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Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 Amendment (2022) MCQs Set-1
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There are 3 Sets of MCQs available for Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 (Amendment 2022), you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. What is the short title of the rules framed under the Bihar prohibition law?
a. Bihar Excise Rules, 2021
b. Bihar Prohibition Rules, 2021
c. Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021
d. Bihar Liquor Control Rules, 2021
2. The Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 extend to which area?
a. Whole of the state of Bihar
b. Selected districts of Bihar
c. Whole of the India
d. Only urban areas of Bihar
3. When do the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021 come into force?
a. On the date of approval by the State Legislature
b. On the date specified by the Excise Commissioner
c. On the day of its publication in the Official Gazette
d. After six months of notification
4. In the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules, 2021, the term “The Act” refers to which legislation?
a. Bihar Excise Act, 1915
b. Bihar Registration Act, 1908
c. Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016
d. Bihar Liquor Regulation Act, 2015
5. The Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 is also referred to as which Act number?
a. Act 21 of 2016
b. Act 10 of 2016
c. Act 15 of 2016
d. Act 20 of 2016
6. Under the rules, “Agency or Agent” means which of the following?
a. Any registered trader dealing in alcohol
b. Individual, firm or government institution selected by the State Government for procurement of excise hologram, adhesive labels or GPS enabled digital lock
c. Only government employees of the excise department
d. Any private distributor of liquor
7. What does the term “Bulk litre” mean under the rules?
a. A litre with reference to the bulk or quantity of the contents
b. A litre measured after dilution
c. A litre excluding impurities
d. A litre used only for measuring packaged liquor
8. Who is included within the term “Chemical Examiner” under the rules?
a. Only officers of the Excise Department
b. Only forensic experts appointed by the High Court
c. Officers appointed as Chemical Examiner in specified laboratories including deputy chemical examiners
d. Private laboratory technicians
9. Which of the following laboratories may have a Chemical Examiner under the rules?
a. Excise Chemical Laboratory
b. Forensic Science Laboratory
c. Central Forensic Science Laboratory
d. All of the above
10. The term “Department” refers to which department of the Government of Bihar?
a. Department of Home Affairs
b. Department of Finance
c. Department of Food and Civil Supplies
d. Department of Prohibition, Excise and Registration
11. Under these rules, the term “Form” means:
a. Any written application submitted to the government
b. A judicial affidavit
c. Format prescribed under these rules
d. Only online applications
12. The “New Excise Policy” referred to in the rules was published through Gazette Notification No. 3893 dated:
a. 21-12-2014
b. 21-12-2016
c. 01-01-2017
d. 21-12-2015
13. Under the rules, the term “Person” includes which of the following?
a. Individual and Hindu Undivided Family only
b. Partnership firm, cooperative society and company only
c. Individual, Hindu Undivided Family, partnership firm, cooperative society and company
d. Only natural persons
14. The company included in the definition of “Person” must be incorporated under which Act?
a. Companies Act, 1956
b. Companies Act, 2013
c. Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
d. Partnership Act, 1932
15. In the rules, the term “Section” refers to:
a. Section of the Constitution
b. Section of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Rules
c. Section of the Criminal Procedure Code
d. Section of the Act
16. According to the rules, the term “Year” means the period beginning from:
a. 1st January to 31st December
b. 1st July to 30th June
c. 1st March to last day of February
d. 1st April to 31st March of the subsequent year
17. The manufacturers of industrial alcohol must obey regulations and directives issued by which authority?
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Central Government
18. The regulations issued to manufactories must be in furtherance of which policy?
a. Industrial Development Policy
b. National Alcohol Policy
c. Pollution Control Policy
d. New Excise Policy and Complete Prohibition
19. Manufactories of industrial alcohol must observe the guidelines issued by which body?
a. Central Pollution Control Board
b. State Pollution Control Board
c. Ministry of Environment
d. District Health Authority
20. No manufactory shall alter the plant or machinery without prior approval of which authority?
a. Collector
b. State Government
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Pollution Control Board
21. The application for alteration, addition, or replacement of plant or machinery must be routed through whom?
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. Pollution Control Board
d. Excise Inspector
22. An application for alteration, addition or replacement in the manufactory must be made in which form?
a. Form EL-1
b. Form EL-2
c. Form EL-1A
d. Form EL-1B
23. Permission for alteration in plant or machinery is issued by the Collector in which form?
a. Form EL-1
b. Form EL-1A
c. Form EL-2
d. Form EL-1B
24. After approval by the Excise Commissioner, the alteration in the manufactory will be entered into which document?
a. Register of manufactories
b. Licence record
c. Inspection book
d. Map of the manufactory
25. The proprietor of a manufactory must give prior notice before commencing operations to whom?
a. Excise Commissioner
b. Collector
c. State Government
d. Pollution Control Board
26. The proprietor must give how many days’ prior notice before commencing operations?
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days
27. Before closure of operations of a manufactory, the proprietor must give prior notice of at least:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 1 month
28. The movement or transportation of industrial alcohol and intoxicants manufactured within Bihar shall be regulated by whom?
a. Central Government
b. District Magistrate
c. State Government under the Rules
d. Police Department
29. An export permit for industrial alcohol may be issued only after the manufacturer produces which document?
a. Transport permit
b. Warehouse licence
c. Excise pass
d. Import permit
30. The valid import permit must be produced before which authority for obtaining an export permit?
a. Collector
b. District Magistrate
c. Excise Inspector
d. Excise Commissioner
31. An application for export permit must be made in which form?
a. Form EL-1
b. Form EL-2
c. Form EL-3
d. Form EL-2A
32. The export permit is issued in which form under these rules?
a. Form EL-2A
b. Form EL-2B
c. Form EL-30
d. Form EL-28
33. The export permit issued under Rule 4 is valid for a maximum period of:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
34. After issuance of the export permit, who is competent to issue the movement pass?
a. Collector
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Excise Officer deputed at the manufacturing unit
d. District Magistrate
35. The movement pass authorizes the manufacturer to transport industrial alcohol from:
a. Warehouse to retail shop
b. State border to district office
c. Depot to police station
d. Manufacturing point to destination
36. The movement pass issued for transportation shall remain valid for:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. One month
d. The remaining period of the export permit
37. Movement of industrial alcohol must take place only in which type of vehicle?
a. Government vehicle
b. Sealed container vehicle
c. Police escort vehicle
d. GPS enabled digitally locked vehicle
38. What fee is charged for issuance of a movement pass under these rules?
a. ₹500
b. ₹1000
c. ₹100
d. No fee
39. Who has the authority to change the procedure relating to export, transportation, and transit under Rule 4?
a. Collector
b. State Government
c. Excise Commissioner with approval of the Department
d. High Court
40. Under Rule 5, who is empowered to prescribe, change, amend or delete any form or format?
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. District Magistrate
d. Excise Commissioner
41. The Excise Commissioner can exercise the power to amend forms only after approval of which authority?
a. State Legislature
b. Department
c. High Court
d. Central Government
42. The power to amend forms and formats is given mainly to facilitate which objective?
a. Increase excise revenue
b. Increase number of licences
c. Promote alcohol manufacturing
d. Make the prohibition and excise regime online
43. Under Rule 5, the Excise Commissioner may modify forms for which of the following purposes?
a. To make the prohibition and excise regime online
b. For any other purpose approved by the Department
c. Administrative convenience
d. Both (a) and (b)
44. Which of the following actions can be taken by the Excise Commissioner regarding forms and formats?
a. Prescribe new forms
b. Change or amend existing forms
c. Delete forms or formats
d. All of the above
45. Rule 6 applies to which type of distilleries?
a. Molasses based distilleries
b. Grain based distilleries producing ENA or Ethanol
c. Beer manufacturing units
d. Wine producing units
46. A grain based distillery producing ENA or Ethanol must ensure that it does not act in any manner prejudicial to:
a. Industrial policy of the State
b. Trade policy of India
c. Government’s prohibition policy
d. Environmental policy
47. Under Rule 6, a distillery producing ENA or Ethanol shall not manufacture which of the following?
a. Industrial alcohol
b. Potable alcohol
c. Ethanol
d. Denatured spirit
48. A distillery producing ENA or Ethanol is prohibited from converting ENA or Ethanol into:
a. Industrial alcohol
b. Biofuel
c. Denatured spirit
d. Potable alcohol
49. All consignments entering or exiting the distillery premises must be transported in:
a. Sealed trucks
b. Government vehicles
c. GPS enabled digitally locked containers
d. Railway wagons only
50. Who appoints excise officers and other functionaries at the distillery for compliance of the Act and Rules?
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. Excise Commissioner
d. District Magistrate
51. The appointed excise officers ensure compliance with which law?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 and rules made thereunder
c. Environment Protection Act
d. Companies Act
52. Who is responsible for installing CCTV cameras for round-the-clock surveillance of the distillery premises?
a. Excise Commissioner
b. Collector
c. Proprietor of the distillery
d. Police Department
53. The CCTV cameras must capture which of the following activities?
a. Employee attendance only
b. Only production activities
c. Only warehouse storage
d. Movement of vehicles entering and exiting the distillery
54. CCTV data of the distillery surveillance must be stored for at least:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 6 months
d. 1 month
55. ENA or Ethanol produced by the distillery shall be subject to periodical chemical analysis under whose orders?
a. State Government only
b. Excise Commissioner or Collector
c. District Magistrate only
d. Pollution Control Board
56. If any defect in the quality of ENA or Ethanol is found, the manufacturer must take steps to remedy it to the satisfaction of:
a. State Government
b. Collector only
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Pollution Control Board
57. The manufacturer company must make arrangements for disposal of affluents, waste matter and refuse as prescribed by whom?
a. State Government only
b. Pollution Control Board
c. Excise Commissioner or Collector
d. District Magistrate
58. The arrangements regarding disposal of affluents and waste must be prescribed in:
a. Gazette notification
b. Written order
c. Oral directions
d. Court order
59. Under Rule 6, the distiller must maintain which type of accounts?
a. Weekly accounts
b. Monthly accounts
c. Annual accounts only
d. Accurate and regular daily accounts
60. The daily accounts maintained by the distiller must show which of the following?
a. Quantity and description of materials used
b. Quantity of wash and industrial alcohol manufactured
c. Quantity of wash used
d. All of the above
61. The daily accounts of the distillery must include the quantity of industrial alcohol that is:
a. Manufactured
b. Passed out
c. In store
d. All of the above
62. The distiller must maintain records regarding the quantities of wash and industrial alcohol:
a. Used only
b. Manufactured only
c. In store
d. Both used/manufactured and in store
63. The daily accounts must also include the quantities of which by-products in store?
a. Rectified spirit
b. Impure spirit
c. Neutral spirit
d. Fermented wash
64. The distiller must maintain records regarding which of the following substances used in the distillery?
a. Catalysts
b. Denaturants
c. Yeast
d. Additives
65. The daily accounts must include the quantity of denaturants:
a. Used
b. In store
c. Only purchased
d. Both used and in store
66. The manufacturer company must comply with the judgment dated 14.07.2017 passed in which case?
a. Writ Petition (Civil) No. 1024/2016
b. SLP (C) 16828–16831/2017
c. Criminal Appeal No. 256/2015
d. SLP (C) 4521/2018
67. As per the undertaking required under Rule 6, the manufacturer company shall not manufacture:
a. Industrial alcohol
b. Denatured spirit
c. Potable alcohol
d. Ethanol
68. Under Rule 6, the manufacturer company must ensure that industrial alcohol is not converted into:
a. Ethanol
b. Rectified spirit
c. Potable alcohol
d. Biofuel
69. The manufacturer company shall also undertake that it will not submit any application for renewal of licence for manufacture of:
a. Industrial alcohol
b. Ethanol
c. Denatured spirit
d. Potable alcohol
70. Breach or non-observance of conditions by the manufacturer company may lead to penal action under which Chapter of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016?
a. Chapter III
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter V
d. Chapter VI
71. Penal action for violation of conditions applies when the breach relates to:
a. Transport of alcohol only
b. Manufacture/production of industrial alcohol
c. Sale of alcohol
d. Import of alcohol
72. The manufacturer company or distillery may be liable for penal action if there is breach of conditions specified by whom?
a. District Magistrate
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Police Superintendent
d. Central Government
73. The manufacturer company shall be bound by which type of orders issued by the Excise Commissioner?
a. Judicial orders only
b. Administrative circulars only
c. Legislative orders
d. General or special orders
74. The orders of the Excise Commissioner binding on the manufacturer company may be issued:
a. Once every year
b. Only during licensing
c. From time to time
d. Only during inspection
75. Rule 7 deals with the transit and transportation of which of the following?
a. Rectified spirit only
b. Intoxicants and ENA/Industrial Alcohol
c. Beer and wine
d. Denatured spirit only
76. When a consignment of intoxicant or ENA/industrial alcohol is transported through Bihar from outside the State to another place outside the State, it must pass through:
a. Any road checkpoint
b. Entry and exit points declared by the Excise Commissioner
c. Police stations only
d. National highways only
77. Who declares the entry and exit points for transit of intoxicants or industrial alcohol through Bihar?
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Transport Commissioner
78. At the time of entry into Bihar, the driver or person in charge of the vehicle must obtain which document?
a. Export permit
b. Transport licence
c. Warehouse permit
d. Transit pass
79. The application for obtaining a transit pass must be made in which form?
a. Form EL-2A
b. Form EL-3A
c. Form EL-3B
d. Form EL-4
80. The transit pass issued at the entry point is granted in which form?
a. Form EL-3A
b. Form EL-2B
c. Form EL-4A
d. Form EL-3B
81. The transit pass issued in Form EL-3B must be surrendered at which place?
a. First entry point
b. Collector’s office
c. Police station
d. Last destined exit point of the State of Bihar
82. The transit pass must be surrendered within what time period from the date and time of its issue?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
83. Failure to surrender the transit pass within the prescribed time will attract penal provisions of which chapter of the Act?
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter V
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter VII
84. Every vehicle transiting through Bihar must install which device at the time of issuance of the transit permit?
a. RFID tracker
b. CCTV system
c. Smart tax meter
d. GPS enabled digital lock
85. The GPS enabled digital lock shall be installed:
a. Without any fee
b. On payment of such fee as prescribed by the Excise Commissioner
c. Only by police authorities
d. Only at exit points
86. Empty bottles meant for bottling intoxicants while being transported through Bihar must be carried in:
a. Wooden crates
b. Sealed trucks
c. Plastic containers
d. Digitally locked containers
87. Failure to transport empty bottles in digitally locked containers will attract penal provisions under which chapter of the Act?
a. Chapter III
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter V
d. Chapter VI
88. Under Rule 7(5), the power to intercept the movement of vehicles carrying intoxicants or industrial alcohol is vested in which officer?
a. Police Officer
b. Any officer within the meaning of Section 73 of the Act
c. District Magistrate
d. Transport Officer
89. An officer under Section 73 of the Act may call upon the driver or person in charge of the vehicle to produce which of the following?
a. Transit pass issued at the entry check post
b. Documents related to transportation of the consignment
c. Vehicle documents
d. Both (a) and (b)
90. The officer may detain, search and inquire into the consignment only when:
a. The vehicle crosses the state border
b. There is reasonable suspicion
c. The driver refuses to cooperate
d. The goods are intoxicants
91. Upon finding violation of any direction of the Excise Commissioner or provisions of the Act or Rules, the officer may seize which of the following?
a. Documents
b. Conveyance or animal
c. Intoxicant
d. All of the above
92. After seizure or detection of violation under Rule 7(5), action may be taken under which chapter of the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016?
a. Chapter III
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter V
d. Chapter VI
93. The power of detention, search, and inquiry under Rule 7(5) is exercised in relation to:
a. Any vehicle entering Bihar
b. Movement of intoxicants or industrial alcohol
c. All commercial vehicles
d. Vehicles transporting agricultural products
94. Rule 8 deals with which of the following situations?
a. Export of intoxicants
b. Storage of industrial alcohol
c. Licensing of distilleries
d. Accidents or breakdown of vehicles transporting intoxicants
95. If a vehicle carrying intoxicant suffers an accident or breakdown, who must immediately inform the authorities?
a. Only the owner of the vehicle
b. Only the transport company
c. Driver or person in charge of the vehicle or the owner
d. Excise Commissioner
96. The accident or breakdown must be reported immediately to:
a. Collector only
b. Local Excise Officer or Police Officer
c. State Government
d. Transport Commissioner
97. If there is any unnecessary delay in reporting the accident or breakdown, the person responsible must provide:
a. Written apology
b. Police clearance
c. Court order
d. Sufficient explanation
98. When a Police Officer receives information about such accident or breakdown, he must report the matter to whom?
a. District Magistrate
b. Local officer of Prohibition and Excise Department
c. State Government
d. Transport Authority
99. Upon receiving such information, the Excise Officer must immediately:
a. Seal the vehicle
b. Arrest the driver
c. Inform the High Court
d. Visit the accident site
100. During the visit to the accident site, the Excise Officer must take note of:
a. Loss of intoxicant, if any
b. Photographs of the site
c. Condition of the vehicle
d. Both (a) and (b)
101. After inspection of the accident site, the Excise Officer must prepare:
a. A seizure memo
b. A detailed inventory
c. A charge sheet
d. A police report
102. The detailed report prepared by the Excise Officer must be submitted to whom?
a. Collector only
b. Assistant Commissioner of Excise or Excise Superintendent of the district
c. State Government
d. Police Superintendent
103. If the owner is unable or unwilling to transfer the intoxicant to another conveyance, the stock may be:
a. Returned to the manufacturer
b. Stored in warehouse
c. Auctioned
d. Confiscated and destroyed
104. The confiscation of such intoxicant stock is done by:
a. Excise Commissioner
b. Collector
c. District Magistrate
d. Assistant Commissioner of Excise
105. The confiscated intoxicant shall be destroyed according to the provisions of:
a. The Companies Act
b. The Criminal Procedure Code
c. The Motor Vehicles Act
d. The Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act
106. Industrial alcohol shall be stored in which place according to Rule 9?
a. Factories only
b. Warehouses
c. Retail shops
d. Government depots
107. The warehouses storing industrial alcohol shall be inspected regularly by whom?
a. Police Officer
b. Collector
c. District Magistrate
d. Authorized Excise Officer
108. Inspection of warehouses storing industrial alcohol shall be conducted:
a. Once a year
b. Occasionally
c. On a regular basis
d. Only when complaints are received
109. Any enhancement of storage capacity of industrial alcohol requires prior permission from:
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. Pollution Control Board
d. Excise Commissioner
110. Enhancement of storage capacity of industrial alcohol without permission of the Excise Commissioner is:
a. Allowed with intimation
b. Permitted with police approval
c. Allowed after inspection
d. Not permitted
111. Under Rule 10, who is empowered to take samples of industrial alcohol for analysis?
a. Any Police Officer
b. Collector
c. Any Officer within the meaning of Section 6 of the Act
d. Transport Officer
112. Samples of industrial alcohol must be taken in how many parts?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
113. Samples of industrial alcohol shall be taken in the presence of whom?
a. Police Officer
b. Collector
c. Manufacturer or his authorized representative
d. District Magistrate
114. After collection, the samples must be immediately and securely:
a. Packed
b. Sealed
c. Stored
d. Numbered
115. The labels affixed on the samples must bear the signature of:
a. Excise Commissioner only
b. Manufacturer or his authorized representative
c. Police Officer
d. District Magistrate
116. Out of the three samples collected, how many samples are handed over to the manufacturer or his representative?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None
117. One sample of industrial alcohol collected must be sent to whom for analysis?
a. Police Laboratory
b. Chemical Examiner
c. Collector
d. District Court
118. The third sample collected shall be kept in:
a. Police station
b. Store of the local Excise office
c. Manufacturer’s warehouse
d. Collector’s office
119. If the manufacturer or his representative is not present or refuses to sign the label, the label shall be signed by:
a. Collector
b. Police Officer
c. Excise Officer
d. District Magistrate
120. When the manufacturer refuses or is absent during sampling, the reason must be:
a. Ignored
b. Recorded and forwarded in the forwarding letter
c. Reported to the police
d. Submitted to the High Court
121. If the sample does not conform to the prescribed specifications on chemical examination, the manufacturer shall be liable for action under:
a. Chapter IV of the Act
b. Chapter V of the Act
c. Chapter VI of the Act
d. Chapter VII of the Act
122. If the sample fails the chemical examination, the samples shall be destroyed after what period?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
123. The destruction of such samples shall be carried out in the manner prescribed by:
a. State Government
b. Excise Commissioner
c. Collector
d. Police Department
124. The samples shall not be destroyed if there is an order to the contrary by:
a. Police Officer
b. Collector
c. Court of competent jurisdiction
d. Excise Commissioner
125. Rule 11 relates to the movement of intoxicants meant for which of the following?
a. Retail liquor shops
b. Private warehouses
c. Hotels and restaurants
d. CSD Canteens run by the Armed Forces
126. Intoxicants transported for CSD Canteens must be moved through:
a. Private transport vehicles
b. Railway wagons only
c. Police vehicles
d. Transport vehicles under Army escort
127. Which CSD Canteens are allowed to store liquor or intoxicants under Rule 11?
a. Any CSD canteen in the State
b. All government canteens
c. Any army welfare centre
d. Only those located in cantonment areas, military stations and air force stations notified under the Cantonment Act, 2006
128. Storage of liquor or intoxicants by CSD Canteens is permitted only in areas notified under which law?
a. Army Act, 1950
b. Cantonment Act, 2006
c. Defence Services Act
d. Excise Act, 1915
129. Personnel of the Armed Forces or retired personnel are not allowed to consume, carry or possess liquor outside which areas?
a. Military headquarters
b. District headquarters
c. Police stations
d. Cantonment areas or other stations notified under the Cantonment Act, 2006
130. The restriction on possession or consumption of liquor outside notified cantonment areas applies to:
a. Only civilians
b. Only serving Armed Forces personnel
c. Only defence officers
d. Both serving and retired Armed Forces personnel
131. Which authority issues guidelines regarding transportation, storage and accounting of intoxicant stocks in CSD canteens?
a. State Government
b. Department of Prohibition, Excise and Registration
c. Excise Commissioner
d. Armed Forces Headquarters
132. The guidelines issued by the Department under Rule 11 relate to which of the following?
a. Transportation of intoxicants
b. Storage of intoxicants
c. Accounting of stocks
d. All of the above
133. If any offence under the Act is committed in any premises, who has the power to seal the premises?
a. Collector
b. Police Superintendent
c. District Magistrate
d. Any officer within the meaning of Section 73 of the Act
134. The premises may be sealed when:
a. Only after conviction
b. Only after court order
c. If any offence is or has been committed under the Act
d. Only after charge sheet
135. The term “immediately” for sealing the premises means:
a. Within 7 days
b. Within 48 hours
c. In the course of the raid itself
d. Within 15 days
136. If sealing is not done during the raid, it must be done within what time from the institution of the FIR?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
137. After sealing the premises, the officer must report the sealing to whom?
a. State Government
b. Collector
c. Police Superintendent
d. District Court
138. The report of sealing must be sent to the Collector within:
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
139. If the premises is a temporary structure that cannot be effectively sealed, what action may be taken?
a. Seal it partially
b. Lock the premises
c. Leave it unattended
d. Demolish the temporary structure after obtaining order of the Collector
140. A premises shall be fully sealed where intoxicant has been:
a. Manufactured
b. Stored or sold
c. Imported or transported
d. All of the above
141. In case of a private residential premises, the sealing should preferably apply to:
a. Entire house
b. Entire building
c. Entire locality
d. Only the portion used for committing the offence
142. If a residential premises is used to provide facilities for consumption of intoxicants to others, the premises shall be:
a. Partially sealed
b. Fined only
c. Compulsorily sealed
d. Warned only
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