by which amendment?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 39th Amendment
d. None of these
49. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the words “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic” were substituted for “Sovereign Democratic Republic “ vide:—
a. 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006
b. 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-6-1995
c. 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977
d. 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-6-1979
50. The words, "Unity and integrity of the Nation" were incorporated in the preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment?
a. 41st Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 43rd Amendment
d. 44th Amendment
51. The words ’Secular' and 'Socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975 by amending the-
a. Preamble
b. Directive Principles
c. Fundamental Rights
d. All of them
52. In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by-
a. Section 2 of 42nd Amendment Act
b. Section 3 of 42nd Amendment Act
c. Section 4 of 42nd Amendment Act
d. Section 5 of 42nd Amendment Act
53. In re Berubari case the Supreme Court held that:—
a. Rule of law is not a part of Constitution
b. Rule of law is a part of Constitution
c. Preamble is not a part of Constitution
d. Preamble is a part of Constitution
54. In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our “Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations.” Who was the Judge?
a. Justice Mathew
b. Justice Krishna Iyer
c. Justice Subba Rao
d. Justice H. R. Khanna
55. Which of the following cases upheld ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?
a. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
b. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
c. Waman Rao v. Union of India
d. Samatha v. State of A.R
56. The Preamble to the Constitution of India: —
a. Contains the Resolution to constitute India into inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution
b. The word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977
c. Never contained the word ‘Socialist’
d. The word ‘Socialist’ was dropped by the 42nd Amendment.
57. State which of the following statements is correct: —
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure,
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution,
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution
58. The word “secular” used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means: —
a. The State has no religion of its own
b. All religions are treated equally
c. The State has no common religion
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
59. India is a Secular State, because-
a. It has no State religion
b. Hinduism is tolerant towards other religion
c. Indian Government has nothing to do with religion
d. Minority rights are guaranteed in the Constitution.
60. The term ‘Justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is a resolution for: —
a. equal distribution of wealth
b. economy in the administration of justice
c. socio-economic and political revolution
d. cheap justice of the poorer
61. One of the following Articles describes the Republic of India as a Union and not as a federation though the words are “India, that is, Bharat, shall be a Union of States,”.
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
d. Article 4
62. India, that is Bharat, shall be
a. the Union of Union territories
b. a Union of States
c. the territories of any State
d. the Union of territories specified in the Second Schedule
63. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is
a. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
b. India or Hindustan
c. India or Bharat
d. Bharata desh or India
64. According to the Constitution of India which among the following is empowered to establish the new States?
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Cabinet
65. Under which Article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?
a. Art. 3
b. Art. 4
c. Art. 5
d. Art. 368
66. Under Article 3 of Constitution the Parliament may by law form a new state. No Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in Parliament except on recommendation of-
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Speaker
d. Any Member of Parliament
67. The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with: —
a. State Government
b. President
c. Prime Minister
d. Parliament
68. The power of Parliament of form new States or alternation of areas and boundaries is drawn from: —
a. List I-Union List only
b. List Ill-Concurrent List also
c. The Constitution other than Article 246
d. None of the above
69. Through which amendment of the Constitution of India, Sikkim was included in the Union of India?
a. 36th Amendment
b. 35th Amendment
c. Seventh Amendment
d. Fifth Amendment
70. The first State in Independent India which was created on linguistic basis was-
a. Gujarat
b. Kerala
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Haryana
71. Which one of the following is not the way of Termination of Citizenship?
a. By renunciation
b. By acquisition
c. The tour journey of another State for few months
d. By deprivation
72. Who is not a citizen by domicile?
a. Those who are born in the territory of India.
b. Those whose either mother of father was born in the territory of India.
c. Those who have been ordinarily residing in the territory of India after commencement of Constitution of India, due to his work in India.
d. Who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding commencement of Constitution of India.
73. Can a juristic person acquire citizenship under Part-II of the Constitution of India?
a. Yes, if the juristic person is in operation from more than 10 years in Indian territory
b. Yes, if that had operation in pre-partition Indian territory
c. No
d. Yes, as per provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955
74. The system of dual citizenship within the country exists in;
a. USA
b. France
c. India
d. UK
75. Fundamental Right are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
a. Part II
b. Part III
c. Part IV
d. Part V
76. The definition of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution applies to:—
a. Part III and Part IV of the Constitution
b. Only Part III of the Constitution
c. Only Part IV of the Constitution
d. None of the above
77. Which one among the following is not a relevant factor to decide whether an agency or instrumentality should be treated as ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
a. Deep and pervasive State control
b. Monopoly status conferred or recognized by the State
c. Function which are of public importance
d. Profit earning
78. Which of the following is “State” within the definition of Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. National Book Trust
b. State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT)
c. Rajiv Gandhi Board
d. Institute of Constitutional & Parliamentary Studies
79. Which of the following is not ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT)
b. A Nationalized Bank
c. Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh
d. Griha Kalyan Kendra
80. Which out of the following is not covered under ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution?
a. Central Govt.
b. State Govt.
c. University of Patna
d. A Deity
81. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?
a. National Council of Educational Research and Training
b. Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies
c. Indian Oil Corporation
d. High Court of Delhi
82. Which one of the following is ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a. A partnership firm
b. A company established under the Companies Act
c. A Cooperative Society
d. The life insurance corporation of India
83. A corporation is ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights-
a. it is a body registered according to law
b. it is an agency or instrumentality of Government
c. it has to report to Government
d. the Government services are made applicable to its employees
84. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?
a. Article 12
b. Article 13
c. Article 11
d. Article 21
85. The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of India is to: —
a. secure paramountcy to the fundamental rights
b. limit the legislative power of the State
c. define the word ‘law’
d. expand the powers of the courts
86. According to the Constitution of India, pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights are: —
a. void
b. voidable
c. required to be examined by the courts
d. none of the above
87. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution of India: —
a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
c. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
d. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
88. According to Article 13(3) of the Constitution of India, Law includes: —
a. any ordinance, order, bye-law rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law
b. any ordinance, order, bye-law, customs or usages
c. any rules, regulations or notifications in India
d. any law made by delegated authority in the country
89. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in: —
a. Bhikaji Narain v. State of Madhya Pradesh
b. Bashesharnath v. Income Tax Commissioner
c. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
d. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
90. Which of the following is included in the definition of 'law' as provided in Article 13?
a. Bye-Law
b. Custom having the force of law
c. Usage having the force of law
d. All of the above
91. The Doctrine of Eclipse is in regard to Article: —
a. 105
b. 245
c. 246
d. 13
92. The doctrine of eclipse applies to: —
a. Only to pre-constitutional laws
b. To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of non-citizens
c. To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of citizens.
d. To all laws-pre-constitutional as well as post constitutional
93. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for power of judicial review of legislative functions?
a. Article 13
b. Article 17
c. Article 18
d. Article 245
94. Judicial review means-
a. To review the judgment of one High Court Judge by another High Court Judge
b. To review one's own judgment
c. Testing the judgment of High Court by Supreme Court
d. Testing the action of Executive by Judiciary
95. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by-
a. Supreme Court alone
b. By all courts
c. Supreme Court as well as High Courts
d. None of the Courts
96. Judicial Review of the 9th Schedule of the Constitution has been made permissible by which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court?
a. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
b. M. Nagraj v. Union of India
c. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
d. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
97. The concept of judicial review in India is inspired by the Constitution of-
a. Britain
b. France
c. USA
d. Switzerland
98. 'Equality before law' is a fundamental right en-shrined in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India-
a. Article 13
b. Article 16
c. Article 14
d. Article 19
99. Right to equality are in Article: —
a. 14-18
b. 18-19
c. 20-21
d. 32
100. ‘The rule of law’ is found in
a. Article 12
b. Article 14
c. Article 16
d. Article 21
101. Article 14 of the Constitution of India is confined to-
a. the citizen of India only
b. to any person
c. to citizen of Commonwealth Countries
d. None of the above
102. The equality provision viz. Article 14 of the Constitution of India has been influenced by the Constitution of: —
a. U.S.A.
b. Canada
c. Japan
d. Australia
103. Article 14 does not encompass: —
a. Equality before law
b. Equal protection of laws
c. Protection against arbitrary action
d. Protection of life and liberty
104. Select the most appropriate: —
Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides all persons:
a. equality before law
b. reservation
c. equality before law and equal protection of law
d. freedom of religion
105. The right to ‘equality before the law’ contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to: —
a. natural persons only
b. legal persons
c. citizens of India
d. all persons whether natural or legal
106. Select the right option based on following Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): The principal of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances.
Code:
a. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false but (R) is true
107. The Supreme Court of India has adopted new approach for the interpretation of the concept ‘Equality’ in :—
a. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ati. Sarkar
b. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
c. Keshavanananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.
d. State of Karnataka v. Appa Balulngale
108. Which of the following is true and correct regarding Art. 14 of the Constitution of India?
a. It forbids class legislation
b. It allows reasonable classification
c. Both. It forbids class legislation and allows rea-sonable classification
d. None of these
109. The new concept of equality as an antithesis of arbitrariness was propounded first by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?
a. Ramakrishna dalmia V. Justice Tendolkar
b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
d. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
110. According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?
a. Equality after law
b. Equality of fixed rules of law
c. Equality under law
d. Equality before law
111. The ‘equal protection of Laws’ in Article 14 has been taken from:—
a. British Constitution
b. American Constitution
c. Australian Constitution
d. None of the above
112. Which of the following fundamental rights is available to both the citizens and non-citizens?
a. The right to six freedoms
b. The right to equality before law
c. Cultural and educational rights
d. the right to equality of opportunity in public employment
113. Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available to-
a. Any person
b. Any citizen
c. Any corporation
d. None of the above
114. Protective Discrimination is constitutionally valid in view of
a. 15(4) and 16(4)
b. Article 15(4) and 20(2)
c. Article 15 (4) and 21
d. None of the above
115. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit the State to make special provision for one of the following which one is that?
a. Socially and educationally backward classes
b. A class of specific religion
c. Only scheduled caste and scheduled tribes
d. None of the above
116. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination between citizen on the basis of:—
a. Religion and caste only
b. Religion, race and caste only
c. Religion, caste and sex only
d. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
117. Article 15(3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for:—
a. reservation in employment for freedom fighters
b. women and children
c. reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons
d. relaxation of minimum qualifying marks for admission to those belonging to SC and ST category
118. Reservation of seats, in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by: —
a. Article 15(4) of the Constitution
b. Article 16(4) of the Constitution
c. Article 29(2) of the Constitution
d. Article 14 of the Constitution
119. Backwardness under Article 15(4): —
a. must be social and educational
b. must be social and not necessarily to be educational
c. must be economic as well as social
d. none of the above is correct
120. Reservation of seats in educational Institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by
a. Article 15(5) of the Constitution
b. Article 16(4) of the Constitution
c. Article 29(2) of the Constitution
d. Article 14 of the Constitution
121. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has declared Article 15(5) as Constitutional?
a. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
b. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
c. State of Madras v. Champakai Dorairajan
d. T.MA. Pai Foundations v. State of Karnataka
122. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?
a. D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat
b. MR Balaji v. State of Mysore
c. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
d. T. Devadasan v. Union of India
123. In which case did the Supreme Court observe “Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reason and prohibits discrimination without reason”?
a. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
b. Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
c. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib
d. Anwar ali Sarkar v. State of West Bengal
124. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment:
a. Is guaranteed to all citizens of India
b. Is guaranteed to all residents of India
c. Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship
d. Is not provided for in the Constitution
125. Under Article 16 the words 'any employment of office' applies-
a. Only to public employments
b. Private employments
c. Both public and private employments
d. None of the above
126. The right to equality prevents the State from: —
a. Making any provision for women and children
b. Making 3% reservation for physically handicapped persons
c. Making special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens
d. Giving reservations in public employment to Scheduled Tribes irrespective of any consideration to efficiency of administration
127. Which Article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes: —
a. Article 15(4)
b. Article 16(4)
c. Article 16(4A)
d. Article 16(4B)
128. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Clause (4B) was added to Article 16 of the Constitution?
a. 80th
b. 82nd
c. 81st
d. 85th
129. Catch up” rule established by the Supreme Court of India relates to which of the following Article of the Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 16(4)
c. Article 15 (4)
d. Article 16(4A)
130. According to Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is:—
a. backward class under Article 16(4)
b. not backward class under Article 16(4)
c. mainly socially backward class
d. not politically organized class
131. Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to have a special drive for unfilled reserved vacancies of a year?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15(4)
c. Article 16(4)
d. Article 16 (4B)
132. 'Carry forward' rule was held to be 'ultra vires’ in the case of-
a. Devdasan v. Union of India
b. B.N. Timri v. State of Mysore
c. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
d. Balaji v. State of Mysore
133. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Article 16(4-A) providing for reserva¬tion in promotions is a enabling provision?
a. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
b. M. Nagraj v. Union of India
c. State of Kerala v. NM. Thomas
d. TM. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
134. Which of the following cases is popularly known as "the Mandal case"?
a. TMA Pai Foundation v. Union of India
b. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
c. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
d. None of the above
135. Creamy layer" rule excluding the well placed members of a caste from reservation was first laid down in the case of-
a. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
b. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
d. Minerva Mills v. Union of India.
136. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under:—
a. Article 14 of the Constitution
b. Article 16 of the Constitution
c. Article 17 of the Constitution
d. Article 19 of the Constitution
137. Practicing untouchability is;
a. Violation of a constitutional right
b. A criminal offence
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Violation of a legal right only
138. An unlawful compulsory labour is deemed to be a practice of “untouchability” when any person compels other person to do—
a. scavenging
b. removing any carcass
c. sweeping
d. all of the above
139. Which of the following is prohibited without the consent of the President of India according to Article 18?
a. Conferment of title
b. Accepting any title from foreign State
c. Accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any foreign State
d. All of the above.
140. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or truth under the State cannot accept any title from foreign State without the consent of the:
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
d. Council of Minister
141. Balaji Raghwan v. Union of India AIR 1996 SC 770 is related with which of the following Article of the Constitution of India?
a. 25
b. 29
c. 18
d. 12
142. Which Article of our Constitution provides the right to freedom of speech and expression to the citizens of India?
a. Article 18
b. Article 19
c. Article 17
d. Article 20
143. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to:—
a. Citizens of India
b. Citizens of India and Foreigners
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. Foreigners living in India
144. Six Freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution are-
a. Sacrosanct and inalienable
b. Absolute without any restriction
c. Subject to reasonable restrictions
d. Both (a) and (c) above
145. The number of categories of freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 is : —
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
146. Which Fundamental Right is available to citizens only?
a. Right to Equality
b. Protection against arrest and detention
c. Freedom of speech and expression
d. Protection of life and personal liberty
147. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India?
a. Freedom of speech and expression
b. Freedom to from associations or union
c. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
d. Freedom of self determination
148. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to liberty of press?
a. Article 19
b. Article 20
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
149. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1) (a) includes the right to information ?
a. Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting n. Cricket Association of Bengal
b. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
c. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
d. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
150. The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of India in the case of: —
a. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
b. Abhay Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
c. Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
d. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
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